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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old librarian presents with a 4-month history of abdominal discomfort and pain...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old librarian presents with a 4-month history of abdominal discomfort and pain after consuming fatty meals. She undergoes an ultrasound of her gallbladder, which shows multiple stones.
      What is the most frequent observation in an individual with gallstones?

      Your Answer: Asymptomatic gallstones

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gallstone Symptoms and Complications

      Gallstones are a common condition, but most patients with gallstones remain asymptomatic throughout their lives. Gallstones can be categorized by their composition, with cholesterol stones being the most common type. Gallstones are often detected incidentally on imaging, so a good history is imperative to assess if the patient’s symptoms are related to the gallstones. Obstructive jaundice with a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to result from gallstones, but rather from carcinoma of the head of the pancreas causing an obstruction to biliary outflow. Pain in the right iliac fossa is more consistent with appendicitis, while pain radiating to the left shoulder tip is not a common finding in patients with gallstones. Gallbladder carcinoma is a rare complication of gallstone disease. Understanding these symptoms and complications can aid in the diagnosis and management of gallstone disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old woman has been referred to a Gastroenterologist by her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman has been referred to a Gastroenterologist by her General Practitioner due to epigastric discomfort and the development of jaundice over several months. The patient reports no pain but has experienced unintentional weight loss. During examination, no abdominal tenderness or mass is detected. Serology results indicate that the patient has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Gastrointestinal Conditions

      When presented with a patient experiencing symptoms such as weight loss, jaundice, and epigastric discomfort, it is important to consider various gastrointestinal conditions that may be causing these symptoms. One possible diagnosis is pancreatic carcinoma, which is often associated with painless jaundice and the development of diabetes. Hepatitis, caused by viral infection or excessive alcohol intake, can also lead to liver cancer. Chronic pancreatitis, typically caused by alcohol misuse, can result in pain and dysfunction of the pancreas. Gastritis, on the other hand, is often caused by prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or infection with Helicobacter pylori, and can lead to gastric ulcers and bleeding. Finally, hepatocellular carcinoma can be caused by chronic hepatitis B or C, or chronic excessive alcohol intake. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these conditions is crucial for the patient’s health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic alcohol abuse, presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic alcohol abuse, presents to the Emergency Department with pain in the right and left upper quadrants. He has had bouts of abdominal pain in the past year. For the past month, he has had more frequent and worsening abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals right upper and left upper quadrant pain with guarding. An abdominal plain film radiograph reveals no free air, but there is an extensive peritoneal fluid collection, along with dilated loops of the small bowel. An abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a 6- to 7-cm cystic mass in the tail of the pancreas.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic pseudocyst

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Pancreatic Conditions: Pseudocysts, Adenocarcinoma, Islet Cell Adenoma, Acute Pancreatitis, and Metastatic Carcinoma

      Pancreatic pseudocysts are collections of necrotic-haemorrhagic material that lack an epithelial lining and account for 75% of cysts in the pancreas. They often occur after an episode of acute pancreatitis or traumatic injury to the abdomen.

      Pancreatic adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is a solid mass that is not related to alcoholism. It usually develops in the head of the gland and is characterised by hard, stellate, poorly defined masses.

      Islet cell adenomas, which are often non-functional, are not cystic and can be difficult to image due to their small size. However, some may secrete hormones such as insulin or gastrin.

      Acute pancreatitis is a reversible inflammation of the pancreas that ranges in severity from oedema and fat necrosis to severe haemorrhage and parenchymal necrosis. It is a medical emergency characterised by sudden severe pain in the abdomen.

      Finally, metastatic carcinoma is characterised by multiple solid masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 61-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden and severe...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden and severe abdominal pain that started an hour ago and worsens with movement. He has no significant medical or surgical history except for a recent prescription for rheumatoid arthritis. Upon examination, the patient is lying still, has a rapid heart rate, and an increased respiratory rate. The abdomen is extremely tender, and there is intense guarding.
      What investigation is most suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Erect chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents to the Emergency Department with an acute abdomen, an erect chest X-ray is urgently required. This inexpensive and non-invasive investigation can quickly provide important information, such as the presence of air under the diaphragm which may indicate a perforation requiring surgical intervention. However, if there is no air under the right hemidiaphragm but the history and examination suggest perforation, a CT scan of the abdomen may be necessary. NSAIDs, which are commonly used but can cause gastric and duodenal ulcers, should be given with a proton pump inhibitor if used for an extended period. Colonoscopy is generally used to investigate PR bleeding, change of bowel habit, or weight loss. An abdominal X-ray is not useful in this scenario, while an amylase level should be sent to assess for pancreatitis. Abdominal ultrasound is generally used to assess the biliary tree and gallbladder in acute cholecystitis or to assess trauma in a FAST scan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman is seen in the Gastroenterology Clinic with complaints of weight...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is seen in the Gastroenterology Clinic with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and a severely itchy rash on her buttocks and upper legs. Upon conducting an endoscopy with small bowel biopsy, villous atrophy is discovered. What is the most crucial step in managing her underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      Understanding Treatment Options for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition that requires strict avoidance of gluten to resolve symptoms. Failure to avoid gluten can lead to persistent symptoms and increase the risk of small bowel lymphoma. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a common symptom of coeliac disease. While lactose intolerance may also be present, avoiding lactose alone will not resolve symptoms. Cyclophosphamide and mesalamine are not effective treatments for coeliac disease, but may be used in combination regimens for gastrointestinal lymphoma and inflammatory bowel disease, respectively. Prednisolone may be used as an acute intervention for patients with refractory symptoms despite following a gluten-free diet. Overall, the most important intervention for coeliac disease is strict avoidance of gluten.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A man with known ulcerative colitis presents to Accident and Emergency with a...

    Correct

    • A man with known ulcerative colitis presents to Accident and Emergency with a flare-up. He tells you that he is passing eight stools a day with blood and has severe nausea with abdominal pain at present. He normally takes oral mesalazine to control his condition. On examination, the patient is cool peripherally, with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg. Blood tests are done and relevant findings shown below.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 32 mm/hour < 20 mm/hour
      Albumin 34 g/l 35–50 g/l
      Temperature 37.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
      Haemoglobin 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital for intravenous (IV) corticosteroids, fluids and monitoring

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Treatment Options for Severe Ulcerative Colitis Flare-Ups

      Severe flare-ups of ulcerative colitis (UC) require prompt and appropriate treatment to manage the symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some treatment options that are appropriate for severe UC flare-ups:

      Admit to Hospital for Intravenous (IV) Corticosteroids, Fluids, and Monitoring

      For severe UC flare-ups with evidence of significant systemic upset, hospital admission is necessary. Treatment should involve nil by mouth, IV hydration, IV corticosteroids as first-line treatment, and close monitoring.

      Avoid Topical Aminosalicylates and Analgesia

      Topical aminosalicylates and analgesia are not indicated for severe UC flare-ups with systemic upset.

      Inducing Remission with Topical Aminosalicylates is Inappropriate

      For severe UC flare-ups, inducing remission with topical aminosalicylates is not appropriate. Admission and monitoring are necessary.

      Azathioprine is Not Routinely Used for Severe Flare-Ups

      Immunosuppression with azathioprine is not routinely used to induce remission in severe UC flare-ups. It should only be used in cases where steroids are ineffective or if prolonged use of steroids is required.

      Medical Therapy Before Surgical Options

      Surgical options should only be considered after medical therapy has been attempted for severe UC flare-ups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has been experiencing gradual difficulty in eating. She complains that when she swallows, the food gets stuck behind her chest and it takes a while for it to pass. She frequently regurgitates undigested food. A follow-up barium study reveals a bird's beak appearance. Which mediator's loss may be contributing to her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Achalasia: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation of undigested food. This is commonly due to the denervation of inhibitory neurons in the distal esophagus, leading to a progressive worsening of symptoms over time. Diagnosis is made through a barium study and manometry, which reveal a bird’s beak appearance of the lower esophagus and an abnormally high sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing. Nitric oxide, which increases smooth muscle relaxation and reduces sphincter tone, is reduced in achalasia. Treatment options include surgical intervention, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy with drugs such as calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil.

      Other gastrointestinal hormones such as cholecystokinin, motilin, somatostatin, and gastrin do not play a role in achalasia. Cholecystokinin stimulates pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions, while motilin is responsible for migrating motor complexes. Somatostatin decreases gastric acid and pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions. Gastrin promotes hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach and can result in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome when produced in excess by a gastrinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 33-year-old university teacher returned to the United Kingdom after spending 2 years...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old university teacher returned to the United Kingdom after spending 2 years in India on a spiritual journey. During his time there, he stayed in various ashrams and ate local food with the local disciples. Unfortunately, he contracted malaria twice, suffered from diarrhoea once, and had a urinary tract infection. Upon returning to the UK, he complained of chronic diarrhoea and abdominal pain, which worsened after consuming milk. Blood tests showed a low haemoglobin level of 92 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a high mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 109 fl (normal range: 76-98 fl), and a white cell count (WCC) of 8 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l). Stool samples and blood tests for IgA Ttg and HIV antibodies were negative. What test would be most helpful in diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer: Small intestinal biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Chronic Diarrhoea: A Comparison

      Chronic diarrhoea can have various causes, including intestinal parasitic infection and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue. Here, we compare different diagnostic tests that can help in identifying the underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea.

      Small Intestinal Biopsy: This test can diagnose parasites like Giardia or Cryptosporidium, which may be missed in stool tests. It can also diagnose villous atrophy, suggestive of tropical sprue.

      Colonoscopy: While colonoscopy can show amoebic ulcers or other intestinal parasites, it is unlikely to be of use in investigating malabsorption.

      Lactose Breath Test: This test diagnoses lactase deficiency only and does not tell us about the aetiology of chronic diarrhoea.

      Serum Vitamin B12 Level: This test diagnoses a deficiency of the vitamin, but it will not tell about the aetiology, eg dietary insufficiency or malabsorption.

      Small Intestinal Aspirate Culture: This test is done if bacterial overgrowth is suspected, which occurs in cases with a previous intestinal surgery or in motility disorders like scleroderma. However, there is no mention of this history in the case presented here.

      In conclusion, the choice of diagnostic test depends on the suspected underlying cause of chronic diarrhoea. A small intestinal biopsy is a useful test for diagnosing both parasitic infections and malabsorption syndromes like tropical sprue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 76-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of worsening epigastric pain...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of worsening epigastric pain over the past two weeks. She describes a deep pain in the central part of her abdomen that tends to improve after eating and worsens approximately two hours after the meal. The pain does not radiate. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and takes methotrexate and anti-inflammatory medications. She is also a heavy smoker. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastric region without guarding or rigidity. Bowel sounds are present. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Epigastric Pain: Peptic Ulcer Disease, Appendicitis, Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia, Diverticulitis, and Pancreatitis

      Epigastric pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to consider the differential diagnosis to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s risk factors for non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use and heavy smoking make peptic ulcer disease (PUD) in the duodenum the most likely diagnosis. Other potential causes of epigastric pain include appendicitis, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, diverticulitis, and pancreatitis. However, the patient’s symptoms and clinical signs do not align with these conditions. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old man was involved in a motorcycle race accident where a rod...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man was involved in a motorcycle race accident where a rod pierced his abdomen. He underwent emergency surgery and survived. After a year, he complains of abdominal pain and frequent stools, and is diagnosed with anemia. His blood tests show a vitamin B12 level of 41 (160–900 pmol/l) and serum folate of 35 ug/l (4.20 - 18.70 ug/l). He denies any dietary intolerance or rectal bleeding. What is the gold standard test for diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer: Intestinal biopsy

      Correct Answer: Culture of small intestinal fluid

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)

      Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, steatorrhoea, and megaloblastic anaemia. It is often seen in patients who have had abdominal surgery and is characterized by an overgrowth of bacteria in the small intestine. The gold standard for diagnosis of SIBO is culture of small intestinal fluid aspirate, with a duodenal aspirate showing >105 CFU/ml considered a sensitive marker for SIBO.

      SIBO is thought to develop as a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, with decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility being important. Any structural defect can have an effect on gut motility, and intestinal surgery predisposes patients to diverticular formation or stricture formation, both of which will lead to an increased risk of SIBO.

      Bacterial overgrowth responds to antibiotic therapy, with many antibiotics being effective in SIBO, including metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, and rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.

      Other diagnostic tests for SIBO include hydrogen breath tests, which can give quick results but may be confounded by factors such as intestinal transit time, diet, smoking, and methane-producing bacteria. Serum folate levels and blood IgA-tTG levels are not diagnostic of SIBO, but intestinal biopsy specimens (unwashed) may be sent for culture.

      In conclusion, SIBO is a common cause of malabsorption in the Western world, particularly in conditions where there is intestinal stasis or formation of a blind loop. Diagnosis is made through culture of small intestinal fluid aspirate, and treatment involves antibiotic therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He has a medical history of a heart attack and three transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs). The doctor diagnoses him with chronic mesenteric ischaemia. What section of the intestine is typically affected?

      Your Answer: Jejunum

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mesenteric Ischaemia: Common Sites of Affection

      Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that can be likened to angina of the intestine. It is typically seen in patients who have arteriopathy or atrial fibrillation, which predisposes them to arterial embolism. When these patients eat, the increased vascular demand of the bowel cannot be met, leading to ischaemia and abdominal pain. The most common site of mesenteric ischaemia is at the splenic flexure, which is the watershed between the superior and inferior mesenteric arterial supplies.

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia occurs when a blood clot blocks the blood supply to a section of the bowel, causing acute ischaemia and severe abdominal pain. While the sigmoid colon may be affected in mesenteric ischaemia, it is not the most common site. It is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The hepatic flexure, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, and the ileocaecal segment, which is also supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, are not the most common sites of mesenteric ischaemia. The jejunum, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, may also be affected, but it is not the most common site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after several episodes of vomiting...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after several episodes of vomiting bright red blood. He has presented to the same hospital in the past for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, alcohol intoxication and peptic ulcer disease (PUD). The gastroenterology team review the patient and perform an urgent gastroscopy, which reveals several oesophageal varices.
      Which of the following medications should be prescribed to this patient to reduce his chance of future variceal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alcoholic Liver Disease and Variceal Bleeding Prophylaxis

      Secondary prophylaxis for variceal haemorrhage in patients with alcoholic liver disease involves the use of non-specific beta-blockers like nadolol and propranolol. These medications reduce portal inflow and prevent further episodes of variceal bleeding. However, it is important to initiate treatment at the lowest possible dose and monitor for complications such as bradycardia.

      Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor commonly used for reflux and PUD, is not indicated for the management of variceal bleeding. Erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic with prokinetic properties, has no role in secondary prophylaxis for variceal bleeding.

      Atenolol, a cardioselective beta-blocker, is not the preferred choice for patients with oesophageal varices as it has limited effect on peripheral tissues. Instead, a non-selective beta-blocker is more appropriate.

      H2 antagonists like ranitidine and cimetidine can be used as alternatives to proton pump inhibitors in some patients with reflux and PUD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about his alcohol consumption. He admits to drinking two bottles of wine (750ml capacity) every night along with six pints of 5% beer.
      (A bottle of wine typically contains 12% alcohol)
      What is the total number of units this man is consuming per night?

      Your Answer: 36

      Explanation:

      Understanding Units of Alcohol

      Alcohol consumption is often measured in units, with one unit being equal to 10 ml of alcohol. The strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equivalent to one unit, while a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6% is also one unit. Half a standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is also one unit.

      To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can use the ABV and the volume of the drink. For instance, one bottle of wine with nine units is equivalent to two bottles of wine or six pints of beer, both of which contain 18 units.

      It’s important to keep track of your alcohol consumption and stay within recommended limits. Drinking too much can have negative effects on your health and well-being. By understanding units of alcohol, you can make informed decisions about your drinking habits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 53-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amounts...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amounts of bright red blood, although the exact volume was not measured. On examination, you discover that there is a palpable spleen tip, and spider naevi over the chest, neck and arms.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bleeding oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Their Differentiation

      Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate management. The following are some common causes of upper GI bleeding and their distinguishing features.

      Bleeding Oesophageal Varices
      Portal hypertension due to chronic liver failure can lead to oesophageal varices, which can rupture and cause severe bleeding, manifested as haematemesis. Immediate management includes resuscitation, proton pump inhibitors, and urgent endoscopy to diagnose and treat the source of bleeding.

      Mallory-Weiss Tear
      A Mallory-Weiss tear causes upper GI bleeding due to a linear mucosal tear at the oesophagogastric junction, secondary to a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure. It occurs in patients after severe retching and vomiting or coughing.

      Peptic Ulcer
      Peptic ulcer is the most common cause of serious upper GI bleeding, with the majority of ulcers in the duodenum. However, sudden-onset haematemesis of a large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices. It is important to ask about a history of indigestion or peptic ulcers. Oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) can diagnose both oesophageal varices and peptic ulcers.

      Gastric Ulcer
      Sudden-onset haematemesis of a large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices.

      Oesophagitis
      Oesophagitis may be very painful but is unlikely to lead to a significant amount of haematemesis.

      Understanding the Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her chest after eating meals for the past 2 months. She explains that this pain usually occurs after consuming heavy meals and can keep her up at night. Despite trying over-the-counter antacids, she has found little relief. The pain is retrosternal, without radiation, and is not aggravated by physical activity. She denies any difficulty or pain while swallowing and has not experienced any weight loss. She is worried that she may be having a heart attack every time this happens as both her parents died from coronary artery disease. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm without ischaemic changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Retrosternal Pain: GORD, PUD, MI, Pancreatitis, and Pericarditis

      When a patient presents with retrosternal pain, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s pain is burning in nature and occurs in the postprandial period, making gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) a likely diagnosis. Other common manifestations of GORD include hypersalivation, globus sensation, and laryngitis. However, if the patient had any ‘alarm’ symptoms, such as weight loss or difficulty swallowing, further investigation would be necessary.

      Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is another potential cause of deep epigastric pain, especially in patients with risk factors such as Helicobacter pylori infection, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use, and alcoholism.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is less likely in this case, as the patient’s pain does not worsen with exertion and is not accompanied by other cardiac symptoms. Additionally, the patient’s ECG is normal.

      Pancreatitis typically presents with abdominal pain that radiates to the back, particularly in patients with gallstones or a history of alcoholism. The patient’s non-radiating, retrosternal burning pain is not consistent with pancreatitis.

      Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that is aggravated by inspiration and lying flat, but relieved by sitting forward. Widespread ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram is also common. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are typically used as first-line treatment.

      In summary, a thorough consideration of the patient’s symptoms and risk factors can help narrow down the potential causes of retrosternal pain and guide appropriate diagnostic and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of early satiety, nausea and abdominal fullness....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of early satiety, nausea and abdominal fullness. He has lost 6 kg in weight over the past 3 months. There is no other past medical history of note. On examination, he looks very thin and there is a palpable epigastric mass.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 140 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 68 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals a smooth mass in the body of the stomach with normal-looking mucosa overlying it. Multiple biopsies: spindle cell tissue, cells undergoing multiple mitoses.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST)

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumours (GISTs) vs Other Gastric Conditions

      Gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GISTs) are the most common tumours of mesenchymal origin in the gastrointestinal tract, with approximately 50-70% occurring in the stomach. They are histologically characterized by spindle cells, epithelioid-like cells, or mixed spindle-epithelioid cells. GISTs tend to occur in individuals above the age of 40 and are equally common in men and women. Biopsy specimens are stained with DOG1 for identification, and surgical resection is the preferred treatment option. Systemic chemotherapy with imatinib is an alternative for patients who cannot undergo complete surgical resection. Disease survival rates at the 5-year stage range from 30-60%.

      Other gastric conditions, such as gastric carcinoma, Helicobacter pylori gastritis, gastric leiomyosarcoma, and gastric lipoma, may present with similar symptoms but have different endoscopic and histological findings. Gastric carcinomas are most often adenocarcinomas, while Helicobacter pylori gastritis is the most common cause of gastritis worldwide. Gastric leiomyosarcoma is a differential diagnosis for GISTs, but GISTs are more common. Gastric lipomas would not present with the same combination of findings seen in GISTs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old woman complains of worsening intermittent dysphagia over the past year. She...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman complains of worsening intermittent dysphagia over the past year. She experiences severe retrosternal chest pain during these episodes and has more difficulty swallowing liquids than solids.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal dysmotility

      Explanation:

      Causes of Dysphagia: Understanding the Underlying Disorders

      Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various underlying disorders. Mechanical obstruction typically causes dysphagia for solids more than liquids, while neuromuscular conditions result in abnormal peristalsis of the oesophagus and cause dysphagia for liquids more than solids. However, oesophageal dysmotility is the only condition that can cause more dysphagia for liquids than solids due to uncoordinated peristalsis.

      Achalasia is a likely underlying disorder for oesophageal dysmotility, which causes progressive dysphagia for liquids more than solids with severe episodes of chest pain. It is an idiopathic condition that can be diagnosed through a barium swallow and manometry, which reveal an abnormally high lower oesophageal sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing.

      Oesophageal cancer and strictures typically cause dysphagia for solids before liquids, accompanied by weight loss, loss of appetite, rapidly progressive symptoms, or a hoarse voice. Pharyngeal pouch causes dysphagia, regurgitation, cough, and halitosis, and patients may need to manually reduce it through pressure on their neck to remove food contents from it.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) may cause retrosternal chest pain, acid brash, coughing/choking episodes, and dysphagia, typically where there is a sensation of food getting stuck (but not for liquids). Benign oesophageal stricture is often associated with long-standing GORD, previous surgery to the oesophagus, or radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite receiving 6 units of blood. He has a medical history of arthritis and takes methotrexate and ibuprofen. What is the next most appropriate course of action from the following options?

      Your Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Endoscopy in Diagnosing and Treating Upper GI Bleeds

      When a patient presents with an upper GI bleed, it is important to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In cases where the bleed is likely caused by a duodenal ulcer from non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug use, an OGD (oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy) is necessary for diagnosis and initial therapeutic management. Endoscopy allows for the identification of a bleeding ulcer, which can then be injected with adrenaline and clipped to prevent re-bleeding.

      Continued transfusion may help resuscitate the patient, but it will not stop the bleeding. A CT scan with embolisation could be useful, but a CT scan alone would not be sufficient. Laparotomy should only be considered if endoscopic therapy fails. Diagnostic laparoscopy is not necessary as a clinical diagnosis can be made based on the patient’s history and condition.

      In conclusion, endoscopy is crucial in diagnosing and treating upper GI bleeds, particularly in cases where a duodenal ulcer is suspected. It allows for immediate intervention to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old male has been referred by his doctor due to experiencing severe...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male has been referred by his doctor due to experiencing severe bloody diarrhoea on and off for the past three months. After undergoing a barium enema, it was discovered that he has multiple ulcers and signs of inflammation that extend from his rectum to the mid transverse colon. A colonoscopy was performed and biopsies were taken from various sites, revealing acute and chronic inflammation that is limited to the mucosa. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Disease

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s disease are both types of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause bloody diarrhoea. However, UC is more likely to result in the passage of blood. The onset of UC usually begins in the distal part of the colon and progresses towards the proximal end. On the other hand, Crohn’s disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and can skip areas, resulting in disease occurring at different sites.

      Histologically, Crohn’s disease affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall, while UC typically only affects the mucosa. This means that Crohn’s disease can cause more severe damage to the bowel wall and lead to complications such as strictures and fistulas. In contrast, UC is more likely to cause inflammation and ulceration of the mucosa, which can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhoea.

      In summary, while both UC and Crohn’s disease can cause similar symptoms, there are important differences in their presentation and histological features. these differences is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old diabetic woman presents with malaise to her general practitioner (GP). Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old diabetic woman presents with malaise to her general practitioner (GP). Her GP takes liver function tests (LFTs): bilirubin 41 μmol/l, AST 46 iu/l, ALT 56 iu/l, GGT 241 iu/l, ALP 198 iu/l. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and there are no palpable masses or organomegaly. What is the next best investigation?

      Your Answer: Autoantibody screen

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan of the abdomen

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Obstructive Jaundice

      Obstructive jaundice can be caused by various conditions, including gallstones, pancreatic cancer, and autoimmune liver diseases like PSC or PBC. An obstructive/cholestatic picture is indicated by raised ALP and GGT levels compared to AST or ALT. The first-line investigation for obstruction is an ultrasound of the abdomen, which is cheap, simple, non-invasive, and readily available. It can detect intra- or extrahepatic duct dilation, liver size, shape, consistency, gallstones, and neoplasia in the pancreas. An autoantibody screen may help narrow down potential diagnoses, but an ultrasound provides more information. A CT scan may be requested after ultrasound to provide a more detailed anatomical picture. ERCP is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure for biliary obstruction, but it has complications and risks associated with sedation. The PABA test is used to diagnose pancreatic insufficiency, which can cause weight loss, steatorrhoea, or diabetes mellitus.

      Investigating Obstructive Jaundice

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of tiredness, epigastric discomfort and an episode of passing black stools. His past medical history includes a 4-year history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he takes regular methotrexate, folic acid and naproxen. He recently received a course of oral corticosteroids for a flare of his rheumatoid arthritis. He denies alcohol consumption and is a non-smoker. On systemic enquiry he reports a good appetite and denies any weight loss. The examination reveals conjunctival pallor and a soft abdomen with tenderness in the epigastrium. His temperature is 36.7°C, blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, pulse is 81 beats per minute and oxygen saturations are 96% on room air. A full blood count is taken which reveals the following:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 68 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Conditions: Peptic Ulcer, Atrophic Gastritis, Barrett’s Oesophagus, Gastric Cancer, and Oesophageal Varices

      Peptic Ulcer:
      Peptic ulceration is commonly caused by NSAID use or Helicobacter pylori infection. Symptoms include dyspepsia, upper gastrointestinal bleeding, and iron deficiency anaemia. Treatment involves admission to a gastrointestinal ward for resuscitation, proton pump inhibitor initiation, and urgent endoscopy. If caused by H. pylori, triple therapy is initiated.

      Atrophic Gastritis:
      Atrophic gastritis is a chronic inflammatory change of the gastric mucosa, resulting in malabsorption and anaemia. However, it is unlikely to account for melaena or epigastric discomfort.

      Barrett’s Oesophagus:
      Barrett’s oesophagus is a histological diagnosis resulting from chronic acid reflux. It is unlikely to cause the patient’s symptoms as there is no history of reflux.

      Gastric Cancer:
      Gastric cancer is less likely due to the lack of risk factors and additional ‘red flag’ symptoms such as weight loss and appetite change. Biopsies of peptic ulcers are taken at endoscopy to check for an underlying malignant process.

      Oesophageal Varices:
      Oesophageal varices are caused by chronic liver disease and can result in severe bleeding and haematemesis. However, this diagnosis is unlikely as there is little history to suggest chronic liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 43-year-old man presents with painless jaundice 2 months after returning from a...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man presents with painless jaundice 2 months after returning from a trip to Thailand. He has no known history of liver disease. Laboratory results reveal bilirubin levels of 210 µmol/l, ALT levels of 1206 iu/l, ALP levels of 405 iu/l, PT of 10 s, and albumin levels of 41 g/dl. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Hepatitis with Jaundice

      Acute hepatitis with jaundice can have various causes, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. In this case, the blood tests indicate significant hepatocellular damage as the cause of the patient’s jaundice, making viral hepatitis the most likely option.

      Acute hepatitis B is a common cause of jaundice, especially in endemic regions like Asia. The patient may have acquired the infection through sexual contact or needle-sharing. The acute infection usually lasts for 1-3 months, and most patients make a full recovery.

      Acute hepatitis C is less likely as it is usually asymptomatic in adults, and only a small percentage develops symptoms. Primary biliary cholangitis, on the other hand, presents with an insidious onset of pruritus and lethargy, followed by jaundice, and causes a cholestatic picture. Acute alcoholic hepatitis rarely causes an ALT >500 and should be suspected if another cause or concomitant cause is present. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is chronic and usually leads to mildly abnormal liver function tests in patients with risk factors for the metabolic syndrome.

      In conclusion, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute hepatitis with jaundice, and in this case, viral hepatitis is the most likely option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating that has persisted for six months. The GP initially suspected bowel cancer and referred her for a colonoscopy, which came back negative. The gastroenterologist who performed the colonoscopy suggested that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome. The patient has no prior history of digestive issues. What should the GP do next?

      Your Answer: Treat as irritable bowel syndrome for now and review in one month

      Correct Answer: Measure serum CA125 level

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women over the age of 50 who experience regular symptoms such as abdominal bloating, loss of appetite, pelvic or abdominal pain, and increased urinary urgency and/or frequency should undergo serum CA125 testing. It is important to note that irritable bowel disease rarely presents for the first time in women over 50, so any symptoms suggestive of IBD should prompt appropriate tests for ovarian cancer. If serum CA125 levels are elevated, an ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis should be arranged. If malignancy is suspected, urgent referral must be made. Physical examination may also warrant direct referral to gynaecology if ascites and/or a suspicious abdominal or pelvic mass is identified.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis attends the Gastroenterology Clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis attends the Gastroenterology Clinic for review. Over the past few months, his bowel symptoms have been generally quiescent, but he has suffered from tiredness and itching.
      On examination, you notice that he has jaundiced sclerae and there are some scratch marks on his abdomen consistent with the itching.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.6 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Autoantibody screen ANCA +, anti-cardiolipin +, ANA +
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 75 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 290 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Bilirubin 85 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis from Other Liver Conditions

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that affects around 4% of patients with a history of inflammatory bowel disease. It is characterized by an obstructive liver function test (LFT) picture and autoantibody results consistent with PSC. While endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has been considered the gold standard for diagnosis, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is now equally useful. Imaging typically shows a beaded appearance of biliary ducts, and liver biopsy may be useful in determining prognosis. Median survival from diagnosis to death or liver transplantation is around 10-15 years, with a disease recurrence rate of at least 30% in transplanted patients.

      Cholelithiasis, on the other hand, typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and does not usually cause jaundice unless there is obstruction of the biliary system. Hepatocellular carcinoma risk is increased in patients with inflammatory bowel disease, but the clinical picture above is more in keeping with PSC. Primary biliary cholangitis would show positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies and mainly affect intrahepatic ducts, while ascending cholangitis would usually present with features of Charcot’s triad (jaundice, abdominal pain, and fever).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 11-month-old boy is admitted to hospital with an episode of rectal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-month-old boy is admitted to hospital with an episode of rectal bleeding - the mother noticed that the child had been difficult to settle in the day, on changing the child's nappy she noted a substance which looked like redcurrant jelly in the nappy contents. A diagnosis of Meckel's diverticulum is suspected.
      With regard to Meckel’s diverticulum, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Presentation with bleeding is due to ectopic pancreatic tissue

      Correct Answer: It may contain ectopic tissue

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meckel’s Diverticulum: A Congenital Abnormality of the Gastrointestinal Tract

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a common congenital abnormality of the gastrointestinal tract that affects around 2-4% of the population. It is an anatomical remnant of the vitello-intestinal duct, which connects the primitive midgut to the yolk sac during fetal development. Meckel’s diverticulum can contain various types of tissue, including gastric mucosa, liver tissue, carcinoid, or lymphoid tissue. It is usually located around 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is commonly found adjacent to the vermiform appendix.

      Symptoms of Meckel’s diverticulum can closely mimic appendicitis, and it can be a cause of bowel obstruction, perforation, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Bleeding is the most common cause of clinical presentations, and the presence of gastric mucosa is important as it can ulcerate and cause bleeding. If a normal-looking appendix is found during laparoscopy, it is important to exclude Meckel’s diverticulum as a potential cause of the patient’s symptoms. The mortality rate in untreated cases is estimated to be 2.5-15%.

      Advances in imaging have made it easier to detect Meckel’s diverticulum. It can be picked up on barium imaging, computed tomography enterography, and radionuclide technetium scanning (Meckel’s scan). Selective mesenteric arteriography may also be useful in patients with negative imaging results.

      In conclusion, understanding Meckel’s diverticulum is important for clinicians as it is a common congenital abnormality that can cause significant morbidity and mortality if left untreated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - Which of these options does NOT contribute to abdominal swelling? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these options does NOT contribute to abdominal swelling?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia and Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Severe hyperkalaemia can be dangerous and may lead to sudden death from asystolic cardiac arrest. However, it may not always present with symptoms, except for muscle weakness. In some cases, hyperkalaemia may be associated with metabolic acidosis, which can cause Kussmaul respiration. On the other hand, Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from the absence of colonic enteric ganglion cells. This absence causes paralysis of a distal segment of the colon and rectum, leading to proximal colon dilation. In contrast, other conditions cause distension through a paralytic ileus or large bowel pseudo-obstruction. these conditions is crucial in managing and treating them effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history of progressively worsening jaundice. His wife says that she noticed it a while ago, but her husband has been reluctant to come to see the GP. The man does not complain of any abdominal pain and on examination no masses are felt. He agrees when asked by the GP that he has lost quite some weight recently. The patient has a strong alcohol history and has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily since he was in his twenties. The GP refers the patient to secondary care.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Painless Jaundice in a Patient with Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer

      This patient presents with painless jaundice, which is most suggestive of obstructive jaundice due to a tumour in the head of the pancreas. The patient also has strong risk factors for pancreatic cancer, such as smoking and alcohol. However, other conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis, such as chronic cholecystitis, chronic pancreatitis, cholangiocarcinoma, and chronic liver disease.

      Chronic cholecystitis is unlikely to be the cause of painless jaundice, as it typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and gallstones on ultrasound. Chronic pancreatitis is a possible diagnosis, given the patient’s risk factors, but it usually involves abdominal pain and fatty diarrhoea. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer that develops in the bile ducts and can cause jaundice, abdominal pain, and itching. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Chronic liver disease is also a possible consequence of alcohol abuse, but it usually involves other signs such as nail clubbing, palmar erythema, and spider naevi.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer and rule out other potential causes of painless jaundice. Early detection and treatment of pancreatic cancer are crucial for improving the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history of increasing frequency of diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient is now opening his bowels up to eight times a day, and he is also needing to get up during the night to pass motions. He describes the stool as watery, with some mucous and blood. He is also suffering with intermittent cramping abdominal pain. He has had no recent foreign travel, and no other contacts have been unwell with similar symptoms. He has lost almost 6 kg in weight. He has no other past medical history of note.
      Inflammatory bowel disease is high on the list of differentials.
      Which one of the following is most commonly associated with Ulcerative colitis (UC)?

      Your Answer: Anal abscess formation

      Correct Answer: Rectal involvement

      Explanation:

      Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that affect the colon and rectum. However, there are several differences between the two conditions.

      Rectal Involvement
      UC usually originates in the rectum and progresses proximally, while Crohn’s colitis can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the duodenum.

      Transmural Inflammation
      Crohn’s colitis involves transmural inflammation, while UC typically affects only the submucosa or mucosa.

      Anal Fistulae and Abscesses
      Crohn’s colitis is more likely to cause anal fistulae and abscesses due to its transmural inflammation, while UC is less prone to these complications.

      Duodenal Involvement
      UC usually affects only the colon, while Crohn’s colitis can involve the duodenum. As a result, colectomy is often curative in UC but not in Crohn’s disease.

      Symptoms and Severity
      Both conditions can cause bloody diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. However, the severity of UC is measured by the number of bowel movements per day, abdominal pain and distension, signs of toxicity, blood loss and anemia, and colon dilation.

      Understanding the Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A 67-year-old malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted for...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted for enteral feeding. What is the primary method to verify the NG tube's secure placement before starting feeding?

      Your Answer: Abdominal X-ray

      Correct Answer: Aspirate 10 ml and check the pH

      Explanation:

      Methods for Confirming Correct Placement of Nasogastric Tubes

      Nasogastric (NG) tubes are commonly used in medical settings to administer medication, nutrition, or to remove stomach contents. However, incorrect placement of an NG tube can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is important to confirm correct placement before using the tube. Here are some methods for confirming correct placement:

      1. Aspirate and check pH: Aspirate 10 ml of fluid from the NG tube and test the pH. If the pH is less than 5.5, the tube is correctly placed in the stomach.

      2. Visual inspection: Do not rely on visual inspection of the aspirate to confirm correct placement, as bronchial secretions can be similar in appearance to stomach contents.

      3. Insert air and auscultate: Injecting 10-20 ml of air can help obtain a gastric aspirate, but auscultation to confirm placement is an outdated and unreliable technique.

      4. Chest X-ray: If no aspirate can be obtained or the pH level is higher than 5.5, a chest X-ray can be used to confirm correct placement. However, this should not be the first-line investigation.

      5. Abdominal X-ray: An abdominal X-ray is not helpful in determining correct placement of an NG tube, as it does not show the lungs.

      By using these methods, healthcare professionals can ensure that NG tubes are correctly placed and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old man has been admitted after a severe paracetamol overdose. Despite medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has been admitted after a severe paracetamol overdose. Despite medical intervention, he has developed liver failure. What is the most probable outcome of the liver failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis is recognised complication

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine reduces morbidity and mortality in fulminant hepatic failure

      Fulminant hepatic failure is a serious condition that can lead to severe hypoglycemia and exacerbate encephalopathy in 40% of patients. This condition can develop rapidly and recur with sepsis. Lactic acidosis is also a common complication due to decreased hepatic lactate clearance, poor peripheral perfusion, and increased lactate production. Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with fulminant hepatic failure is poor if they have a blood pH less than 7.0, prolonged prothrombin time (more than 100s), and serum creatinine more than 300 uM. Mortality is also greater in patients over 40 years of age. However, the use of intravenous N-acetylcysteine has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in these patients.

      Overall, it is important to closely monitor patients with fulminant hepatic failure and address any complications that arise. The use of N-acetylcysteine can be a valuable tool in improving outcomes for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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