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Question 1
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A 26-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of suprapubic pain and fever. She has no significant medical or surgical history but takes a daily combined oral contraceptive pill and multivitamin. The surgical team orders a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis, which shows pelvic fat stranding and free fluid in the pouch of Douglas. What is the most probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease can be a challenging diagnosis for emergency practitioners, as it presents with vague abdominal pain that can be mistaken for a surgical or gynecological issue. While CT scans are not ideal for young patients due to the risk of radiation exposure to the sex organs, they can reveal common findings for pelvic inflammatory disease, such as free fluid in the pouch of Douglas, pelvic fat stranding, tubo-ovarian abscesses, and fallopian tube thickening of more than 5 mm. In contrast, CT scans for appendicitis may show appendiceal dilatation, thickening of the caecal apex with a bar sign, periappendiceal fat stranding and phlegmon, and focal wall nonenhancement in cases of gangrenous appendix. The most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In cases of appendicitis, Escherichia coli is the most likely causative organism, with rare cases caused by other organisms.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old male is hospitalized with a chest infection affecting his lower respiratory system. He underwent a splenectomy following a car accident. What is the probable causative agent of the infection?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:After a splenectomy, the risk of sepsis is highest from encapsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Meningococci. The severity of sepsis can vary due to the presence of small fragments of splenic tissue that may still have some function. These fragments can be implanted spontaneously after a splenic rupture or during the splenectomy surgery.
Managing Post-Splenectomy Sepsis in Hyposplenic Individuals
Hyposplenism, which is the result of splenic atrophy or medical intervention such as splenectomy, increases the risk of post-splenectomy sepsis, particularly with encapsulated organisms. Diagnosis of hyposplenism is challenging, and the most sensitive test is a radionucleotide labelled red cell scan. To prevent post-splenectomy sepsis, individuals with hyposplenism or those who may become hyposplenic should receive pneumococcal, Haemophilus type b, and meningococcal type C vaccines. Antibiotic prophylaxis is also recommended, especially for high-risk individuals such as those immediately following splenectomy, those aged less than 16 years or greater than 50 years, and those with a poor response to pneumococcal vaccination. Asplenic individuals traveling to malaria endemic areas are also at high risk and should have both pharmacological and mechanical protection. It is crucial to counsel all patients about taking antibiotics early in the case of intercurrent infections. Annual influenzae vaccination is also recommended for all cases.
Reference:
Davies J et al. Review of guidelines for the prevention and treatment of infection in patients with an absent or dysfunctional spleen: Prepared on behalf of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology by a Working Party of the Haemato-Oncology Task Force. British Journal of Haematology 2011 (155): 308317. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of feeling tired, gaining weight, and constantly feeling cold despite having the central heating on. She also reports feeling low. She has no significant medical history. After performing some blood tests, the doctor diagnoses her with a certain condition and starts her on the standard treatment. What is the target of this drug?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 11.6 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 5.4 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)Your Answer: Nuclear receptors
Explanation:Levothyroxine exerts its effects by binding to nuclear receptors located within the nucleus of the cell. This requires the drug to be able to penetrate both the cell membrane and nuclear membrane. Once bound, levothyroxine can influence gene transcription.
G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) are not involved in levothyroxine mechanism of action. GPCRs are transmembrane receptors that activate secondary messenger pathways within the cell upon ligand binding. Examples of GPCRs include the adrenoreceptor family.
Ligand-gated ion channels are also not involved in levothyroxine mechanism of action. These receptors span the cell membrane and allow for the flow of ions when a ligand binds to them. The nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is an example of a ligand-gated ion channel.
Similarly, tyrosine kinase receptors are not involved in levothyroxine mechanism of action. These receptors lead to phosphorylation of targets within the cell and are exemplified by the insulin receptor.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is being seen by a specialist in the metabolic clinic for her yearly check-up. She has a deficiency in which enzyme due to hereditary fructose intolerance?
Your Answer: Fructokinase
Correct Answer: Aldolase B
Explanation:The condition known as hereditary fructose intolerance is a result of a deficiency in the enzyme aldolase B.
Fructose Metabolism Disorders: Essential Fructosuria and Hereditary Fructose Intolerance
Essential fructosuria is a benign, autosomal recessive condition that results from a deficiency of fructokinase. This disorder is asymptomatic but causes fructose to appear in the urine. On the other hand, hereditary fructose intolerance is an autosomal recessive condition caused by a deficiency of aldolase B, leading to an accumulation of fructose-1-phosphate. Symptoms of this disorder include vomiting, hypoglycemia, jaundice, hepatomegaly, and hyperuricaemia. The management of hereditary fructose intolerance involves reducing the intake of fructose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of intense upper abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. After diagnosis, he is found to have acute pancreatitis. Among the liver function tests, which one is significantly elevated in cases of pancreatitis?
Your Answer: Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Correct Answer: Amylase
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of alterations in his vision. In addition to decreased sharpness, he describes object distortion, difficulty discerning colors, and occasional flashes of light. He has a history of smoking (40-pack-year) and a high BMI. Based on these symptoms, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity, altered perception of colors and shades, and photopsia (flashing lights). The risk of developing AMD is higher in individuals who are older and have a history of smoking.
As a natural part of the aging process, presbyopia can cause difficulty with near vision. Smoking increases the likelihood of developing cataracts, which can result in poor visual acuity and reduced contrast sensitivity. However, symptoms such as distortion and flashing lights are not typically associated with cataracts. Similarly, retinal detachment is unlikely given the patient’s risk factors and lack of distortion and perception issues. Since there is no mention of diabetes mellitus in the patient’s history, diabetic retinopathy is not a plausible explanation.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the impact of aspirin on mortality in patients who underwent coronary bypass surgery. The study was double-blinded and randomized. The results showed that administering aspirin within 48 hours of the surgery led to a 70% decrease in overall mortality. The p-value of the study was found to be very low (0.01).
What conclusions can be drawn from the information provided about the study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chances of type I error are low
Explanation:In hypothesis testing, a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true. This error is denoted by alpha (α) and is typically set at 0.05. By setting a low alpha level, researchers can minimize the chance of accepting a false alternative hypothesis.
On the other hand, a type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false. This error is denoted by beta (β) and is determined by both sample size and alpha. In the given scenario, the null hypothesis was not accepted, so a type II error did not occur.
The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. It is inversely proportional to the probability of type II error (Power = 1 – β) and is dependent on sample size. However, the information provided in the vignette is insufficient to accurately determine the power of the study.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman has come to you with her ambulatory blood pressure monitor readings, which are consistently high. You suggest starting her on ramipril and advise her to avoid certain things that could impact the absorption of the medication.
What should she avoid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antacids
Explanation:ACE-inhibitors’ therapeutic effect is reduced by antacids as they interfere with their absorption. However, low dose aspirin is safe to use alongside ACE-inhibitors. Coffee and tea do not affect the absorption of ACE-inhibitors. Patients taking ACE-inhibitors need not avoid high-intensity exercise, unlike those on statins who have an increased risk of muscle breakdown due to rhabdomyolysis.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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As a medical student on community care placement, I was shadowing a health visitor who measured the height and weight of all the children to monitor their growth. I was curious to know what drives growth during the adolescent stage (13 to 19 years old)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sex steroids and growth hormone
Explanation:Understanding Growth and Factors Affecting It
Growth is a significant difference between children and adults, and it occurs in three stages: infancy, childhood, and puberty. Several factors affect fetal growth, including environmental, placental, hormonal, and genetic factors. Maternal nutrition and uterine capacity are the most crucial environmental factors that affect fetal growth.
In infancy, nutrition and insulin are the primary drivers of growth. High fetal insulin levels result from poorly controlled diabetes in the mother, leading to hypoglycemia and macrosomia in the baby. Growth hormone is not a significant factor in infancy, as babies have low amounts of receptors. Hypopituitarism and thyroid have no effect on growth in infancy.
In childhood, growth is driven by growth hormone and thyroxine, while in puberty, growth is driven by growth hormone and sex steroids. Genetic factors are the most important determinant of final adult height.
It is essential to monitor growth in children regularly. Infants aged 0-1 years should have at least five weight recordings, while children aged 1-2 years should have at least three weight recordings. Children older than two years should have annual weight recordings. Children below the 2nd centile for height should be reviewed by their GP, while those below the 0.4th centile for height should be reviewed by a paediatrician.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of fatigue, headache, joint pain, and overall malaise. Despite being an active individual who regularly engages in physical activities such as going to the gym, playing football, and taking his dog for long walks in the hills, he has no significant medical history. The doctor suspects Lyme disease. Which of the following skin rashes is commonly linked with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema migrans
Explanation:This patient’s symptoms suggest that they may have Lyme Disease, which can be contracted through exposure to ticks while walking in long grass. One common sign of the acute stage of infection is the appearance of a bullseye rash, also known as erythema migrans. It is important to note that other types of rashes, such as erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, petechial rash, and urticarial rash, can also be caused by various infectious and non-infectious factors.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.
Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.
To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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