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Question 1
Correct
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What is a typical characteristic seen in the display of myeloma?
Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Clinical Features of Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that commonly affects older adults, with a median age of 60 years, and is more prevalent in males than females. Patients with multiple myeloma may present with various clinical features, including anaemia, bone pain, and infections. Bone pain is the most common symptom and is often felt in the back or ribs. In some cases, it may lead to a pathologic fracture, especially in the femoral neck, following minimal trauma. Patients with multiple myeloma are also at risk of infections, particularly with encapsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae, due to suppression of antibody production and neutropenia.
Hypercalcaemia is another common feature of multiple myeloma, which can cause nausea, fatigue, confusion, polyuria, and constipation. This occurs due to the release of osteoclast activating factors, which stimulate bone resorption and lead to an increase in serum calcium levels. Weight loss is also a common symptom in patients with multiple myeloma. In some cases, patients may develop hyperviscosity, which can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, headache, and dizziness.
In summary, multiple myeloma is a complex disease with various clinical features. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to improve patient outcomes. Healthcare professionals should be aware of these clinical features and consider multiple myeloma in the differential diagnosis of patients presenting with bone pain, anaemia, infections, hypercalcaemia, and weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has a solitary thyroid nodule that is confirmed to be a medullary thyroid tumour on histology. Which type of cells secrete the biochemical tumour marker used to monitor for recurrence?
Your Answer: Pericytes
Correct Answer: Parafollicular cells
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Thyroid Cells
Thyroid cancer can be detected and monitored through the use of tumor markers, which are substances produced by cancer cells. Different types of thyroid cells produce different tumor markers.
Parafollicular cells, also known as clear cells or C cells, produce calcitonin, which is a tumor marker for medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC). Elevated levels of calcitonin in the blood can indicate the presence of MTC and can also be used to monitor for recurrence after treatment.
Follicular cells produce thyroglobulin, which is a tumor marker for papillary and follicular thyroid tumors. Monitoring thyroglobulin levels can help detect the presence of these types of thyroid cancer and monitor for recurrence.
Pericytes, colloid cells, and endothelial cells do not produce any tumor markers and therefore cannot be used for cancer detection or monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer is referred by his GP to hospital as today’s blood test shows an elevated calcium level.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate action?Your Answer: Alendronic acid
Correct Answer: IV 0.9% normal saline
Explanation:Management of Electrolyte Imbalances: Fluids and Medications
Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypercalcaemia and hyperkalaemia, can have serious consequences if left untreated. The following are some common treatments for these conditions:
IV 0.9% normal saline: Rehydration is crucial in managing hypercalcaemia. Up to 3 liters of normal saline can be given daily to correct elevated calcium levels. Bisphosphonates may also be used after fluids are administered.
Insulin dextrose: This is used to treat hyperkalaemia.
Alendronic acid: While this medication can be given after fluids in patients with hypercalcaemia, fluid administration is the preferred management strategy.
Calcium Resonium: This medication is used after the acute treatment of hyperkalaemia.
Calcium gluconate: This medication is used to treat hyperkalaemia.
Overall, a combination of fluids and medications may be necessary to effectively manage electrolyte imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male presents with a history of a sore area on his tongue, which has failed to heal for over three months and is becoming increasingly bothersome. The patient is otherwise well, with a history of mild osteoarthritis of the knees, but nil else of note. He is a builder, and smokes 30 cigarettes a day for the past 30 years. He drinks around 30 units of alcohol a week.
Following examination, the patient is referred urgently as a case of suspected cancer of the tongue.
Which one of the following statements is correct about tongue cancer?Your Answer: Smoking is not a known cause
Correct Answer: It may be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV)
Explanation:Myth-busting: Tongue Cancer Risk Factors
Tongue cancer is a rare form of oral carcinoma, accounting for only 2% of overall cancers. While it can be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV), there are several misconceptions about its risk factors. Contrary to popular belief, smoking and alcohol are known risk factors, while coconut ingestion is not. Betel nut ingestion, on the other hand, is associated with an increased risk of tongue cancer. It is important to note that tongue cancer usually metastasises to the upper cervical and submandibular nodes, not the lower cervical nodes. However, early detection and treatment with a combination of surgery and chemoradiotherapy can often lead to a cure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old retired man with a history of chronic hepatitis B infection presents with jaundice and significant abdominal distention. The patient does not drink, and smokes ten cigarettes a day.
On examination, the patient is found to have ascites and hepatomegaly. The patient is admitted for further investigations; the results of one tumour marker test is suggestive of a possible hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).
Which of the following tumour markers is usually raised in primary HCC?Your Answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
Correct Answer: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
Explanation:Understanding Tumour Markers: Types and Associated Cancers
Tumour markers are compounds whose blood levels increase due to the presence of a particular malignant tumour. They are useful for diagnosis and detecting recurrence. However, they are not always specific, and different tumours may secrete the same marker. Here are some common tumour markers and the cancers they are associated with:
Alpha fetoprotein (AFP): Associated with liver and testicular cancers.
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA): Associated with prostate cancer.
Chemical nature Name Associated tumour
Enzyme PSA
NSE
LDH Prostate
Small cell lung cancer
Non-specific, mainly haematological
Hormone HCG
Calcitonin
Parathormone Testes
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Parathyroid carcinoma
Immunoglobulin IgG, IgA, etc. Multiple myeloma
Glycoprotein AFP
CA-125
CA-19-9
CA-15-3
CEA Liver, also testes
Ovary
Pancreas
Breast
Colon, stomachHowever, not all primary liver malignancies have AFP as a tumour marker. Certain types of liver malignancy, such as fibrolamellar carcinoma, hepatoblastoma, and hepatic angiosarcoma, do not secrete this protein. The first two usually occur in young persons. Hepatomas can occur de novo but are usually present because of an underlying disease such as hepatitis B infection (chronic) or cirrhosis of the liver. Alcoholism, aflatoxin, and obesity are also risk factors for hepatoma.
CA-125 is associated with ovarian cancer, CA-19-9 with pancreatic cancer, and HCG with testicular cancer. Understanding tumour markers and their associated cancers can aid in early detection and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presented to the Oncology Clinic with chronic cough with haemoptysis, she has a long standing heavy smoking history. A bronchoscopy was performed which showed a tumour confined to the left main bronchus. A biopsy was taken and showed small cell lung cancer. She then had a staging computed tomography (CT) scan which showed a TNM grading of T2, N1, M0. She does not have any other medical co-morbidities and is usually independent in all daily activities.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Palliative chemotherapy
Correct Answer: Chemotherapy and radiotherapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Small Cell Lung Cancer
Small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that is often treated with a combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy. According to NICE guidelines, concurrent chemoradiotherapy is the recommended first-line treatment for limited-stage disease. Radiotherapy alone is less effective than combination therapy.
Surgery is not routinely recommended for limited disease, but may be considered for patients with very early stage disease. Interferon-alpha is no longer recommended for small cell lung cancer.
For patients with extensive metastatic disease, palliative chemotherapy may be offered. However, this decision should be discussed with the patient. In the case of a patient without significant co-morbidities and no metastases, other treatment options may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has been referred to the Cancer Clinic for treatment after being diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) with favourable cytogenetic profiling. He reports experiencing fatigue, weight loss, reduced appetite, and easy bruising. What is the most suitable approach for achieving remission induction?
Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin and vincristine
Correct Answer: Daunorubicin plus cytarabine
Explanation:Chemotherapeutic Agents for Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
Remission induction therapy for AML patients with a favourable cytogenetic profile typically involves a combination of cytarabine and daunorubicin or idarubicin, known as the 7 plus 3 treatment. This involves a continuous infusion of cytarabine for seven days and daunorubicin or idarubicin on days 1-3. Infusion reactions such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, alopecia, and stomatitis are monitored, and a bone marrow examination is performed after two weeks to determine the need for a second course of therapy. Complete clinical investigation profiling is performed after 4-5 weeks to assess remission.
Asparaginase, dexamethasone, and vincristine are not used for remission induction in AML but are used for the treatment of acute lymphocytic leukemia/lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL/LBL). Cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and vincristine are mainly used for small cell carcinoma of the lung.
Daunorubicin and idarubicin are not standalone drugs but are used in combination with cytarabine as part of the 7 plus 3 remission induction therapy for medically fit AML patients with favourable cytogenetics. Midostaurin, an FLT3 inhibitor, is only added as one of three agents for AML patients with FLT3 mutations and is not used as a standalone remission induction drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A pre-med student is preparing for her oncology rotation and is studying the use of tumour markers in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer.
Which of the following tumour markers is accurately matched with the cancer it is linked to?Your Answer: CA 125 and lung cancer
Correct Answer: Alphafetoprotein (AFP) and hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Their Association with Specific Cancers
Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. These markers can be used to screen for and monitor certain types of cancer. Here are some examples of tumor markers and their association with specific cancers:
– Alphafetoprotein (AFP) and hepatocellular carcinoma: AFP is raised in 80% of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. High-risk patients should be offered 6-monthly screening with a combination of hepatic ultrasound and AFP level.
– CA 15-3 and breast cancer: CA 15-3 is associated with breast cancer.
– CA 19-9 and pancreatic and biliary tract cancers: CA 19-9 is associated with pancreatic and biliary tract cancers.
– CA 125 and ovarian cancer: CA 125 is associated with ovarian cancer.
– Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and prostatic cancer: PSA is associated with prostatic cancer and benign prostatic hypertrophy.
– Testicular cancer: Testicular cancer can be associated with AFP, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), depending on the tumor type.It is important to note that tumor markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and can also be elevated in non-cancerous conditions. Therefore, tumor markers should always be interpreted in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her neck. She is anxious because her sister was diagnosed with a highly aggressive type of thyroid cancer that is prevalent in older adults and has a poor prognosis. What type of cancer is she talking about?
Your Answer: Anaplastic carcinoma
Explanation:Types of Thyroid Cancer: An Overview
Thyroid cancer is a relatively rare malignancy that affects the thyroid gland. There are several types of thyroid cancer, each with its own unique characteristics and prognosis. Here is an overview of the most common types of thyroid cancer:
1. Anaplastic carcinoma: This is a highly aggressive form of thyroid cancer that is typically found in elderly patients. It has a low survival rate and is usually treated palliatively.
2. Papillary carcinoma: This is the most common type of thyroid cancer and typically affects younger patients. It tends to spread to local lymph nodes but rarely metastasizes via the bloodstream.
3. Follicular carcinoma: This is the second most common type of thyroid cancer and is more aggressive than papillary carcinoma. It tends to spread via the bloodstream.
4. Medullary carcinoma: This type of thyroid cancer originates from thyroid C cells and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. It produces calcitonin, which is used as a tumor marker.
5. Thyroid lymphoma: This is a rare type of thyroid cancer that is almost always a non-Hodgkin’s B-cell lymphoma. It is treated as a lymphoma rather than a thyroid cancer.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of thyroid cancer is important for diagnosis and treatment. If you have concerns about your thyroid health, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman, who is receiving doxorubicin chemotherapy for breast cancer, presents with severe nausea and vomiting as a side effect of the treatment. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile with a blood pressure of 102/76 mmHg and a regular pulse rate of 90 bpm. The patient has a capillary refill time of 2 seconds and dry mucous membranes. Abdominal examination reveals a soft abdomen without palpable masses or tenderness. Bowel sounds are normal. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?
Your Answer: Advise that symptoms will settle, and discharge
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) rehydration and IV ondansetron
Explanation:Management of Chemotherapy-Induced Nausea and Vomiting: Treatment Options
Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can be a distressing side-effect for patients undergoing cancer treatment. The use of antiemetics is an important aspect of patient care in managing these symptoms. In cases where the patient is actively vomiting, intravenous (IV) administration of antiemetics and fluids is preferred.
Ondansetron, a 5-hydroxytryptamine 3 (5HT3) receptor antagonist, is a potent antiemetic that is generally effective and well-tolerated by patients. However, a single dose of IV ondansetron should not exceed 16 mg to avoid the risk of QT prolongation. Ideally, antiemetic therapy should be started before chemotherapy and continued at regular intervals for up to five days.
Aggressive oral rehydration and oral antiemetics are not appropriate for patients who are actively vomiting. IV rehydration and IV ondansetron are the preferred treatment options in such cases.
In rare cases where ondansetron cannot be used, metoclopramide, an antidopaminergic antiemetic, may be considered. However, it is not the first choice of antiemetic.
IV omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is not indicated in the management of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
Overall, the goal of treatment is to manage symptoms and provide relief to the patient. With appropriate treatment, symptoms will settle, and the patient can be discharged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old lady with multiple myeloma visits the Oncology Day Hospital for her monthly infusion of intravenous zoledronic acid. She reports experiencing neck pain and new weakness and paraesthesiae in her left hand and arm.
What is the most suitable initial approach for managing this woman?Your Answer: Assess her analgesia and up-titrate to control her pain
Correct Answer: Urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) whole spine
Explanation:Urgent Management for a Patient with Acute Neck Pain and Malignancy
Explanation:
When a patient with malignancy presents with acute neck pain and focal neurological deficits, urgent investigation is necessary. This is particularly important for patients with multiple myeloma, who are at risk for developing plasmacytomas, which can cause spinal cord compression or pathological fractures. In this case, an urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the whole spine is needed to assess for spinal cord compression.
While blood cultures may be important in other situations, they would not affect the management of this patient. Instead, the focus should be on obtaining a diagnosis and definitive treatment. Plasmacytomas are radiosensitive, so urgent radiotherapy is indicated for treatment.
Although analgesia and pain assessment are necessary, they are not the top priority. Physiotherapy assessment for hand weakness may be beneficial, but it does not need to be done urgently. An X-ray of the cervical spine is not sensitive enough to detect all plasmacytomas, so an MRI of the whole spine is necessary to assess for multiple levels of disease.
In summary, urgent management for a patient with acute neck pain and malignancy includes an urgent MRI of the whole spine to assess for spinal cord compression, followed by urgent radiotherapy for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An older gentleman with prostate cancer is beginning treatment with morphine elixir for painful bone metastases. What would be the most suitable advice to give to his caregiver?
Your Answer: The same dose could be given IM to achieve the same effect
Correct Answer: A laxative will need to be used
Explanation:Managing Pain in Terminally Ill Patients
Managing pain in terminally ill patients can be challenging, but there are several strategies that can be employed to provide relief. When prescribing narcotics, it is important to start a laxative regimen to prevent constipation. Sedation may occur in the first few days, but this typically wears off. If pain relief is inadequate, the dose should be increased, although it is important to note that cocaine may produce hallucinations. It is also important to note that addiction is not a concern in terminally ill patients. Injections are typically three times more effective than oral medication. By employing these strategies, healthcare providers can help alleviate pain and improve the quality of life for terminally ill patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man visits the outpatient urology clinic with a lump in his left testicle. He reports no other symptoms. During his examination, a 5 mm firm and painless lump is detected. Following an ultrasound of the testicle and tumour markers, testicular cancer is suspected. What combination of tumour markers were likely requested for this patient?
Your Answer: CEA and prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Correct Answer: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Explanation:Tumour Markers Associated with Testicular Cancer: AFP and hCG
Testicular cancer is often characterized by the presence of a lump, and the most common tumour markers associated with this type of cancer are alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Germ cell tumours are the most common type of testicular cancer, with seminomas and non-seminomas being the most prevalent subtypes. Mixed germ cell tumours may also occur. Stromal tumours and metastasis from other organs are less common.
The age range and tumour markers associated with each type of germ cell tumour are as follows: seminomas are associated with an increase in hCG, embryonal carcinoma with an increase in both hCG and AFP, yolk sac carcinoma with an increase in AFP, choriocarcinoma with an increase in hCG, and teratoma without specific markers.
While it would be appropriate to request hCG and AFP, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) are not typically elevated in testicular cancer. CEA is more commonly associated with adenocarcinomas, particularly colorectal, while PSA is associated with prostate cancer. Similarly, PSA and CA-125 are not typically elevated in testicular cancer, but rather in prostate cancer and ovarian cancers, respectively.
In summary, AFP and hCG are the most common tumour markers associated with testicular cancer, and their levels can help diagnose and monitor the disease. Other tumour markers, such as CEA and PSA, are not typically elevated in testicular cancer and may be more indicative of other types of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which bone is an uncommon location for metastatic spread?
Your Answer: Skull
Correct Answer: Tibia
Explanation:Bone Metastasis and its Common Sites
Bone metastasis is a common cause of pain in cancer patients. It can also lead to pathological fractures and hypercalcaemia. The spine is the most commonly affected part of the skeleton, followed by the pelvis, hip, femurs, and skull. However, the tibia is rarely involved in bone metastasis.
In summary, bone metastasis is a significant concern for cancer patients, as it can cause pain and other complications. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients for signs of bone metastasis, especially in the commonly affected sites such as the spine, pelvis, hip, femurs, and skull.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with an inoperable oesophageal carcinoma has received a self-expanding metal stent to relieve his malignant dysphagia. However, he has now presented with acute dysphagia to fluids that has lasted for four hours. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this situation?
Your Answer: Laser ablation
Correct Answer: Fizzy drink
Explanation:Treatment Options for Malignant Dysphagia in Oesophageal Cancer Patients
Patients with oesophageal cancer often present with symptoms such as progressive dysphagia, weight loss, and anaemia. Unfortunately, these symptoms tend to appear late in the disease’s progression, making treatment more challenging. Oesophagectomy, the surgical removal of the oesophagus, is typically reserved for early-stage cancers that have not yet invaded surrounding tissues. Traditionally, malignant dysphagia was treated with repeated endoscopic dilatations. However, self-expanding metal stents (SEMS) are now the preferred treatment option for patients with malignant dysphagia.
While SEMS placement is generally safe and effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Early complications may include malposition, oesophageal perforation, bleeding, and stent migration. Late complications are more commonly related to eating, such as food bolus blockages or tumour overgrowth. If a food bolus blocks a stent, patients may be advised to consume a fizzy drink to help break it up. However, if this is unsuccessful, endoscopy may be required to dislodge the blockage.
In summary, SEMS placement is a safe and effective treatment option for patients with malignant dysphagia caused by oesophageal cancer. While there are potential complications to be aware of, these are generally manageable with prompt medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with oesophageal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old smoker visits his GP complaining of a persistent cough, difficulty breathing, weight loss (5 kg), and night sweats that have been going on for 8 months. An urgent chest X-ray is ordered, which reveals multiple well-defined central opacities. A blood test shows the following abnormality:
calcium: 3.7 mmol/l (2.1–2.6 mmol/l).
What type of lung cancer is the most probable diagnosis based on these findings?Your Answer: Bronchoalveolar
Correct Answer: Squamous cell
Explanation:Differentiating Lung Cancer Types Based on CXR Findings and Hypercalcemia
When examining a patient with lung cancer and hypercalcemia, the CXR findings can help narrow down the potential types of cancer. Central opacities make adenocarcinoma and bronchoalveolar cancer less likely, as they typically present in the peripheral lung fields and with extensive widespread opacities, respectively. Squamous cell carcinoma is a possible culprit, as it is known to produce parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP), which can cause hypercalcemia. Small-cell cancer is known for producing ADH and ACTH, not PTHrP. Large-cell cancer is unlikely to produce PTHrP, and adenocarcinoma usually presents peripherally and is unlikely to produce PTHrP. Therefore, considering CXR findings and hypercalcemia can aid in differentiating between lung cancer types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A child with leukaemia is given etoposide.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer: Alkylating agent
Correct Answer: Topoisomerase II inhibitor
Explanation:Chemotherapy agents can be classified into different categories based on their mechanism of action. Topoisomerase II inhibitors, such as etoposide, prevent the re-ligation of DNA strands by forming a complex with the topoisomerase II enzyme, leading to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. Microtubule inhibitors, like paclitaxel and vinblastine, block the formation of microtubules, which are essential for cell proliferation and signaling, resulting in cell death. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, interfere with DNA replication by attaching an alkyl group to the guanine base of DNA. Antimetabolites, including base analogues, nucleoside analogues, nucleotide analogues, and antifolates, disrupt cell metabolism and inhibit DNA replication and repair. Topoisomerase I inhibitors, like irinotecan and topotecan, inhibit DNA transcription and replication by binding to the topoisomerase I-DNA complex. These chemotherapy agents have various side effects, including bone marrow suppression, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, and allergic reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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With which malignancy is HTLV-1 infection linked?
Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Adult T cell leukaemia
Explanation:Risk of Malignancy Associated with HTLV-1
Between the time frame of 1:10 and 1:20, it is believed that individuals may develop malignancy associated with HTLV-1, specifically adult T cell leukaemia/lymphoma. This suggests that a small percentage of individuals infected with HTLV-1 may be at risk for developing this type of cancer. It is important for individuals who are infected with HTLV-1 to be aware of this potential risk and to regularly monitor their health for any signs or symptoms of malignancy. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful outcomes for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient (undergoing chemotherapy treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma) complains of severe mouth pain. On examination, you see white plaques over his tongue.
Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?Your Answer: Nystatin mouthwash for 10 days
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole for 7–14 days
Explanation:Treatment Options for Oral Candida Infection During Chemotherapy
During chemotherapy, patients may experience immunosuppression, which can lead to oral candida infection. There are several treatment options available for this condition, including oral fluconazole, nystatin mouthwash, and oral mycafungin. However, the most appropriate choice for mild to moderate oral candida infection is oral fluconazole, as it is more likely to prevent or delay recurrence than nystatin. Intravenous amphotericin B and oral voriconazole are not recommended for this condition, as they are used for systemic fungal infections and other types of fungal infections, respectively. It is important for healthcare providers to consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting a treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of abdominal discomfort and bloating. She reports feeling fatigued and has lost around 5 kg in weight during this time. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a solid mass with multiple compartments and high vascularity originating from the left ovary. Which tumour marker is expected to be elevated in this patient?
Your Answer: Ca 19-9
Correct Answer: Ca-125
Explanation:Tumour Markers for Ovarian Cancer: Understanding Ca-125 and Other Tests
Ovarian cancer is a serious condition that can be difficult to diagnose. However, there are several tumour markers that can help healthcare professionals identify the presence of ovarian cancer and monitor its progression. One of the most well-established tumour markers for epithelial ovarian cancer is Ca-125. This marker is likely to be elevated in patients with ovarian malignancies, particularly those over the age of 50 who present with symptoms such as abdominal distension, pain, early satiety, loss of appetite, urinary frequency and urgency, unexplained weight loss, fatigue, or change in bowel habit.
While Ca-125 is not specific to ovarian cancer, a raised level of 35 iu/ml or greater should prompt an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis. If the scan is suggestive of ovarian cancer, the patient must be referred to Gynaecology on an urgent basis. Other tumour markers, such as SCC antigen, Ca 19-9, calcitonin, and CEA, may also be used to aid in the management of advanced cervical cancers, gastrointestinal malignancies, thyroid malignancies, and other types of cancer, respectively. However, these markers are not commonly associated with ovarian tumours.
It is important to note that tumour markers should not be used in isolation to diagnose or monitor ovarian cancer. They should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests, such as imaging studies and biopsies, to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. With proper use and interpretation, tumour markers can be a valuable tool in the fight against ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old teacher is referred to the Breast Clinic for further investigation after finding a lump on her right breast one week earlier. She has well-controlled hypertension, but no other medical history of note. The patient does not smoke and is a keen runner.
The patient is especially concerned that she may have breast cancer, as her grandmother and maternal aunt both died from the condition. She is very upset that she did not find the lump sooner, as she thinks that it is at least 1 cm in size.
With regard to tumour kinetics, which one of the following is correct?Your Answer: Tumour growth is characterised by contact inhibition
Correct Answer: Tumour growth obeys Gompertzian kinetics
Explanation:Misconceptions about Tumour Growth
Tumour growth is a complex process that is often misunderstood. Here are some common misconceptions about tumour growth:
Common Misconceptions about Tumour Growth
1. Tumour growth obeys Gompertzian kinetics
While the rate of tumour growth does slow down from the initial exponential pattern, the assumption that it follows a sigmoidal shape is not always accurate.2. The clinical phase of tumour growth is long compared with the pre-clinical phase
In reality, the clinical phase of a tumour is short in comparison to the pre-clinical phase. By the time a tumour is detected, it has already completed a significant portion of its life cycle.3. The smallest clinically detectable tumour is 1000 cells
This is far too few cells to be clinically detectable. The usual number required to be clinically detectable would be 109 cells.4. In most tumours, the growth fraction is >90%
The growth fraction is usually 4–80%, with an average of <20%. Even in some rapidly growing tumours, the growth fraction is only about 20%. 5. Tumour growth is characterised by contact inhibition
Contact inhibition is a mechanism that is lost in cancer cells. Tumour growth is actually characterised by uncontrolled cell growth and division.It is important to have a clear understanding of tumour growth in order to develop effective treatments and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm tumour in the upper outer quadrant (OUQ) of her left breast. One local axillary node is positive, and no metastases are detected on imaging.
What is the accurate TNM (Tumour, Nodes, and Metastases) staging for her?Your Answer: T2, N1, M0
Correct Answer: T1, N1, M0
Explanation:TNM Staging and Examples
TNM staging is a system used to describe the extent of cancer in a patient’s body. It takes into account the size of the tumor (T), whether it has spread to nearby lymph nodes (N), and whether it has metastasized to distant organs (M). The categories are further subdivided to provide more detailed information. Based on the TNM categories, cancers are grouped into stages, which help determine the most appropriate treatment options.
Examples of TNM staging include:
– T1, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), one local axillary node is positive (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
– T0, Nx, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1). Nx would mean that spread to local lymph nodes was not assessed.
– T1, N0, M1: There was one positive axillary lymph node (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
– T2, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1).
– T1, N1, Mx: There are no distant metastases (M0). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the origin of Ewing's tumor?
Your Answer: Mesothelial cell
Correct Answer: Mesenchymal cells
Explanation:Ewing’s Tumour: A Younger Age Onset and Destructive Nature
Ewing’s tumour is a type of bone cancer that typically occurs in individuals between the ages of 5 and 30 years old. Patients with this condition often experience fever and pain, and may have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The tumour usually affects a long bone, particularly the diaphysis, and can be found in the axial skeleton, such as the pelvis, in 40% of cases. The tumour is primarily destructive and ill-defined, eroding the cortex of the bone. Its cellular origin is not well understood, but is believed to come from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells in the medulla of the bone.
One of the characteristic features of Ewing’s tumour is an early periosteal reaction, which can be seen as a series of lamellated periosteal reactions with an onion skin appearance. This reaction occurs due to the elevation of the periosteum, which gives rise to the Codman’s triangle appearance. In cases where the tumour is large, the site of origin can be inferred from the centre of the radius of the mass.
Overall, Ewing’s tumour is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Its destructive nature and younger age onset make it a particularly challenging form of bone cancer to manage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with advanced dementia and oesophageal cancer is rushed to the hospital from a nursing home due to sudden onset of complete dysphagia. He cannot tolerate any food or drink and immediately vomits. He had a stent placed two weeks ago which initially provided relief. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stent displacement
Correct Answer: Bolus obstruction
Explanation:Common Complications of Stenting
Stenting is a common procedure used to treat blockages in the body’s vessels. However, despite providing detailed instructions on post-stenting diet, patients often forget the rules and are readmitted due to obstruction. The most likely cause of obstruction is bolus obstruction, which occurs when a large piece of food is inadvertently ingested.
Stent displacement is another common complication, especially with metal stents that have not been fully deployed. This tends to occur early on after the procedure. On the other hand, tumour overgrowth is a longer-term complication that can occur with stenting. It is important for patients to follow the post-stenting diet and to be aware of the potential complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A young medical student is investigating the involvement of oncogenes in the formation of different types of cancers following an interview with a patient who has breast cancer linked to an oncogene. Which oncogene promotes the growth of breast cancer?
Your Answer: Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
Correct Answer: Human epidermal growth receptor 2 (HER2)
Explanation:Genes and Proteins Associated with Cancer: HER2, p53, BRCA1, IgE, and CEA
Cancer is a complex disease that can be caused by various genetic mutations and alterations. Some genes and proteins are associated with an increased risk of developing cancer, while others are used as markers to detect the presence of cancer. Here are some examples:
HER2: A mutated HER2 gene is an oncogene that promotes the growth of breast cancer cells. HER2-positive breast cancers tend to be more aggressive and require targeted treatments such as trastuzumab.
p53: The p53 gene produces a tumor suppressor protein that helps prevent the development of cancer. Loss of function or abnormal p53 is associated with an increased susceptibility to various malignancies.
BRCA1: BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene that produces proteins that help repair damaged DNA. Mutations in BRCA1 increase the risk of breast and ovarian cancer in women.
IgE: Immunoglobulin E is an antibody produced by plasma cells and is not associated with cancer development.
CEA: Carcinoembryonic antigen is a tumor marker that may be elevated in various malignancies, including colorectal, lung, and breast cancer.
Understanding the role of genes and proteins in cancer development and detection can help with early diagnosis and targeted treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder after presenting with haematuria. Are there any recognised occupational exposures that increase the risk of developing bladder cancer?
Your Answer: Aniline dye
Explanation:Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the lower abdomen that stores urine. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing bladder cancer. One of the most significant risk factors is smoking, which can cause harmful chemicals to accumulate in the bladder and increase the risk of cancer. Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry, as well as rubber manufacture, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Additionally, the use of cyclophosphamide, a chemotherapy drug, can increase the risk of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis, a parasitic infection that is common in certain parts of the world, is also a risk factor for bladder cancer, particularly for squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Outpatient Department by her father with symptoms of bloating, mild fever, abdominal pain, lack of appetite, generalised feeling of being unwell and easy bruising for the past two weeks. On examination, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy (non-tender, firm, rubbery) and patches of petechiae and purpura are noted on both lower limbs.
The child is referred to the Oncology Department where complete laboratory investigations, including full blood count (FBC), differential count and a review of the peripheral smear, were performed. The findings are indicative of acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL).
Which of the following would be the most likely finding with the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Immature cells with large nucleoli, myeloperoxidase (MPO)-positive
Correct Answer: Positive staining for B-cell antibodies (CD19, cytoplasmic CD79a, CD22) and MPO-negative
Explanation:Recognizing Leukemia and Lymphoma: Key Features and Diagnostic Tests
Leukemia and lymphoma are types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms, making diagnosis challenging. However, certain features and diagnostic tests can help differentiate between them.
For example, positive staining for B-cell antibodies (CD19, cytoplasmic CD79a, CD22) and MPO-negative suggest ALL/LBL, while an expanded population of myeloid cells with t(9;22) (Philadelphia chromosome) is characteristic of CML. Burkitt’s lymphoma is characterized by highly proliferative cells with a starry sky appearance, while hypocellular bone marrow with pancytopenia suggests aplastic anemia. Finally, AML is characterized by immature cells with large nucleoli that are MPO-positive.
By recognizing these key features and utilizing appropriate diagnostic tests such as flow cytometry and cytochemistry, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat these blood cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has been diagnosed with non-small-cell bronchial carcinoma during a bronchoscopy. Despite her diagnosis, she is in good health. CT imaging for staging did not show any signs of metastatic disease. Her surgeon has suggested a pneumonectomy but wants to conduct a PET scan. How will this test aid in managing the patient?
Your Answer: Labels the tumour for easier identification at surgery
Correct Answer: Demonstrates any metastatic disease not found at CT
Explanation:PET Imaging in Cancer Diagnosis and Treatment
PET imaging is a diagnostic tool that uses radiolabelled molecules to identify areas of high metabolic activity, such as cancerous tumors. When combined with CT, PET can be more sensitive in detecting metastatic disease. However, PET has limitations in identifying blood supply and primary tumor masses, which may require other imaging techniques such as angiography or MRI. PET also cannot label tumors for easier identification during surgery, but newer techniques using fluorescent labeling are emerging. Finally, PET does not have any therapeutic effect on the tumor itself, but can be used to guide neoadjuvant therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired banker is referred to the Urology Clinic with a 4-month history of poor stream when passing urine. Over the past few weeks, the patient has also noticed some blood in his urine.
He is normally fit and well. The only medical history of note is type 2 diabetes, which is well controlled with diet alone.
On rectal examination, the patient is noted to have an enlarged, irregularly shaped prostate.
A raised level of which of the tumour markers below would be most commonly associated with carcinoma of the prostate?Your Answer: Ca-125
Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
Explanation:Tumour Markers: PSA and Other Commonly Used Markers
Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men in the UK. It is a slow-growing cancer, which means that it may be present for a long time before symptoms appear. Symptoms of prostate cancer include increased urinary frequency, urgency, hesitancy, weak flow, sensation of incomplete emptying of the bladder post-voiding, and blood in the urine or semen. PSA is the most commonly used tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, PSA can also be elevated in non-malignant conditions of the prostate, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia. A normal PSA level ranges from 0 to 4 ng/ml, although the upper level of normal can vary according to age and race. If a patient’s PSA is 3.0 or higher, they should be referred urgently to a specialist using a Suspected Cancer Pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. Serial PSA measurements are also used to monitor disease progression, to measure response to treatment and to check for remission in patients with carcinoma of the prostate.
Other commonly used tumour markers include AFP, which is associated with liver and testicular tumours, CEA, which is a non-specific tumour marker associated with colorectal cancer, lung cancer, and breast cancer, Ca-125, which is associated with ovarian cancer, and Ca 15-3, which is associated with carcinoma of the breast.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A patient with rectal cancer in their 60s is seen by the colorectal nurse specialist and is told about a special blood test to monitor their disease.
Which of the following is this most likely to relate to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Explanation:Tumour Markers: Types and Uses
Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to diagnose cancer, monitor treatment response, and detect recurrence. Here are some common tumour markers and their uses:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): This glycoprotein is found in normal mucosal cells but increases in adenocarcinoma, particularly colorectal cancer. It is used to monitor disease, rather than as a diagnostic tool.
CA-19-9: This intracellular adhesion molecule is highly specific for pancreatic and biliary tract cancers but may also be elevated in other cancers. It has a role in predicting metastatic disease.
Alpha fetoprotein (AFP): This tumour marker is used for hepatocellular carcinoma and non-seminomatous germ cell tumours. It can be used to screen for hepatocellular carcinomas, especially in high-risk patients.
C-reactive protein (CRP): This marker indicates acute inflammation and is not specific to cancer.
CA-125: This glycoprotein is a marker for ovarian cancer but can also be elevated in other intra-abdominal cancers and non-malignant conditions. It is mainly used for monitoring after treatment and if ovarian cancer is suspected.
In conclusion, tumour markers have various uses in cancer diagnosis and management. However, they should always be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and imaging findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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