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Question 1
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner because of a 4-day history of febrile temperatures and intermittent earache. Examination reveals unilateral otitis media and a bulging drum. The child has no known allergies.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for this patient?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Treatment of Acute Otitis Media: Antibiotic Guidelines
Acute otitis media (AOM) is a common childhood infection that often resolves without antibiotic treatment. However, in certain cases, antibiotics may be necessary to prevent serious complications. The following guidelines outline appropriate antibiotic treatment for AOM.
When to Consider Antibiotics:
Antibiotics may be considered after 72 hours if there is no improvement, or earlier if the child is systemically unwell, at high risk of complications, or under two years of age with bilateral otitis media.First-Line Antibiotics:
Amoxicillin is the preferred first-line antibiotic for AOM, as it is effective against the most common bacterial pathogens involved in the infection.Alternative Antibiotics:
Erythromycin or clarithromycin may be used for individuals who cannot take penicillin, but they are less effective against Haemophilus influenza.Second-Line Antibiotics:
Co-amoxiclav and azithromycin should be reserved for individuals who have not responded to first-line antibiotics. However, broad-spectrum antibiotics should be avoided when narrow-spectrum drugs are likely to be effective, as they increase the risk of Clostridioides difficile and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.Why Azithromycin is Not Recommended as First-Line:
Azithromycin is not recommended as a first-line antibiotic due to its long half-life, which increases the risk of developing antibiotic resistance.In summary, appropriate antibiotic treatment for AOM depends on the severity of the infection and the individual’s ability to tolerate certain antibiotics. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively treat AOM while minimizing the risk of complications and antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been discharged from hospital after having her tonsils removed.
Which of the following is typical after a tonsillectomy?Your Answer: Coughing up small amounts of blood ten days postoperatively
Correct Answer: Halitosis and ear pain temporarily
Explanation:Misconceptions about Tonsillectomy Recovery
Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, there are several misconceptions about the recovery process that patients should be aware of.
Firstly, some patients may experience ear pain and halitosis after the surgery. This is due to referred pain from the tonsils and infection of the raw tissue areas, respectively.
Secondly, coughing up small amounts of blood ten days postoperatively is not normal and should be referred to secondary care for possible admission. Secondary bleeds are most common after about 5-10 days, and minor bleeding may be a precursor of a major bleed.
Thirdly, removal of the tonsils doesn’t guarantee a complete cessation of throat infections. Patients may still experience laryngitis or pharyngitis.
Fourthly, a temporary rise in the pitch of the voice is common after tonsillectomy due to swelling in the oropharynx. However, a permanent change in voice is not expected.
Lastly, it is normal to have moderate-to-severe discomfort for up to two weeks after the surgery, including pain while swallowing and pain in the throat. Adequate analgesia is needed, and children may become dehydrated if they do not take in adequate liquids after the surgery.
In conclusion, understanding the misconceptions about tonsillectomy recovery can help patients better prepare for the surgery and manage their expectations during the healing process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner for a check-up. She mentions that her friends have informed her about her bad breath. From where is this patient's issue most likely originating?
Your Answer: Mouth
Explanation:Causes and Treatment of Halitosis
Halitosis, commonly known as bad breath, affects 80-90% of people with persistent symptoms. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence identifies poor oral hygiene, smoking, periodontal disease, dry mouth, dentures, and poor denture hygiene as the primary causes of halitosis. In such cases, referral to a dentist and a trial of antibacterial mouthwash and toothpaste may be appropriate.
Less common causes of halitosis include sinusitis, foreign body in the nasal cavities, tonsillitis, tonsil stones in the throat, bronchiectasis in the respiratory tract, acid reflux, and Helicobacter pylori in the gastrointestinal tract. Pseudo-halitosis is a condition in which people falsely believe they have bad breath.
In conclusion, halitosis can be caused by various factors, and treatment depends on the underlying cause. Maintaining good oral hygiene and seeking medical attention when necessary can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall oral health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Correct
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A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo that has been present for the past 5 weeks after a recent respiratory tract infection. He reports feeling nauseous and unsteady on his feet, especially when turning over in bed. He denies any hearing loss or ringing in his ears. A cerebellar stroke was ruled out when he was initially evaluated at the hospital.
During the examination, you observe fine-horizontal nystagmus. However, the neurological examination is otherwise unremarkable, and his hearing and otoscopy results are normal. You suspect that he may be suffering from vestibular neuronitis.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Refer the patient to a balance specialist for consideration of vestibular rehabilitation exercises
Explanation:Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are the recommended treatment for chronic symptoms of vestibular neuronitis. While short-term use of oral prochlorperazine or antihistamines can provide relief, they should not be used for more than three days as they may hinder the body’s compensatory mechanisms and delay recovery.
NICE CKS guidance advises against the use of corticosteroids, benzodiazepines, or antiviral medication as there is no evidence of their effectiveness.
If symptoms persist for six weeks or more, patients should be referred to a specialist for further investigation and vestibular rehabilitation exercises. It is crucial to note that urgent referral is necessary if symptoms do not improve within one week of initial treatment to rule out other potential causes.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Correct
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic 3 days after being hit on the left side of his head. He reports experiencing muffled hearing on the left side since the incident. Upon examination, there are no visible bruises, but both ears are covered by a thin, translucent layer of wax. Rinne's test reveals that the tuning fork is more audible when placed on the mastoid bone on the left side. On Weber's test, the sound is heard most clearly on the left side. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perforated eardrum
Explanation:Differentiating between tympanic membrane perforation and sensorineural hearing loss due to skull trauma is crucial. Rinne’s test can help identify conductive hearing loss in the affected ear, while Weber’s test can rule out sensorineural hearing loss on the right.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You review a patient who you diagnosed with Meniere's disease last week. Her vertigo has settled but she still has hearing loss and tinnitus on the right side. She is still waiting to be seen by the ENT department but has a few questions about Meniere's disease.
Which statement below regarding Meniere's disease is correct?Your Answer: Hearing loss is not progressive and will resolve
Correct Answer: Around half of people with Meniere's disease have bilateral involvement after 5 years if not treated
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the surgical department with complaints of a sore throat. She is running a temperature of 39.2ÂșC and is experiencing difficulty in eating due to the pain, although she is able to tolerate fluids. There are no other associated symptoms such as cough or rash. On examination, her heart rate is 120/min and chest auscultation is normal. Bilateral tonsils are covered in exudate, while ear examination is unremarkable. Apart from supportive care, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 5 days
Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting signs of systemic disturbance and requires antibiotic treatment. A 7 to 10-day antibiotic regimen is recommended to effectively eliminate any potential Streptococcus infection. The BNF recommends Phenoxymethylpenicillin as the primary antibiotic option.
Management of Sore Throat
Sore throat is a common condition that includes pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. Routine throat swabs and rapid antigen tests are not recommended for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be achieved with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not usually necessary. However, antibiotics may be indicated for patients with marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when 3 or more Centor criteria are present. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN criteria can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. There is some evidence that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, but this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with minor bleeding from the gums during tooth brushing, as evidenced by blood on the toothbrush and on spitting out during tooth brushing. There is no pain, lymphadenopathy, fever, or other systemic manifestation of disease. On examination of the teeth and gums, reddened, mild-to-moderately swollen gingivae are observed throughout the mouth.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Gingivitis
Explanation:Understanding Gingivitis and Periodontal Disease
Gingivitis is a common condition characterized by inflammation of the gums, often caused by dental plaque. If left untreated, it can progress to periodontitis, which affects the ligaments and bone supporting the teeth. Risk factors include poor oral hygiene, smoking, and diabetes. Treatment involves managing oral hygiene and using antiseptic mouthwashes, but it’s important to see a dentist for proper care.
Necrotising ulcerative gingivitis, also known as Vincent’s disease, is a painful form of gingivitis that can cause ulcers and bleeding. It’s caused by bacteria already present in the mouth and can be treated with antibiotics.
Periodontal disease is a common problem in HIV-infected patients and can present as necrotising ulcerative periodontitis or linear gingival erythema. These conditions can occur even in clean mouths with little plaque or tartar.
Bleeding gums can also be a symptom of leukaemia and platelet disorders. It’s important to seek medical attention if you experience persistent bleeding or other oral health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes in with complaints of hearing loss. Tuning fork tests are performed, revealing a Rinne-positive result on both sides (air conduction heard better than bone conduction) and lateralisation of the Weber test to the left ear. How should these tuning fork test results be interpreted?
Your Answer: Left-sided sensorineural hearing loss
Explanation:Tuning Fork Tests for Hearing Loss
Tuning fork tests are commonly used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. Two tests are usually performed: the Rinne test and the Weber test. The Rinne test compares air conduction to bone conduction by placing the tuning fork against the mastoid and adjacent to the ear canal on both sides. Normally, sound is heard better by air conduction than bone conduction, resulting in a Rinne-positive outcome. Conductive hearing loss, however, causes a Rinne-negative pattern, where bone conduction is better than air conduction. A Rinne-positive result is also seen in sensorineural hearing loss and normal hearing, which is why the Weber test is necessary to provide further information.
The Weber test involves placing the tuning fork on the forehead and checking if sound waves are transmitted equally to both ears. In normal hearing, the sound is heard equally in both ears. Conductive hearing loss in one ear causes the sound to be heard on the same side as the conductive loss. On the other hand, sensorineural hearing loss causes sound to be heard on the opposite side.
In this case, the Rinne test resulted in a positive outcome on both sides, indicating no conductive hearing loss. However, the Weber test showed lateralization to the right, suggesting left-sided sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old heavy smoker who has just been diagnosed with cancer and is hesitant to undergo surgery. He is interested in exploring the option of radiotherapy. Which tumour from the following list is most suitable for potentially curative treatment with RADIOTHERAPY ALONE? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Lung cancer
Correct Answer: Laryngeal carcinoma
Explanation:Curative Treatment Options for Various Types of Cancer
Laryngeal Carcinoma:
The management of laryngeal cancer involves preserving the larynx whenever possible. For early-stage disease, transoral laser microsurgery or radiotherapy is used. For more advanced disease, radiotherapy with concomitant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice. Total laryngectomy may still be required for some cases.Breast Cancer:
Radiotherapy is used as an adjuvant to primary surgery in breast cancer. It significantly reduces breast-cancer-related deaths and local recurrence rates.Colonic Carcinoma:
Surgical resection of the tumor is the main curative treatment for colonic carcinoma in patients with localized disease. Radiotherapy is limited by the risk of damage to surrounding structures.Gastric Carcinoma:
Partial or total gastrectomy is the only curative treatment for gastric carcinoma. Radiotherapy is ineffective.Lung Cancer:
Surgical excision is the curative treatment for localised non-small cell carcinoma. Radiotherapy with curative intent may be offered to patients unsuitable for surgery with stage I, II or III non-small cell carcinoma and good performance status if there is no undue risk of normal tissue damage.Curative Treatment Options for Different Types of Cancer
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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