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Question 1
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with a history of symptoms that highly resemble rheumatoid arthritis.
Which one of the following X-ray findings would indicate a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?
Your Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis
Explanation:Common X-Ray Findings in Arthritis
Arthritis is a condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. X-rays are often used to diagnose and monitor arthritis, as they can reveal changes in the bones and joints. Here are some common X-ray findings in arthritis:
Juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia: This is an early X-ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis, characterized by a loss of bone density around the joints.
Loss of joint space: Both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint space narrowing, which occurs when the cartilage no longer keeps the bones a normal distance apart. This can be painful, as the bones rub or put too much pressure on each other.
Osteophytes: These are bony lumps (bone spurs) that grow on the bones of the spine or around the joints. They often form next to joints affected by osteoarthritis.
Subchondral cysts: This is a feature of a degenerative process (osteoarthritis). A subchondral cyst is a fluid-filled space inside a joint that extends from one of the bones that form the joint.
Subchondral sclerosis: This is a thickening of bone that happens in joints affected by osteoarthritis.
Overall, X-rays can provide valuable information about the progression of arthritis and help guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of left nostril blockage and frequent nosebleeds for the past 4 weeks. He has a medical history of well-controlled diabetes and hypertension and has a smoking history of 20 cigarettes per day since he was 18. He used to work in construction. During the examination, you observe a nasal polyp on the left side. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: 2 week-wait referral
Explanation:Unilateral nasal polyps are a cause for concern and should be promptly referred to an ENT specialist as they may indicate nasal cancer. However, they can also be caused by other factors such as nose picking, foreign bodies, misapplication of nasal spray or cystic fibrosis. Treatment with antibiotics, oral steroids, nasal drops or cautery is unlikely to be effective and may delay the diagnosis of a serious condition.
Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.
The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 3
Correct
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Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.
She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.
On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.
Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.
Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.
A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.
In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes in with post-menopausal bleeding. Which is NOT associated with an increased risk of endometrial cancer?
Your Answer: Late menopause
Correct Answer: Past history of combined oral contraceptive pill use
Explanation:The use of combined oral contraceptive pill is associated with a reduced risk of endometrial cancer.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother. She is asking for the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill as she has recently started a relationship with a 19-year-old man whom she met at a local coffee shop, but they have not yet engaged in sexual activity. During the consultation, you discuss the age difference, but the mother assures you that she has met the boyfriend and believes he treats her daughter well. Both the girl and her mother insist that they do not want anyone else involved. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Immediately phone local child protection lead and refer to social services
Explanation:According to the GMC guidelines, sexual intercourse with children below the age of 13 cannot be considered consensual, and therefore, any sexual activity would be classified as rape. In such cases, breaking confidentiality is mandatory.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 65 year old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough that has been ongoing for three days. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, weakness, and lethargy over the past two days. He also reports fevers and rigors. His wife brought him in as she is concerned about his rapid deterioration. On examination, his heart rate is 125 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute, Sa02 is 90% on room air, temperature is 38.9º, and blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg. He appears distressed but is not confused. Initial investigations show a Hb of 134 g/l, platelets of 550 * 109/l, WBC of 18 * 109/l, Na+ of 141 mmol/l, K+ of 3.7 mmol/l, urea of 9.2 mmol/l, and creatinine of 130 µmol/l. A CXR shows left lower zone consolidation. What is his CURB-65 score based on this information?
Your Answer: 3
Explanation:The patient is currently in a room with normal air temperature of 38.9º and has a blood pressure reading of 130/84 mmHg. Although he appears distressed, he is not experiencing confusion. Initial tests reveal that his hemoglobin level is at 134 g/l and his platelet count is yet to be determined.
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) four weeks after suffering from a vomiting illness. She complains of numbness and tingling in her lower limbs which has developed over the past three days. On examination, she has weakness of ankle and knee flexion and extension, diminished knee and ankle reflexes and sensory loss below the knee. The GP arranges urgent hospital admission and she is started on treatment as soon as she arrives at the hospital.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.Your Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Guillain-Barré Syndrome
Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nerves, resulting in symmetrical weakness, hyporeflexia, and paraesthesia. The condition often occurs after an infection, usually involving the respiratory or gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly used treatment for GBS is intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), which helps to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms. Plasmapheresis (plasma exchange) is another option that filters antibodies from the patient’s plasma.
However, corticosteroids such as intravenous prednisolone have not been shown to improve GBS symptoms and may even prolong recovery. Haemodialysis is not necessary unless the patient has concurrent renal failure. Antivirals such as intravenous acyclovir have no role in managing GBS as it is not a viral illness. Although a bacterial infection may precede GBS, antibiotics such as intravenous ceftriaxone are not used to treat the autoimmune process causing the neurological symptoms. In some cases, patients with GBS may require invasive ventilation, which may cause pneumonia and require treatment with antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 33-year-old man who is HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath and a dry cough. He has been homeless and has not been keeping up with his outpatient appointments or taking his antiretroviral medication. Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute and there are scattered crackles in his chest. His oxygen saturation is 96% on room air but drops quickly after walking. Based on the likely diagnosis of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, what is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Explanation:The treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia involves the use of co-trimoxazole, a combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole.
Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia in HIV Patients
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with AIDS. Pneumocystis jiroveci is an organism that is classified as a fungus by some and a protozoa by others. Patients with a CD4 count below 200/mm³ should receive prophylaxis for PCP. Symptoms of PCP include dyspnea, dry cough, fever, and few chest signs. Pneumothorax is a common complication of PCP, and extrapulmonary manifestations are rare.
Chest X-rays typically show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates, but other findings such as lobar consolidation may also be present. Sputum tests often fail to show PCP, and bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) is often necessary to demonstrate the presence of the organism. Treatment for PCP includes co-trimoxazole and IV pentamidine in severe cases. Aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative treatment but is less effective and carries a risk of pneumothorax. Steroids may be used if the patient is hypoxic, as they can reduce the risk of respiratory failure and death.
In summary, PCP is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with AIDS, and prophylaxis should be given to those with a CD4 count below 200/mm³. Symptoms include dyspnea, dry cough, and fever, and chest X-rays typically show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates. Treatment includes co-trimoxazole, IV pentamidine, and steroids if the patient is hypoxic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 72-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. He is currently taking ramipril for his high blood pressure. What is the most appropriate medication to help manage his heart failure?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Comparing Beta Blockers for Heart Failure: Efficacy and Evidence
Beta blockers are a class of medications commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Among them, bisoprolol and carvedilol have the strongest evidence of efficacy in reducing mortality rates in heart failure patients, according to data from the CIBIS and CASA-2 trials. Atenolol, although cardioselective, has less evidence to support its use in heart failure. Labetalol is primarily used for hypertension in pregnancy, while propranolol has the most evidence of benefit after a myocardial infarction but is not always preferred due to its twice-daily dosing. Sotalol, a first-generation beta blocker, is not cardioselective and is not recommended for heart failure. Overall, the choice of beta blocker for heart failure should be based on the available evidence and individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman, who is a non-smoker, presents with back pain. A bone scan shows multiple lesions highly suggestive of metastases. Clinical examination is normal apart from unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of an affected lymph node shows adenocarcinoma. Which of the following investigations should be prioritised to find the site of the primary?
Your Answer: Mammography
Explanation:When a patient presents with metastatic bone disease from an unknown primary, it is important to identify the primary source in order to guide treatment and determine prognosis. Tumours that commonly metastasize to bone include those of the lungs, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
In cases where the patient has unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy, metastatic breast carcinoma is highly likely. Other potential causes of unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy include lymphoma, primary malignancy, melanoma, or metastases from non-breast primary malignancy.
While there are various investigations that can be performed, mammography should be the first examination of choice. If the mammogram is negative, other investigations may be pursued to identify alternative occult sites.
It is important to note that identifying the primary source is useful even in cases of metastatic disease, as it can guide treatment and provide insight into prognosis. Therefore, mammography plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by her roommates, presenting confusion and fever. She had been complaining of a severe headache and neck stiffness since yesterday. Her roommates have also noticed what appears to be bruising.
Upon examination, she appears acutely unwell, with a fever and nuchal rigidity. A widespread purpuric rash is observed, as well as general pallor and mottling.
Considering the probable diagnosis, what should be provided to her roommates?Your Answer: Intravenous benzylpenicillin if they develop symptoms
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin now
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. In this case, the patient’s symptoms indicate meningococcal meningitis, and therefore, household members and close contacts should be offered prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin as the preferred drug. Intramuscular benzylpenicillin is not appropriate for prophylaxis, but may be given to a patient with suspected meningococcal meningitis in a pre-hospital setting. Intravenous benzylpenicillin is a treatment option for the patient, not for contacts. Intravenous cefotaxime is also a treatment option for the patient, but not a suitable prophylactic antibiotic for contacts. Waiting until symptoms develop to give oral ciprofloxacin is not recommended – it should be given immediately.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true for prostate cancer?
Your Answer: It is the most common cause of cancer death in men.
Correct Answer: There is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK.
Explanation:Prostate Cancer: Facts and Controversies
Prostate cancer is the second most common cancer in men in developed countries, with an estimated one in six men being diagnosed with it in their lifetime. However, there is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK due to the controversial nature of PSA testing. PSA tests can yield unreliable results and may lead to unnecessary treatment for slow-growing tumours that may never cause symptoms or shorten life. Although treating prostate cancer in its early stages can be beneficial, the potential side effects of treatment may cause men to delay treatment until it is absolutely necessary.
The 5-year relative survival rates for prostate cancer vary depending on the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, with local or regional prostate cancer having a survival rate of over 99%, while distant disease has a survival rate of 29%. The Gleason grade, tumour volume, and presence of capsular penetration or margin positivity are important indicators of prognosis for prostate cancer.
Prostate cancer is also the second most common cause of cancer death in men, accounting for 8% of cancer deaths. Advanced prostate cancer may not involve pain, but can result in a range of symptoms including weight loss, anorexia, bone pain, neurological deficits, and lower extremity pain and oedema.
Overall, prostate cancer remains a complex and controversial disease, with ongoing debates surrounding screening and treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is admitted with chronic congestive heart failure.
Based on this history, what is the most important factor to consider when prescribing medication for this patient?Your Answer: Administration of a β-blocker reduces mortality
Explanation:Treatment Options for Heart Failure: A Summary of Medications and Their Effects
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management to improve symptoms and reduce mortality rates. Two medications that have been found to be effective in reducing mortality are β-blockers and ACE inhibitors. These medications work by reducing afterload and should be offered as first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. Loop diuretics, on the other hand, have no mortality benefit but can provide symptomatic relief. Digoxin, while effective in providing symptomatic relief, has been found to increase mortality rates and should be used with caution. Spironolactone, however, has been shown to greatly reduce mortality and sudden cardiac death rates and should be added to the treatment. Finally, while angiotensin II receptor antagonists can be used in patients who are intolerant of ACE inhibitors or added to ACE inhibitors and β-blockers if patients remain symptomatic, ACE inhibitors have been found to result in better prognosis. It is important to carefully consider the benefits and risks of each medication when treating patients with heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Correct
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As a physician on the night shift cardiac arrest team, you receive an emergency page requesting immediate assistance on the geriatric ward. Upon arrival, you discover the nursing staff performing chest compressions on an unresponsive patient with no carotid pulse. You instruct them to continue compressions while you apply defibrillator pads to the patient's chest. After a brief pause in compressions, the defibrillator monitor displays a monomorphic, broad complex tachycardia. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer: Immediately give 1 defibrillator shock followed by CPR
Explanation:When pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) is identified, the immediate and correct treatment is a single defibrillator shock followed by 2 minutes of CPR. This is in contrast to using intravenous adenosine or amiodarone, which are not appropriate in this scenario. The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines now recommend a single shock for ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless VT. Administering 3 back-to-back shocks followed by 1 minute of CPR is part of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm, but it is not the most appropriate next step in management for a delayed recognition of rhythm like in the above case. In contrast, continued CPR with 30 chest compressions to 2 breaths is appropriate in a basic life support scenario where a defibrillator is not yet available.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with hypertension has an annual review. He is medicated with amlodipine 10 mg once daily. He has never smoked and does not have diabetes. His past medical history is unremarkable. He has a blood pressure of 126/74 mmHg, total cholesterol:HDL-cholesterol ratio of 6.3, and QRISK2-2017 of 26.1%.
Target blood pressure in people aged <80 years, with treated hypertension: <140/90 mmHg.
Target blood pressure in people aged ≥80 years, with treated hypertension: <150/90 mmHg.
Total cholesterol: HDL-cholesterol ratio: high risk if >6.
You decide to initiate statin therapy for primary prevention of cerebrovascular disease (CVD).
Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for this patient?
Select the SINGLE drug from the slit below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Atorvastatin 20mg
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Statin Use in Primary and Secondary Prevention of CVD
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the use of statins in the prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD). For primary prevention, NICE recommends offering atorvastatin 20 mg to individuals with a 10-year risk of developing CVD ≥10%. Fluvastatin and simvastatin are not recommended as first-line agents for primary prevention.
For secondary prevention in individuals with established CVD, NICE recommends using atorvastatin 80 mg, with a lower dose used if there are potential drug interactions or high risk of adverse effects. Simvastatin 80 mg is considered a high-intensity statin, but is not recommended as a first-line agent for primary or secondary prevention.
NICE guidelines emphasize the importance of assessing CVD risk using a recognized scoring system, such as QRISK2, for primary prevention. All modifiable risk factors should be addressed for individuals with a risk score >10%, including weight loss, tight control of blood pressure, exercise, smoking cessation, and statin use to lower cholesterol.
For secondary prevention, all patients with CVD should be offered a statin. The QRISK2 risk assessment tool is recommended for assessing CVD risk in individuals up to and including age 84 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 16
Correct
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A 67-year-old man is discharged from the hospital after being treated for a thrombolysed ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He has a history of depression but no other significant medical history. During his stay in the coronary care unit, he developed dyspnoea and an echo revealed a reduced left ventricular ejection fraction. His cardiorespiratory examination today was normal. In addition to the standard treatment of ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, aspirin, clopidogrel, and statin, what other type of medication should he be prescribed?
Your Answer: Aldosterone antagonist
Explanation:According to the current NICE guidelines, a patient with a reduced left ventricular ejection fraction should be prescribed an aldosterone antagonist. However, a loop diuretic should only be prescribed if there is evidence of fluid overload.
Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.
Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 17
Correct
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A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during her routine booking visit bloods. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: IM benzathine penicillin G
Explanation:Management of Syphilis
Syphilis can be effectively managed with intramuscular benzathine penicillin as the first-line treatment. In cases where penicillin cannot be used, doxycycline may be used as an alternative. After treatment, nontreponemal titres such as rapid plasma reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) should be monitored to assess the response. A fourfold decline in titres is often considered an adequate response to treatment.
It is important to note that the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur following treatment. This reaction is characterized by fever, rash, and tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic. Unlike anaphylaxis, there is no wheezing or hypotension. The reaction is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment. However, no treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required.
In summary, the management of syphilis involves the use of intramuscular benzathine penicillin or doxycycline as an alternative. Nontreponemal titres should be monitored after treatment, and the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur but does not require treatment unless symptomatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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As a junior doctor in a community mental health team, you are attending to a 35-year-old woman who is suffering from moderate-severe depression. She often voices out intense suicidal ideations and has a history of intentional overdose. Which category of antidepressants is currently less utilized due to their high toxicity in overdose?
Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Explanation:Tricyclic antidepressants are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their high risk of causing dangerous overdose. Therefore, when selecting an antidepressant for a patient who is at high risk of overdose, it is important to choose a class of antidepressants that are less toxic if taken in excess. TCAs have a narrow therapeutic index, which means that even moderate doses can lead to severe cardiovascular and CNS toxicity. Complications of TCA overdose include prolonged hypotension, cardiac arrhythmias, and seizures, which can ultimately result in death due to cardiovascular collapse.
Diagnosis of TCA overdose is typically made based on clinical presentation, and classic ECG changes may be observed, such as sinus tachycardia progressing to wide complex tachycardia and ventricular arrhythmias as the severity of intoxication increases. Treatment involves correcting acidosis, hypoxia, and electrolyte imbalances, as well as administering hypertonic sodium bicarbonate to improve conduction abnormalities and hypotension. Anti-arrhythmic drugs should generally be avoided, and benzodiazepines are the preferred treatment for seizures.
Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.
Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that it may be caused by a sexually transmitted infection, but her recent sexual health screening came back negative for syphilis, HIV, Chlamydia, and Gonorrhoea. Her urine test shows ketones and glucose. A random glucose test reveals a reading of 13. What is the most suitable medication for the ongoing treatment of this condition?
Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms of type 2 diabetes, with a random blood glucose level exceeding 11.1 and experiencing related symptoms. As per protocol, the first line of treatment for type 2 diabetes is metformin, which should be prescribed to the patient. It is important to note that insulin is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, while gliclazide, pioglitazone, and glibenclamide are secondary medications used in the management of type 2 diabetes, but are not typically prescribed as first line treatments.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his colleagues 30 minutes after being hit in the head with a falling object at a construction site. He did not lose consciousness, has had no problems with memory before or after the injury, and has not had any seizures. Since the injury, he has vomited 3 times but does not currently feel nauseous. The patient has no past medical history. He is responsive to commands, is aware of his surroundings, and his eye movements are normal. There is no visible bruising or fluid discharge from the ear or nose. No delays in investigations are expected. What is the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Admit and arrange neurological observations
Correct Answer: Arrange CT head within 1 hour
Explanation:If a patient experiences more than one episode of vomiting following a head injury, it is necessary to arrange a CT head within one hour. This is because persistent vomiting can indicate the development of neurological complications, such as intracranial bleeds, which can initially present as vomiting. Although the patient in this scenario has a Glasgow coma score of 15 and no other neurological symptoms, the presence of multiple episodes of vomiting warrants urgent imaging. Admitting the patient and arranging neurological observations would not be appropriate unless there was equipment failure preventing the CT scan. Similarly, arranging a CT head within four or eight hours is not appropriate, as the recommended timeframe for imaging in cases of head injury is within one hour for patients with persistent vomiting.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are working in a busy emergency department. A 25-year-old male presents explaining that a few hours ago he broke up with his girlfriend and while having an argument took 20 of his mother's tablets. He is worried and says he is experiencing muffled hearing with bouts of ringing on both sides. Vital signs were all normal apart from a respiratory rate of 28 per minute.
An overdose of which medication is most likely?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Tinnitus could be an early indication of an aspirin overdose, as salicylate toxicity can cause respiratory alkalosis and subsequently metabolic acidosis within a few hours. The patient’s symptoms suggest the former, and the presence of tinnitus further supports this diagnosis.
Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.
It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with concerns about a mole on his leg. He has noticed over the past few months that it has increased in size. On examination, the mole is 7 mm in diameter and has an irregular border but is a consistent colour.
What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?
Your Answer: 2-week wait referral to dermatology
Explanation:Understanding Referral Guidelines for Suspicious Pigmented Lesions
When assessing pigmented lesions, the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the 7-point scoring system.
The 7-point checklist includes:
Major features (2 points each):
change in size
irregular shape or border
irregular colour.
Minor features (1 point each):
> 7 mm at greatest diameter
inflammation
oozing or crusting
change in sensation including itch.Lesions scoring 3 or more or with other suspicious features of melanoma should be referred urgently via the cancer fast-track pathway to dermatology.
For lesions with a low suspicion of melanoma, a photo should be taken with a ruler and the patient advised to return in eight weeks for review. However, lesions scoring 5 on the checklist, like those with a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, should be referred urgently to a dermatologist to avoid any delay in diagnosis and subsequent treatment.
Excision of lesions suspicious of melanoma should be avoided in primary care as this can delay treatment, and incomplete excision is more common. Routine referral to dermatology would be suitable for a pigmented lesion which scores less than 3 on the 7-point checklist if there are no other features to suggest melanoma. Referral to genetics is recommended if three or more family members have been diagnosed with melanoma.
It is important to understand these referral guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of suspicious pigmented lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman from Nigeria complains of fatigue, back pain and excessive thirst. Her ESR is elevated and she has normocytic/normochromic anemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Distinguishing Multiple Myeloma from Other Bone Diseases
Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is more common in black Africans and rare in Asians, with a median age of onset over 60. Patients may not show any symptoms and are often diagnosed through routine blood tests. However, they are more susceptible to infections and may have low white blood cell counts. Elevated levels of ESR and CRP are almost always present. Diagnosis is confirmed when two out of three of the following are present: paraproteinaemia or Bence Jones protein, radiological evidence of lytic bone lesions, and an increase in bone marrow plasma cells. Patients may experience bone pain, lethargy, thirst, and anaemia, which are all signs of multiple myeloma.
Calcium Pyrophosphate Arthropathy: Shedding of Crystals into Joints
Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy, also known as pseudogout, is caused by the shedding of calcium pyrophosphate crystals into the joint. It typically presents as an acute-onset monoarticular arthritis, usually in the knee or wrist. The joint will be hot, red, tender, and swollen. Rhomboid-shaped crystals that are weakly positively birefringent under polarised light will be visible in synovial fluid.
Osteoporosis: Fragility Fractures
Osteoporosis is characterised by fragility fractures, such as vertebral crush fractures, Colles fractures, and fractures of the proximal femur. It is uncommon in men at this age, unless associated with hypogonadism. Anaemia and elevated ESR are not seen in osteoporosis.
Osteoarthritis: Joint Pain and Stiffness
Osteoarthritis presents with joint pain, stiffness, and reduced function. The weight-bearing joints, such as the hip and knee, and the small joints of the hand are commonly affected. Patients do not experience symptoms such as thirst and lethargy, which are due to hypercalcaemia. Blood biochemistry is normal in osteoarthritis.
Paget’s Disease of Bone: Bone Remodelling
Paget’s disease of the bone is rare in individuals under 40 years old. It is characterised by bone pain, deformity, fragility fractures, and complications from nerve compression
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female complains of abdominal discomfort accompanied by alternating episodes of constipation and diarrhea. What symptom is the least indicative of irritable bowel syndrome?
Your Answer: Passage of mucous with stool
Correct Answer: Waking at night due to the pain
Explanation:It is not typical for irritable bowel syndrome to cause pain that disrupts a patient’s sleep.
Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS. According to these guidelines, a positive diagnosis of IBS should be considered if the patient has had abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. Additionally, a positive diagnosis should be made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucus. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.
It is important to note that red flag features should be enquired about, including rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage IBS in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl has a 2-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more difficult to stand from a sitting position at home and climb stairs at school. She had measles when she was 3-years-old and received all her childhood immunisations as normal. Apparently, her maternal grandmother suffered from a similar condition but died in a car accident at the age of 28. On examination, the girl is of normal height and appearance. Cranial nerves and higher mental function are normal. She has normal tone and reflexes in her limbs, with weakness proximally in her arms and legs. On repeated stimulation, there is no change. Cranial nerve and sensory examinations are entirely normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy (LGMD)
Correct Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from Becker’s muscular dystrophy, a milder form of the condition compared to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). Both conditions are caused by mutations in the DMD gene, but Becker’s tends to present later in childhood or adolescence with slower progression of symptoms. The patient’s normal childhood development followed by slow onset of proximal weakness fits the typical picture of Becker’s. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy (LGMD) is a possibility, but less likely given the patient’s presentation. DMD is unlikely as it typically presents in early childhood with rapid progression of symptoms. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is characterized by weakness and wasting of the face, scapula, and upper arms, and would not typically present with gait disturbance or lower limb weakness in childhood. Myasthenia gravis is also unlikely given the patient’s history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient presents to her GP with worries regarding her medication. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus 2 years ago and is currently on azathioprine 120mg/day, divided into doses. She recently took a home pregnancy test which came back positive. What is the most appropriate approach to managing her medication?
Your Answer: Stop azathioprine and start infliximab
Correct Answer: Continue azathioprine
Explanation:It is safe to continue using azathioprine during pregnancy, even if on an established dose. Discontinuing or reducing the medication could lead to disease progression and serious health risks for the patient. Therefore, the dose of azathioprine should not be lowered. Switching to corticosteroids would not be appropriate as the patient is already on a safe medication. Infliximab should only be used if necessary during pregnancy, so continuing with azathioprine is a better option. Methotrexate should never be used during pregnancy as it is known to be teratogenic.
Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to you with right wrist discomfort three weeks after falling off his bike and landing on his outstretched hand. He went to the emergency department on the same day and had wrist x-rays, which were reported as normal. He was given pain relief and discharged without any follow-up.
Currently, he is experiencing persistent pain that has not improved. On examination, the wrist appears normal, with no significant swelling or redness. The wrist's range of motion is slightly limited, likely due to pain. He is tender over the anatomical snuff box. What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer to hospital for urgent orthopaedic/emergency department review
Explanation:The presentation and examination strongly suggest a scaphoid fracture, making conservative treatment with splinting, pain relief, and physiotherapy unsuitable due to the risk of avascular necrosis caused by the scaphoid bone’s blood supply. While an outpatient x-ray is an option, some scaphoid fractures may not be visible on x-rays and may require a CT scan or MRI. As a result, the patient should be referred to an orthopaedic clinic, either directly or through the local emergency department.
Anatomy of the Scaphoid Bone
The scaphoid bone is a small bone located in the wrist. It has several important features that allow it to articulate with other bones in the wrist and hand. The bone has a concave surface that articulates with the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface that corresponds with the lunate. Proximally, it has a wide convex surface that articulates with the radius. Distally, it has a tubercle that can be felt and an articular surface that faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones.
The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum, which is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis. It is important to understand the anatomy of the scaphoid bone in order to properly diagnose and treat injuries to the wrist and hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is commonly linked to this condition?
Your Answer: Sulfa drugs
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.
The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old patient presents to you with a query about discontinuing her alendronic acid medication. She has been taking it for six years since she suffered a distal radial fracture after tripping over an uneven kerb. She has not experienced any other fractures before or after this incident. Her DEXA scan six years ago revealed a T-score of -2.4. The patient has no significant medical history and has not had any recent falls. She is a non-smoker. What would be the appropriate course of action to discuss with the patient?
Your Answer: Stop the bisphosphonate for three years and repeat a DEXA scan at this point to decide on further treatment
Correct Answer: Repeat DEXA scan and FRAX score now and stop the bisphosphonate if low risk, T score is now >-2.5, and review in two years
Explanation:The topic of bisphosphonate holidays has gained attention due to recent evidence from the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG) in January 2016. The guidance recommends that after a five-year period of taking oral bisphosphonates (or three years for IV zoledronate), patients should undergo a re-assessment of their treatment. This includes an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan to determine if ongoing treatment is necessary.
Patients are divided into high and low-risk groups based on certain criteria. To be considered high-risk, patients must meet one of the following criteria: age over 75, receiving glucocorticoid therapy, previous hip/vertebral fractures, further fractures while on treatment, high-risk FRAX score, or a T score of less than -2.5 after treatment. If any of these criteria apply, treatment should be continued indefinitely or until the criteria no longer apply.
For patients in the low-risk group, treatment may be discontinued and re-assessed after two years or if a further fracture occurs. In the case of a patient without high-risk factors, a recent DEXA scan should be conducted to determine if a two-year break from treatment is appropriate, provided their T score is greater than -2.5.
Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Correct
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Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes a spirometry evaluation with the following findings: a decrease in forced vital capacity (FVC), an increase in the forced expiratory volume in one second to forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1:FVC ratio), and a decrease in the transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO), indicating impaired gas exchange. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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