-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 42-year-old woman presents with a potassium reading of 2.9 mmol/L. As there is no obvious cause, you schedule an in-depth assessment. During the history-taking, you discover that she experiences strong urges to consume large amounts of food and frequently engages in binge eating. She also admits to using laxatives but denies inducing vomiting. These episodes occur approximately three times per week, and her body mass index is 19.5 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Diagnosis and Explanation of Bulimia Nervosa
The case history presented suggests that the patient is suffering from bulimia nervosa. This disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging or the use of laxatives. While anorexia is more common in teenagers, bulimia is often seen in older patients, typically in their 20s or beyond.
The patient’s urges to eat large amounts of food, frequent use of laxatives, and low potassium levels are all indicative of bulimia nervosa. It is important to note that this behavior is not a normal variant and requires medical attention. While the patient is only marginally underweight, a BMI of 20 kg/m2 is considered the lower limit of normal.
It is unlikely that the patient is experiencing refeeding syndrome, which is a rare condition typically associated with parenteral nutrition in a hospital setting. Enteral nutrition may also lead to refeeding syndrome after a prolonged period of starvation. However, this is not the case for the patient in question. Overall, a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa is the most appropriate for this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 28 year old woman with no pre-existing medical conditions comes to you after discovering she is expecting. During your discussion about pregnancy supplements, she inquires if she can simply continue taking her regular over-the-counter multivitamin tablet. Can you inform her which vitamin, when consumed in excessive amounts, can be harmful to the developing fetus?
Your Answer: Vitamin A
Explanation:To prevent birth defects, pregnant women should not consume more than 10,000IU of vitamin A per day as it can be harmful in high doses. It is recommended that they avoid taking any supplements that contain vitamin A, including regular multivitamins, during pregnancy. In the UK, supplements are now restricted to a maximum of 6,000IU of vitamin A, so if a pregnant woman has been taking one, there is no need to worry. Additionally, liver should be avoided as it contains high levels of vitamin A.
Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is a type of fat soluble vitamin that plays several important roles in the body. One of its key functions is being converted into retinal, which is a crucial visual pigment. Additionally, vitamin A is essential for proper epithelial cell differentiation and acts as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage.
When the body lacks sufficient vitamin A, it can lead to a condition known as night blindness. This is because retinal is necessary for the eyes to adjust to low light conditions, and a deficiency can impair this process. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 60-year-old man is terminally ill with carcinoma of the pancreas. He has abdominal and back pain and his analgesic combination of full doses of paracetamol and codeine is no longer controlling this.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?Your Answer: Morphine
Explanation:Choosing the Right Pain Medication: A Guide to Opioids and Adjuvants
When it comes to managing pain, healthcare professionals often follow the World Health Organization’s analgesic ladder. This involves starting with non-opioid medications, such as paracetamol, and weak opioids, such as codeine, before moving on to stronger opioids like morphine if necessary.
In cases where bone pain or soft tissue infiltration is present, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen can be added as an adjuvant at any step in pain management. However, it is important to note that these adjuvants are unlikely to be a substitute for stronger opioids like morphine.
Dihydrocodeine and tramadol are both weak opioids and are therefore unlikely to provide significant pain relief in cases where stronger medication is needed. Amitriptyline, on the other hand, is an adjuvant typically used for neuropathic pain and is unlikely to be effective in this scenario.
For patients who require a strong opioid but are unable to take oral medication, fentanyl may be prescribed as a transdermal patch. Ultimately, the choice of pain medication and adjuvants will depend on the individual patient’s needs and the severity of their pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman requests reduction mammoplasty because she is convinced her breasts are grossly large and misshapen. She dresses in elaborate clothing to hide her shape and, although she swims well, has stopped going to the pool. Physical examination reveals breasts well within the normal range of size and shape.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation:Understanding Body Dysmorphic Disorder: Differentiating it from Other Mental Health Conditions
Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) is a mental health condition characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance or excessive concern with a slight physical anomaly. To diagnose BDD, the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5) criteria should be followed. It is important to differentiate BDD from other mental health conditions such as agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and schizoaffective disorder. By understanding the unique features of BDD, proper diagnosis and treatment can be provided to those who are affected by this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about strawberry birthmarks is not true?
Your Answer: Typically they increase in size for around 6-9 months before slowly regressing
Correct Answer: Only 50% resolve before 10 years of age
Explanation:Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.
Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old insulin-treated diabetic patient is seeking guidance on blood glucose monitoring before embarking on a 300-mile road trip for an upcoming vacation. Assuming no symptoms or signs of hypoglycemia or increased risk, what advice would you offer?
Your Answer: Test blood glucose before leaving and at any point if symptoms of hypoglycaemia appear
Correct Answer: Test blood glucose within 2 hours of starting and every two hours thereafter
Explanation:DVLA Guidelines for Drivers with Diabetes
The DVLA has issued guidelines for drivers with diabetes to ensure their safety while driving. According to the guidelines, drivers with diabetes should be cautious to avoid hypoglycemia and should be aware of the warning signs and necessary actions to take. For those who are treated with insulin, it is recommended to always carry a glucose meter and blood-glucose strips while driving. Additionally, they should check their blood-glucose concentration no more than 2 hours before driving and every 2 hours while driving. If there is a higher risk of hypoglycemia due to physical activity or altered meal routine, more frequent self-monitoring may be required. These guidelines are crucial for the safety of both the driver and other individuals on the road.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
You are reviewing a 16-year-old girl with a diagnosis of mild depression. She has no past or current history of self harm or suicidal thoughts. She was initially seen six weeks ago and is being reviewed today for the second time over this period.
You discuss her symptoms and things are unchanged from when she was last seen four weeks ago with persistence of the mild depression. She tells you that she cannot see herself improving and is keen to engage with any help that may be appropriate.
What is the most appropriate approach in this instance?Your Answer: Consider starting fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Offer psychological therapy in the form of individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive therapy behavioural therapy, or guided self-help
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Depression in Children and Young People
NICE has released guidance on how to manage depression in children and young people. For those presenting with mild depression, a ‘watchful waiting’ approach should be taken, with a further assessment arranged two weeks later. If the depression persists after up to four weeks of watchful waiting, psychological therapies such as individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help can be offered for a limited period of around two to three months. Antidepressant medication should not be used at this stage. If the mild depression remains unresponsive to psychological therapies after two to three months, referral to tier 2-3 CAMHS can be made for further assessment and management. This guidance aims to provide a structured approach to managing depression in children and young people, ensuring that appropriate interventions are offered at the right time.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old male presents to the GP with persistent difficulty in leaving his home without performing a cleaning ritual that takes over 3 hours to finish. He has an intense fear that if he doesn't complete the process, his family will be harmed. The patient is currently undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Persist with CBT
Correct Answer: Prescribe sertraline
Explanation:Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is the likely diagnosis for this patient, who is exhibiting symptoms of fear of harming her children and compulsive cleaning. The first-line treatment for OCD is cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) or exposure and response prevention. However, since the patient has not responded to CBT and is still experiencing intrusive symptoms, it would be appropriate to prescribe an SSRI, such as sertraline.
Continuing with CBT alone would not be appropriate for this patient, given her ongoing and intrusive symptoms. Therefore, the most suitable course of action is to add an SSRI to her treatment plan.
Benzodiazepines are not recommended for this patient, as they have a high potential for addiction and are typically used for acute relief of panic attacks. The patient is not displaying any overt anxiety symptoms that would warrant a prescription of benzodiazepines.
Zopiclone may be prescribed for severe sleeping difficulties, but it is not indicated for this patient, who is not experiencing any acute issues with sleeping.
Since the patient has not responded to CBT, it is appropriate to add an SSRI rather than referring her for exposure and response prevention.
Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.
Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.
The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.
ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
You see a 14-year-old boy with his father. He is normally completely fit and well and extremely active. He is a keen soccer player and also enjoys running. He noticed a lump behind his left knee one week ago, it seemed to come on suddenly. He can't remember ever injuring his knee. It is not painful but his knee does feel 'tight'.
On examination, he has a round, soft fluctuant mass behind his left knee in the medial popliteal fossa. It is approximately the size of a baseball. The swelling feels tense in full knee extension and soften again or disappear when the knee is flexed. Flexion is slightly reduced.
What is the most likely diagnosis here?Your Answer: Baker's cyst
Explanation:If a child has a soft, painless swelling behind their knee that comes and goes, the most probable diagnosis is a Baker’s cyst. An anterior cruciate ligament tear usually occurs after a twisting injury, is painful, and doesn’t typically present with a lump in the popliteal fossa. A popliteal artery aneurysm would be pulsatile and uncommon in children. A rhabdomyosarcoma is unlikely to be painless and fluctuant, and the child may have other symptoms of systemic disease.
Baker’s cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are not true cysts but rather a distension of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa. They can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Baker’s cysts are not associated with any underlying pathology and are typically seen in children. On the other hand, secondary Baker’s cysts are caused by an underlying condition such as osteoarthritis and are typically seen in adults. These cysts present as swellings in the popliteal fossa behind the knee.
In some cases, Baker’s cysts may rupture, resulting in symptoms similar to those of a deep vein thrombosis, such as pain, redness, and swelling in the calf. However, most ruptures are asymptomatic. In children, Baker’s cysts usually resolve on their own and do not require any treatment. In adults, the underlying cause of the cyst should be treated where appropriate. Overall, Baker’s cysts are a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A study examines the effectiveness of bisphosphonates in managing pain caused by bone metastases in a group of 120 patients. Among them, 40 patients were treated with conventional therapy involving NSAIDs and radiotherapy, while the remaining 80 patients received bisphosphonates. Out of these 80 patients, 40 experienced considerable pain relief. What are the odds of a patient with bone metastases receiving significant pain relief from bisphosphonates?
Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:Out of the 80 patients who were given bisphosphonates, 40 experienced significant pain relief. This means that the remaining 40 patients did not experience significant pain relief. The odds of experiencing significant pain relief after taking bisphosphonates in this group of patients is 1:1.
Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio
When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.
In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.
For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.
Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man presented with bloody discolouration of his urine over the past few days, following a recent respiratory tract infection. Urine testing confirmed haematuria and proteinuria, which had also been noted on two previous occasions after respiratory tract infections. He was referred for renal opinion and a biopsy revealed a focal proliferative glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Goodpasture syndrome
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy is a common type of glomerulonephritis that is characterized by the presence of mesangial IgA deposits. This condition is often triggered by an abnormal immune response to viral or other antigens, resulting in the formation of macromolecular aggregates that accumulate in the glomerular mesangium. IgA nephropathy typically presents with macroscopic hematuria and may be associated with upper respiratory or other infections. It is more common in men and tends to affect children over 10 years of age and young adults. Treatment may involve high-dose prednisolone or immunosuppressive drugs, but some patients may eventually develop end-stage renal failure.
Goodpasture’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease that can cause diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage, glomerulonephritis, acute kidney injury, and chronic kidney disease. With aggressive treatment, the prognosis has improved, with a one-year survival rate of 70-90%.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that shares similarities with IgA nephropathy and may be a variant of the same disease. About 20% of patients with IgA nephropathy develop impaired renal function, and 5% develop end-stage renal failure.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults and may present as nephritic syndrome or hypertension. It is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and may be idiopathic or due to systemic lupus erythematosus, hepatitis B, malignancy, or the use of certain medications. About 30-50% of patients with membranous glomerulonephritis progress to end-stage kidney disease.
Minimal change nephropathy is responsible for most cases of nephrotic syndrome in children under 5 years of age and can also occur in adults. It is called minimal change because the only detectable abnormality is fusion and deformity of the foot processes under the electron microscope. Prognosis is generally good for the majority of patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Mrs. Johnson, a 62-year-old woman, visits you to discuss cancer screening. She is concerned about the possibility of having a 'hidden' cancer after her friend was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at an advanced stage. Mrs. Johnson is up to date with her breast and cervical screening but did not send off her bowel cancer screening kit last year. She asks if she can have a blood test for ovarian cancer like her friend. Upon inquiry, she reports no weight loss, pelvic pain, bloating, urinary symptoms, or change in bowel habit. You perform an abdominal palpation and find no masses or ascites.
What would be your next course of action?Your Answer: Advise the blood test is not suitable for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic patients
Explanation:Screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women should not be done using Ca-125 due to its poor sensitivity and specificity. Even when used in symptomatic patients, there is a high false negative rate, so an ultrasound scan should be considered if symptoms persist. CEA is a tumour marker for colorectal cancer, but it is not recommended for screening and is only used to monitor disease activity. Ultrasound is also not advised for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic patients. Private whole-body scans for the worried well are available, but they carry the risk of incidental findings, and CT scans have a significant radiation risk.
Understanding Ovarian Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management
Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects women, with the peak age of incidence being 60 years. It is the fifth most common malignancy in females and carries a poor prognosis due to late diagnosis. Around 90% of ovarian cancers are epithelial in origin, with 70-80% of cases being due to serous carcinomas. Interestingly, recent studies suggest that the distal end of the fallopian tube is often the site of origin of many ‘ovarian’ cancers.
There are several risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, including a family history of mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity. Clinical features of ovarian cancer are notoriously vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms, early satiety, and diarrhea.
To diagnose ovarian cancer, a CA125 test is usually done initially. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 should not be used for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women. Diagnosis is difficult and usually involves diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer usually involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. The prognosis for ovarian cancer is poor, with 80% of women having advanced disease at presentation and the all stage 5-year survival being 46%. It is traditionally taught that infertility treatment increases the risk of ovarian cancer, as it increases the number of ovulations. However, recent evidence suggests that there is not a significant link. The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk (fewer ovulations) as does having many pregnancies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
What is an accurate statement about Pertussis Infection in children?
Your Answer: It is invariably associated with an inspiratory whoop
Correct Answer: It is infectious for at least 2 months after the termination of the coughing
Explanation:Pertussis: Diagnosis and Symptoms
Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is most contagious during the first 7-14 days of the illness, which is called the catarrhal phase. During this phase, there is an increase in lymphocytes in the blood. Diagnosis of pertussis can be made by taking blood for pertussis serology or by isolating the organism from nasal secretions. It is important to note that an inspiratory whoop may not always be present, but complete apnoeic episodes can occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman comes to discuss contraception with you.
She had previously been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She is considering long-acting reversible contraception and would like some further information regarding the risk of uterine perforation with an intrauterine device.
Which of the following is an important risk factor for uterine perforation?Your Answer: Insertion if the woman suffers with menorrhagia
Correct Answer: Insertion during lactation
Explanation:Risk Factors for Uterine Perforation with Intrauterine Contraception
The rate of uterine perforation associated with intrauterine contraception (IUC) is up to 2 per 1000 insertions, with a higher risk in breastfeeding women. According to a recent drug safety update from the medicines and healthcare products regulatory agency, the most significant risk factors for uterine perforation during IUC are insertion during lactation and insertion within 36 weeks after giving birth. Women should be informed of the risks and symptoms to recognize. Age is not a risk factor for uterine perforation. Intrauterine contraception can be inserted at any time during the menstrual cycle if it is reasonably certain that the woman is not pregnant. The Mirena intrauterine system is used to manage menorrhagia, while the copper coil can cause heavy vaginal bleeding, but menorrhagia itself is not a reported risk factor for perforation on insertion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 48-year-old woman who has had systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for a number of years complains of facial swelling, which she thinks might be due to a food allergy. On examination, she has facial oedema, raised blood pressure at 170/100 mmHg and although she can only produce a small amount of urine, dipstick testing is strongly positive for blood and protein.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Understanding Nephritis, Angioedema, Chronic Liver Disease, and Hypertensive Emergencies
Nephritis is a condition that causes haematuria, oliguria, proteinuria, facial oedema, and hypertension. It can be caused by various factors, but it is a common complication of SLE, affecting 30-55% of patients. Hypertension is a poor prognostic sign in these patients.
Angioedema, on the other hand, causes facial swelling due to an allergic reaction and is not typically associated with renal abnormalities. Urinary tract infections do not usually cause heavy proteinuria and facial swelling. Chronic liver disease can cause hypoalbuminaemia, but it doesn’t typically cause renal abnormalities on its own.
Hypertensive emergencies include accelerated hypertension and malignant hypertension. Both conditions result in target organ damage due to a recent increase in blood pressure to very high levels (usually ≥180 mm Hg systolic and ≥110 mm Hg diastolic). This damage is usually seen as neurological (e.g., encephalopathy), cardiovascular, or renal damage. In malignant hypertension, papilloedema is present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She visits surgery with worries about reduced fetal movement. You decide to refer her to the maternal health unit.
What would be the most suitable initial investigation to perform?Your Answer: Counting fetal movements
Correct Answer: Handheld Doppler for fetal heartbeat
Explanation:When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements, it is important to investigate the cause as it can indicate a risk of stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. The first step in this investigation should be to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the presence of a fetal heartbeat.
If a fetal heartbeat is detected with the handheld Doppler and the pregnancy is over 28 weeks gestation, a CTG should be used to monitor the fetal heart rate for at least 20 minutes to assess for any fetal compromise.
The guidelines recommend assessing fetal movements based on the subjective perception of the mother. If a mother reports reduced fetal movements, there is no need for further counting of fetal movements.
If no fetal heartbeat is detected with the handheld Doppler, an immediate ultrasound should be offered. If there is still concern about reduced fetal movements despite a normal CTG, an urgent ultrasound can be used to assess abdominal circumference or estimated fetal weight and amniotic fluid volume measurement, rather than ultrasound with Doppler.
Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a cause for concern as they can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that there may also be a link between reduced fetal movements and placental insufficiency. Fetal movements usually start between 18-20 weeks gestation and increase until 32 weeks gestation, after which the frequency of movement tends to plateau. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner, from 16-18 weeks gestation. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy.
There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but the RCOG considers less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) an indication for further assessment. Reduced fetal movements are a fairly common presentation, affecting up to 15% of pregnancies. Risk factors for reduced fetal movements include posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size.
Investigations for reduced fetal movements are dependent on gestation at onset. If past 28 weeks gestation, handheld Doppler should be used to confirm fetal heartbeat. If no fetal heartbeat is detectable, immediate ultrasound should be offered. If fetal heartbeat is present, CTG should be used for at least 20 minutes to monitor fetal heart rate which can assist in excluding fetal compromise. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used. If between 24 and 28 weeks gestation, a handheld Doppler should be used to confirm the presence of fetal heartbeat. If below 24 weeks gestation, and fetal movements have previously been felt, a handheld Doppler should be used. If fetal movements have not yet been felt by 24 weeks, onward referral should be made to a maternal fetal medicine unit.
While reduced fetal movements can be a cause for concern, in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Therefore, it is important for expectant mothers to be aware of their baby’s movements and seek medical attention if they notice a decrease in fetal movements.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 49-year-old teacher comes to the clinic complaining of cough and pleuritic chest pain that has been going on for 4 days. The patient has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, the patient's temperature is 38.1ºC, blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and pulse is 80/min. Upon auscultation of the chest, bronchial breathing is heard in the right base and the same area is dull to percussion. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Oral amoxicillin
Explanation:Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
The mother of a 6-year-old girl contacts you for a prescription. During the night, the child had complained of an itchy bottom, and upon inspection, the parents found a few live tiny white worms near the anus. What advice should you give regarding household contacts?
Advice: It is important to treat all household contacts, including parents and siblings, as they may also be infected with the same type of worm. They should also practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and keeping fingernails short, to prevent the spread of infection. Additionally, it may be helpful to wash all bedding, towels, and clothing in hot water to eliminate any remaining eggs or larvae.Your Answer: Treat all household contacts with oral mebendazole
Explanation:If a patient is diagnosed with threadworms, also known as pinworms, it is recommended that all household contacts receive treatment, even if they do not exhibit any symptoms. Mebendazole should be taken by all family members on the same day, except for pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 2 years old. Strict hygiene measures are advised for these exceptions to disrupt the life cycle of the worms. The adhesive tape test is preferred over a stool sample for lab testing confirmation, but in this case, it is not necessary as all household contacts should be treated. Permethrin is a topical insecticide used for treating scabies.
Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK
Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.
Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A father brings his 3-month-old daughter into the clinic for her first round of vaccinations. He expresses concerns about the safety of the rotavirus vaccine. Can you provide him with information about this vaccine?
Your Answer: It is an oral, live attenuated vaccine
Explanation:The vaccine for rotavirus is administered orally and is live attenuated. It is given to infants at two and three months of age, along with other oral vaccines like polio and typhoid. Two doses are necessary, and it is not typically given to children at three years of age. This vaccine is not injected and is not an inactivated toxin vaccine, which includes vaccines for tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis.
The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Mortality
Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. The vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.
The vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%, and is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70%. Additionally, the vaccine provides long-term protection against rotavirus. The introduction of the rotavirus vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood mortality and reducing the burden of rotavirus-related illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old woman has been recently diagnosed with chronic open-angle glaucoma. The Ophthalmologist also comments that she has mild bilateral cataracts. When light from a pen torch is shone into the left eye, both pupils constrict. When the torch is moved to the right eye, both pupils appear to be more dilated.
Which of the following most correctly identifies the significance of this finding?Your Answer: The patient also has neurosyphilis
Correct Answer: There is already optic nerve damage in the right eye
Explanation:Understanding the Afferent Pupillary Defect in Glaucoma
The afferent pupillary defect is a key diagnostic tool in glaucoma. It refers to differences in the afferent pathway between the two eyes, indicating retinal or optic nerve disease. This defect can be detected even if visual field testing is not positive, making it a valuable tool in diagnosing glaucoma.
Contrary to popular belief, the presence of neurosyphilis doesn’t necessarily indicate an afferent pupillary defect. Instead, the Argyll Robertson pupils, which are small, irregular pupils that constrict during accommodation but not in response to light, are a hallmark of neurosyphilis.
It is also important to note that the density of a cataract or intraocular pressure doesn’t affect the presence of an afferent pupillary defect. Even with a dense cataract or corneal scar, a positive test can still be obtained as long as the retina and optic nerve are healthy.
Finally, while miotic drugs like pilocarpine can be used to treat glaucoma, they do not cause an afferent pupillary defect. This defect is a result of underlying retinal or optic nerve disease and should be carefully evaluated by a healthcare professional.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding iron deficiency anaemia is inaccurate?
Your Answer: The most common cause is dietary
Correct Answer: The prevalence is around 2%
Explanation:Iron Deficiency Anaemia in Children: Causes and Prevention
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common nutritional disorder among children, affecting approximately 10% of children in the UK. The prevalence of this condition is higher in children of Asian, Afro-Caribbean, and Chinese descent. The causes of iron deficiency anaemia in children are multifactorial, including socioeconomic factors, unmodified cow’s milk, and ethnic origin. Iron supplemented milk formulas may be more expensive, making it difficult for some families to afford. Unmodified cow’s milk is a poor source of iron due to its form, which is not easily absorbed. Therefore, it is recommended to introduce cow’s milk after one year of age. Additionally, some ethnic groups, such as Asian mothers, may introduce solids later, which can contribute to iron deficiency anaemia.
Prevention of iron deficiency anaemia in children can be achieved through various measures. These include supplementary iron in milk, dietary education, and free formulas for at-risk infants. While breast milk is relatively low in iron, it is present in a form that is easily absorbed. Therefore, breastfeeding is recommended as the primary source of nutrition for infants. By understanding the causes and implementing preventative measures, iron deficiency anaemia in children can be reduced.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe headache on the right side of his head that has been ongoing for the past hour. He also reports excessive watering of his right eye and a blocked nose.
Over the past two weeks, he has experienced five similar episodes, each lasting around two hours. He has been feeling well in between each episode. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day.
During the examination, he appears restless and agitated, making it difficult to perform a neurological assessment. However, you observe that his right pupil is more constricted than the left, and his blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg. He is apyrexial.
Apart from referring him to a neurologist for a confirmed diagnosis, what immediate treatment options are available to alleviate his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous sumatriptan
Explanation:This individual is displaying classic symptoms of a cluster headache, including severe unilateral headache lasting between 15-180 minutes, accompanied by lacrimation, nasal congestion, and miosis on the same side.
Subcutaneous triptans are an effective treatment for managing acute bouts of cluster headache. While intranasal triptans can also provide rapid relief, subcutaneous use has been shown to be more effective.
There is no evidence to support the use of opioids, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, paracetamol, or oral triptans in this situation, and they should not be used.
Short-burst oxygen therapy can also be used for rapid relief, but the individual’s current smoking status would make the use of home oxygen unsafe.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes, moderate aortic stenosis, and stage 3b chronic kidney disease presents for hypertension management. His blood pressure in the clinic is 150/90 mmHg, and he has been recording an average of 155/84 mmHg for the past month. He has previously refused antihypertensive medication due to concerns about dizziness and falls. What is the appropriate initial antihypertensive to consider in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium channel blocker
Explanation:Due to the patient’s moderate-severe aortic stenosis, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated and a calcium channel blocker should be prescribed as the first-line treatment for hypertension. Alpha-blockers may be considered later in the treatment algorithm if necessary, typically at step 4 of the guidelines when potassium levels are high. While ACE inhibitors are typically recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes to protect the kidneys, they should not be used in this patient due to their aortic stenosis. Beta-blockers are not the first-line treatment for hypertension and are better suited for heart failure and post-myocardial infarction. They may be considered later in the treatment algorithm if needed, typically at step 4 when potassium levels are high.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of pain and swelling in her left lower leg. She denies any recent injury.
Upon examination, you observe that her left calf is swollen and red, measuring 3 cm larger in diameter than the right side. She experiences localised tenderness along the deep venous system.
Based on your clinical assessment, you suspect a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and order blood tests, which reveal a D-Dimer level of 900 ng/mL (< 400).
You initiate treatment with therapeutic doses of apixaban and schedule a proximal leg ultrasound for the next day.
However, the ultrasound doesn't detect any evidence of a proximal leg DVT.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop apixaban and repeat ultrasound in 7 days
Explanation:Most isolated calf DVTs do not require treatment and resolve on their own, but in some cases, the clot may extend into the proximal veins and require medical intervention.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old female attends the GP surgery to discuss treatment for the menopause.
Her last period was 14 months ago. She has been experiencing low mood, which has been attributed to the menopause, but there are no symptoms of overt depression. She has a past history of breast cancer, treated three years ago. She is currently taking Tamoxifen. She has no allergies. She would like treatment for her symptoms.
What is the most suitable course of action for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Hormone Therapy Contraindicated in Breast Cancer Patient
Hormone therapies are not an option for a woman with a history of breast cancer due to contraindications. This rules out all hormone therapy options. Additionally, fluoxetine, which inhibits the enzyme that converts tamoxifen to its active metabolite, should not be used in this case. This is because it reduces the amount of active drug that is released.
The most appropriate treatment option for low mood in the absence of depression is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). While it may not help with menopausal flashes, it is recommended by NICE and is the best choice from the list of options provided.
Overall, it is important to consider a patient’s medical history and any contraindications before prescribing any treatment options. In this case, hormone therapy and fluoxetine are not suitable, and CBT is the recommended course of action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man presents with hypogonadism and infertility. He had a normal puberty and there is no significant family history. On physical examination, he has gynaecomastia, small testes, and is tall. His sense of smell is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Syndromes and Their Characteristics
Klinefelter Syndrome: The Most Common Sex-Chromosome Abnormality
Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the addition of an extra X chromosome (XXY) due to non-disjunction. It is the most common sex-chromosome abnormality, affecting 1 in 600 male births. Men with Klinefelter syndrome tend to be tall and may have mild learning difficulties, although many have normal intellect. This syndrome is also the most common cause of male hypogonadism and infertility.
Fragile X Syndrome: A Learning Disability Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both sexes. In males, it is associated with macro-orchidism, but not hypogonadism or infertility. Females with Fragile X syndrome may experience premature ovarian failure. People with this syndrome have moderate-to-severe learning disabilities and average height.
Kallmann Syndrome: A Disorder Associated with Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism
Kallmann syndrome is a genetic disorder associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, where levels of luteinising hormone and follicular stimulating hormone are low. It has several inheritance patterns, including dominant, recessive, and X-linked. People with Kallmann syndrome fail to go through puberty and are usually infertile. They also have anosmia, but most have normal or above normal height.
Marfan Syndrome: A Disorder Associated with Tall Stature
Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that causes people to be tall and thin with long arms and legs compared to their trunk. It is not associated with hypogonadism or infertility, and intelligence is normal.
XYY Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder
XYY syndrome is a rare genetic disorder caused by the addition of an extra Y chromosome in males due to non-disjunction. Symptoms are few but may include being tall, having acne, and a risk of learning difficulty. It is not associated with hypogonadism or infertility.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 44-year-old marketing executive presents for the first time with symptoms of dyspepsia.
He is otherwise fit and well and takes no regular prescribed medication.
With reference to NICE guidance, which one of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full dose PPI for a month is an appropriate initial treatment
Explanation:Management of Dyspepsia in Patients Under 55 Years Old
Patients under the age of 55 who do not exhibit alarm symptoms should not be referred for upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Instead, raising the head of the bed may alleviate symptoms. Psychological therapies, such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), have been shown to provide short-term relief, but their routine provision by primary care teams is not currently recommended due to their costly and intensive nature. After a medication review, lifestyle advice, including promoting the continued use of antacids, should be given.
It is unclear whether to treat first with a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for a month or test for H. pylori. However, it is reasonable to start with a full dose PPI and only test for H. pylori if symptoms persist or return. By following these management strategies, patients under 55 years old with dyspepsia can receive appropriate care and symptom relief.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
You see a 6-year-old boy who you see for occasional bouts of abdominal pain. His appetite is good, and he opens his bowels regularly. There are no other symptoms reported, and examination is unremarkable. A urine dipstick is positive for leucocytes but negative otherwise.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action necessary
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for UTI Diagnosis in Children
According to NICE guidelines, children aged 3 years and above who test positive for leucocytes on a dipstick test but negative for nitrites should have a urine sample sent for MC&S. Antibiotic treatment should only be started if there is good clinical evidence of a UTI. Symptoms in verbal children may include frequency, dysuria, and changes in continence, while younger children may present with nonspecific symptoms such as fever, vomiting, and poor feeding.
If the dipstick test shows only nitrite positivity, antibiotic treatment should be initiated, and a urine sample should be sent for culture. However, if the dipstick test shows both nitrite and leucocyte positivity, a UTI is confirmed, and a culture should be sent if there is a risk of serious illness or a history of previous UTIs. These guidelines aim to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of UTIs in children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
At what age would a typical toddler develop the capability to squat down and retrieve a toy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 18 months
Explanation:Gross Motor Developmental Milestones
Gross motor developmental milestones refer to the physical abilities that a child acquires as they grow and develop. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s overall development and can help parents and healthcare professionals identify any potential delays or concerns. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.
At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a sitting position and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to crawl and pull themselves to a standing position. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. Finally, at 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.
It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. By monitoring a child’s gross motor developmental milestones, parents and healthcare professionals can ensure that they are meeting their developmental goals and identify any potential concerns early on.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents with a productive cough with yellow sputum. On auscultation of the chest, crackles can be heard in the right lower zone. He is on atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention of cardiovascular events. He is allergic to penicillin; therefore, a course of clarithromycin is prescribed for his chest infection.
What is the most important information that needs to be provided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin
Explanation:Managing Atorvastatin and Clarithromycin Interaction
Explanation: When a patient is allergic to penicillin and requires treatment for a chest infection, clarithromycin may be prescribed. However, it is important to note that clarithromycin is a potent inhibitor of liver isoenzyme cytochrome P450 CYP3A4, which can affect the metabolism of drugs like atorvastatin. Here are some guidelines to manage the interaction between atorvastatin and clarithromycin:
1. Stop atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin to avoid potential toxic effects like rhabdomyolysis.
2. Simple linctus may help with cough, but stopping atorvastatin is the priority.
3. Continuing to take 20 mg atorvastatin while taking clarithromycin increases the risk of myopathy.
4. Report any muscle pain as it may be a sign of myopathy.
5. If concurrent use of atorvastatin and clarithromycin is necessary, prescribe the lowest dose of atorvastatin and monitor for symptoms of myopathy.By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can manage the interaction between atorvastatin and clarithromycin and ensure the safety of their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)