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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman is curious about maintaining a healthy diet. She currently weighs 106 Kg and stands at a height of 1.76m. What is her approximate body mass index (BMI) rounded to the nearest decimal point?
Your Answer: 34
Correct Answer: 28
Explanation:BMI Calculation and Interpretation
Body: Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight in kilograms by the square of the height in meters. For instance, if a person weighs 106 kilograms and is 1.76 meters tall, their BMI would be 34.22 kg/m2. This value falls within the obese range, indicating that the person may have an increased risk of developing health problems such as heart disease, diabetes, and high blood pressure. It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fatness and should be used in conjunction with other health indicators to assess an individual’s overall health status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a holiday company. He developed a moderately severe depressive illness 12 months ago, presenting with poor memory, poor concentration and suicidal thoughts. He has been off work since then.
He has responded well to a selective serotonin receptor inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant and feels that the medication doesn't impair him in any way. He feels ready to return to work.
What is the recommended duration of stability on medication for a patient with moderate depression before driving with a Group 2 licence?Your Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Driving with Anxiety and Depression: DVLA Guidelines
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with anxiety and depressive illnesses who wish to drive. If the illness is more than just mild, meaning it includes significant memory or concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts, the DVLA must be informed. However, if the person is well and stable for a period of six months, driving may be permitted. It is important to note that medication must not cause side effects that interfere with alertness or concentration. If the anxiety or depression is long-standing and maintained symptom-free on doses of psychotropic medication that do not impair, driving is usually permitted. In some cases, the DVLA may require psychiatric reports. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following results is atypical in a patient with antiphospholipid syndrome?
Your Answer: Livedo reticularis
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by arterial and venous thrombosis, miscarriage, and livedo reticularis. Additionally, thrombocytopenia is a common feature of this syndrome.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.
Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old perimenopausal woman presents to the clinic with a range of menopausal symptoms, including vaginal soreness, hot flashes, poor libido, and urinary issues. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and a family history of unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (her father). The patient is only interested in hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and refuses to consider other treatments like antidepressants. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Per vaginal estriol only
Correct Answer: Haematologist opinion with view to start transdermal HRT
Explanation:According to NICE, women who are at a high risk of developing VTE and are seeking HRT should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even if it is transdermal.
While there is no evidence to suggest that transdermal HRT preparations such as patches or gels increase the risk of VTE, it is recommended to seek specialist advice before starting treatment if there are any risk factors present.
For patients with a high risk of VTE, oral HRT, whether it is combined or oestrogen-only, would be risky. Although per vaginal oestrogen would be a safer option, it would only provide local relief and may not alleviate all of the patient’s symptoms.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.
Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.
In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?
Your Answer: It should be given to all 65-year-olds
Correct Answer: It is given subcutaneously
Explanation:Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male with stable angina complains of muscle aches and pains. He has been on simvastatin 40 mg daily, atenolol 50 mg daily, and aspirin 75 mg daily for two years. He was recently hospitalized for acute coronary syndrome and additional therapies were added. His CPK concentration is 820 IU/L (50-200). What is the most probable cause of his statin-related myopathy?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Omega-3 fatty acids
Explanation:Statin-Associated Myopathy and Drug Interactions
Statin-associated myopathy is a potential side effect that affects up to 5% of individuals taking statins. This condition can be exacerbated by the co-prescription of certain drugs, including calcium channel blockers, macrolide antibiotics, fibrates, amiodarone, and grapefruit juice. Even patients who tolerate statins well may experience myopathy or rhabdomyolysis when these agents are added to their treatment regimen.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential drug interactions and to monitor patients closely for signs of myopathy. Additionally, NICE guidance on Myocardial infarction: secondary prevention (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules to prevent another MI. By staying informed and following evidence-based guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of coarse hair on her lip, chin, chest and abdomen. She reports moderate menstrual irregularity and long periods of amenorrhoea. Upon examination, her body mass index is 40 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovary disease
Correct Answer: Familial hirsutism
Explanation:Understanding Hirsutism and its Common Causes
Hirsutism is a condition characterized by excessive hair growth in women, often in areas where hair is typically absent or minimal. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which accounts for 95% of cases. This condition is often accompanied by obesity and amenorrhea, which are indicative of insulin resistance.
Biochemically, patients with PCOS have a reversed luteinising hormone:follicle-stimulating hormone (LH:FSH) ratio and elevated androstenedione with a low sex-hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). It is important to rule out other potential causes of hirsutism, such as androgen-producing tumors of the adrenal gland or ovary, Cushing’s syndrome, or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
In summary, hirsutism is a common condition in women, with PCOS being the most common cause. Proper evaluation and diagnosis are crucial to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for advice after suffering a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) in which he experiences a left hemiparesis. He is found to have a right carotid bruit, and carotid stenosis is suspected.
What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?
Your Answer: Surgery reduces the risk of stroke if he has severe carotid stenosis
Explanation:Carotid Endarterectomy and Stenting for Severe Carotid Stenosis
Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure recommended by NICE for patients with moderate or severe carotid stenosis. It is most beneficial for those with severe stenosis, reducing the risk of stroke by up to 30% over three years. However, the presence of a carotid bruit alone is not enough to confirm or exclude significant stenosis or its severity.
Carotid endarterectomy is indicated for patients with recent stroke or transient ischaemic attack, but surgery should be carried out within seven days of symptom onset for maximum benefit. While stenting with an emboli protection device may be as effective as endarterectomy, there may be a higher risk of stroke initially post-procedure.
In addition to surgical intervention, the best medical management includes lowering blood pressure, treatment with statins, and antiplatelet therapy. It is important to start treatment as soon as possible to maximize the benefits of surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 39-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe, intermittent, daily, left-sided frontotemporal/orbital headache that has been bothering him for the past 6 weeks. The headache seems to occur at the same time every day and lasts for about an hour. The pain makes him feel nauseous, although he has not vomited. Interestingly, he also reports that his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation.
What is the best immediate treatment to administer?Your Answer: Oxygen (100%) + subcutaneous sumatriptan
Explanation:Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You see a 3-year-old girl who you suspect has asthma. She has a moderate response to an inhaled short-acting beta-2-agonist (SABA) but you are planning to trial an inhaled corticosteroid to see if her control can be improved.
How long should a trial of inhaled corticosteroid be for a child under three years of age with suspected asthma?Your Answer: 4 weeks
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Children Under Five with Suspected Asthma
For children under the age of five with suspected asthma, NICE recommends an eight week trial of a moderate dose of inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) if there are symptoms that clearly indicate the need for maintenance therapy. These symptoms include occurring three times a week or more, causing waking at night, or being uncontrolled with a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) alone.
After the eight week trial, the ICS treatment should be stopped and the child’s symptoms monitored. If the symptoms did not resolve during the trial period, an alternative diagnosis should be considered. If the symptoms resolved but reoccurred within four weeks of stopping the ICS treatment, the ICS should be restarted at a low dose as first-line maintenance therapy. If the symptoms resolved but reoccurred beyond four weeks after stopping the ICS treatment, another eight week trial of a moderate dose of ICS should be repeated.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure proper management of asthma in young children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A rapid urine screening test is developed to detect Chlamydia in individuals over the age of 50. A trial involving 200 men and women in this age group is performed comparing the new test to the existing NAAT techniques:
Chlamydia present Chlamydia absent
New test positive 20 3
New test negative 5 172
What is the negative predictive value of the new test?Your Answer: 172/192
Correct Answer: 172/177
Explanation:Negative predictive value = 172 / 177
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What statements are true about childhood immunisation?
Your Answer: Measles vaccination should not be given to a child with cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer: Postponement of 6 in 1 vaccination is advised in the presence of fever
Explanation:- Measles vaccination should not be given to a child with cystic fibrosis:
- False:
- Explanation: Children with cystic fibrosis should receive all routine vaccinations, including the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine. Cystic fibrosis does not contraindicate live vaccines like MMR unless the child is severely immunocompromised. In fact, it is crucial to protect these children from preventable infections due to their underlying lung disease.
- False:
- Children with a history of febrile convulsions should not be given polio vaccine:
- False:
- Explanation: A history of febrile convulsions is not a contraindication for receiving the polio vaccine. The polio vaccine is not associated with an increased risk of febrile seizures. The oral polio vaccine (OPV) has been replaced in many places by the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV), which is safer and does not cause the rare side effects associated with the live virus.
- False:
- A live attenuated vaccine should not be given to a child with asthma:
- False:
- Explanation: Asthma, in itself, is not a contraindication for live attenuated vaccines, such as MMR or the live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV). However, if the asthma is severe or poorly controlled, especially if the child is on high-dose systemic corticosteroids, consultation with a healthcare provider is advisable before administering live vaccines.
- False:
- Children with congenital heart disease should not be immunised against pertussis:
- False:
- Explanation: Children with congenital heart disease should receive all routine vaccinations, including the DTaP vaccine, which protects against pertussis. These children are at higher risk for severe complications from pertussis (whooping cough), making vaccination even more important.
- False:
- Postponement of 6 in 1 vaccination is advised in the presence of fever:
- True:
- Explanation: It is generally recommended to postpone vaccination if a child has a moderate or severe acute illness with or without fever. This is to ensure that any potential side effects of the vaccine are not confused with the symptoms of the illness and to prevent further stress on the child’s immune system. Mild illnesses, however, typically do not warrant delaying vaccination.
- True:
- Measles vaccination should not be given to a child with cystic fibrosis:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated by his supervisor, citing missed deadlines and a decline in the quality of his work. He disputes this and claims that his supervisor has always had a personal vendetta against him.
He has confided in his family and close friends, but despite their reassurances, he remains convinced that some of his colleagues were colluding with his supervisor to oust him.
During his mental health evaluation, he appears to be generally stable, except for his fixation on his supervisor and coworkers conspiring against him. His family reports that he is easily offended and tends to have a paranoid outlook.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder. She appears to be highly sensitive and holds grudges when insulted, while also questioning the loyalty of those around her and being hesitant to confide in others. Her family has also noted her tendency towards paranoia. Borderline personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizophrenia are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has been in India on a business trip. He developed diarrhoea while he was there and it has persisted for 10 days after his return. He has not vomited and doesn't have a raised temperature.
Select from the list the single most likely cause of his diarrhoea.Your Answer: Norovirus
Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:Identifying and Treating Giardia: Symptoms and Treatment
Giardia is a parasitic infection that should be suspected if symptoms of traveller’s diarrhoea persist for more than 10 days or if symptoms begin after returning home. Weight loss may also be present. However, if diarrhoea lasts for less than a week, it is likely caused by something else, such as norovirus. Vomiting is a common symptom of most diarrhoeal illnesses, except for shigella and giardia. Both Salmonella and Shigella infections may also cause high fever. Treatment for Giardia involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 12 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for three weeks with malaise, sweats, and anxiety.
On examination she is haemodynamically stable, and clinically euthyroid.
TFTs show the following:
Free T4 35 pmol/L (9-23)
Free T3 7.5 nmol/L (3.5-6)
TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5)
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Propylthiouracil 50 mg/tds
Correct Answer: Carbimazole 40 mg/day
Explanation:Postpartum Thyroiditis
The likely diagnosis for the patient is postpartum thyroiditis, which typically occurs within three months of delivery and is followed by a hypothyroid phase at three to six months. In one third of cases, there is spontaneous recovery, while the remaining two-thirds may experience a single-phase pattern or the reverse. Management of this condition involves symptomatic treatment using beta blockers to alleviate tremors or anxiety, and observation for the development of persistent hypo- or hyperthyroidism.
Graves’ disease is a less likely diagnosis due to the proximity to delivery and the absence of other signs such as Graves’ ophthalmopathy, goitre, and bruit. Hashitoxicosis is a possibility but less likely than Graves’. While carbimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU) are thyroid peroxidase inhibitors used in thyrotoxicosis, postpartum thyroiditis is usually transient, and symptomatic treatment with beta blockers is typically sufficient. Radioactive iodine is used in cases of thyrotoxicosis that have not responded to PTU or carbimazole. Lugol’s iodine is part of the treatment for a thyrotoxic storm, which is not the diagnosis in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You assess a 48-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. She was initiated on methotrexate three months ago and prednisolone was added to achieve quick symptom control. Currently, she is taking methotrexate 15mg once a week and prednisolone 10 mg once daily. However, she is encountering several adverse effects. What is the most probable side effect caused by prednisolone?
Your Answer: 'Tired all the time'
Correct Answer: 'My shoulder and leg muscles feel weak'
Explanation:Proximal myopathy is a frequent occurrence in individuals who use steroids for an extended period. It is possible that some of the other adverse effects are a result of either the ongoing rheumatoid disease or the use of methotrexate.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 17
Correct
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In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting with residents and quickly spreading to staff. Which organism is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Norovirus
Explanation:Norovirus Gastroenteritis: Symptoms, Incubation Period, and Prevention
Norovirus gastroenteritis, commonly known as winter vomiting disease, is a highly contagious illness that often occurs during the winter season. However, outbreaks can happen anytime and in various settings, including hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. The incubation period ranges from 12 to 48 hours, with symptoms such as fever, nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The disease is self-limiting and usually lasts between 12 and 60 hours. While it poses a risk to frail or immunocompromised individuals, strict hygiene measures can prevent the spread of the virus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the term for a drug that has its own effects but doesn't treat the condition it is prescribed for?
Your Answer: A placebo substitute
Correct Answer: An active placebo
Explanation:Understanding the Placebo Effect
The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.
It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.
The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.
Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 19
Correct
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You are conducting a review of your repeat prescribing system due to a recent complaint following a prescribing error involving a pediatric patient.
What are the recommended best practices for repeat prescribing in order to reduce the occurrence of prescribing or monitoring errors in pediatric patients?Your Answer: Request repeat prescriptions from any staff member by telephone
Explanation:Practice-wide Defences Against Prescribing Errors
A study conducted by GMC has identified several practice-wide defences against prescribing errors. These defences include strongly discouraging verbal repeat requests, performing face to face medication reviews, having blood tests one week before scheduled reviews, and updating records within 48 hours with hospital correspondence.
To prevent prescribing errors, it is important to discourage verbal repeat requests as they can lead to confusion and mistakes. Face to face medication reviews can also help identify any potential errors and ensure that the patient is receiving the correct medication. Having blood tests one week before scheduled reviews can help monitor the patient’s health and ensure that the medication is working effectively. Finally, updating records within 48 hours with hospital correspondence can help ensure that all healthcare providers are aware of any changes in the patient’s medication or health status.
By implementing these practice-wide defences, healthcare providers can help prevent prescribing errors and ensure that patients receive safe and effective care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 8-year-old girl presents generally unwell, with reduced volumes of smoky-coloured urine.
She had a sore throat two weeks previously. Immunisations up to date. There is no FH/SH of note.
On examination her temperature is 37.6°C. She looks quiet and unwell, with slight periorbital oedema. Respiratory rate 15/min, pulse 90/min, blood pressure is 130/100 mmHg. Her JVP is elevated and she has tenderness in both loins.
Urine dipstick show 3+ haematuria and 3+ proteinuria. Red cell casts are seen on urine microscopy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal stone
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection
Explanation:Understanding Nephritis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Nephritis, also known as acute nephritic syndrome, is a condition characterized by haematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, and oedema with elevated blood pressure. In most cases, the antecedent throat infection makes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis the most likely cause. While blood tests such as ASOT may be useful in confirming the diagnosis, the clinical picture is usually clear.
The severity of nephritis varies from transient asymptomatic haematuria to severe nephritis with acute renal and heart failure. Treatment is supportive, with close attention to fluid balance. Penicillin is often prescribed, but it may not influence the disease course or spread to family members. Fortunately, 95% of patients recover completely.
In some cases, uraemia may accompany oliguria, but the clinical and dipstick findings are usually enough for a presumptive diagnosis. In children, the prognosis is excellent, with complete recovery in the vast majority of cases. Fewer than 1% of children experience elevated creatinine levels 10-15 years after an episode.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of nephritis is crucial for managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The importance of comprehending the function of grief in palliative care lies in aiding patients and their caregivers in managing it. What is the typically acknowledged sequence of the phases of bereavement?
Your Answer: Depression, bargaining, denial, anger, acceptance
Correct Answer: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Explanation:Understanding the Five Stages of Grief: Insights from Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross
Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is known for her pioneering work in supporting and counseling individuals experiencing personal trauma, grief, and grieving, particularly in relation to death and dying. Her ideas, particularly the five stages of grief model, have been widely used to help people cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.
The first stage is denial, which involves a conscious or unconscious refusal to accept the reality of the situation. This can be a defense mechanism that some people use to cope with traumatic changes. However, denial can also hinder the healing process if it is not addressed.
The second stage is anger, which can manifest in different ways. People may direct their anger towards themselves or others, especially those close to them. It is important to understand that anger is a natural response to grief and to remain non-judgmental when dealing with someone who is upset.
The third stage is bargaining, which often involves attempting to make deals with a higher power or trying to negotiate a better outcome. However, this rarely provides a sustainable solution for grief.
The fourth stage is depression, which can include feelings of sadness, regret, fear, and uncertainty. It is a sign that the person is beginning to accept the reality of the situation.
The final stage is acceptance, which varies depending on the individual’s circumstances. It is an indication that the person has achieved some emotional detachment and objectivity. People who are dying may enter this stage long before their loved ones, and they must go through their own unique stages of grief.
While Kübler-Ross’s concepts were developed through extensive interviews with dying patients, some have criticized her one-size-fits-all approach as being too simplistic. Not everyone will experience all of these stages, and they may not occur in a specific order. Nonetheless, understanding these stages can provide valuable insights into the grieving process and help individuals cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You assess a 63-year-old man who has recently been released from a hospital in Hungary after experiencing a heart attack. He presents a copy of an echocardiogram report indicating that his left ventricular ejection fraction is 38%. During the examination, you note that his pulse is regular at 78 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 124/72 mmHg, and his chest is clear. He is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, and lisinopril. What would be the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication?
Your Answer: Add furosemide
Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol
Explanation:The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers. NICE guidelines suggest that all individuals with heart failure should be prescribed both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the surgery with tiredness and lethargy. She had read on the internet that people with tiredness can have coeliac disease and had seen one of your partners who arranged some blood tests. She has now come back for the results.
She has heavy, regular menstrual periods, but no other significant past medical or family history. Specifically there are no symptoms of irritable bowel, indigestion or diarrhoea.
On examination her BP is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 85 bpm and regular. She looks a little pale. Abdominal and PR examination normal. There are no other significant findings.
Investigations conducted by your colleague reveal:
Haemoglobin 90 g/L (115-165)
MCV 76 fL (80-96)
Ferritin 13 μg/L (15-300)
Anti-TTG antibodies negative
Urine dip negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Gluten free diet
Correct Answer: Trial of iron supplementation
Explanation:Management of Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that can present with symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. In a 28-year-old woman with normal menses and no signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, a trial of iron supplementation for three months is appropriate to establish whether ferritin levels increase and haemoglobin normalises. Although a negative anti-TTG test is possible in patients with selective IgA deficiency, the absence of bowel symptoms makes underlying coeliac disease unlikely.
If there are no other symptoms and signs, urgent referral to colorectal under the two-week wait is necessary for unexplained iron deficiency anaemia in a male with a Hb of <120 g/L or a non-menstruating female with a Hb of <100 g/L. Upper and lower GI endoscopy would only be considered if there is a failure of ferritin level and anaemia to respond to iron supplementation. Proper management of iron deficiency anaemia is crucial to prevent complications and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old Jewish woman visited her GP for breast cancer screening. She had no symptoms, and her breast examination was normal. She mentioned that her maternal aunt was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 43. What would be the best course of action for further investigation?
Your Answer: Advise that the screening programme starts at age 40 and she should already have received an invitation
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care for early screening
Explanation:If a patient has a family history of Jewish ancestry and breast cancer, they should be referred to secondary care. This is one of the criteria that require early referral, as listed below. However, the current presentation doesn’t require an urgent referral. Although the NHS Screening programme is being extended to begin at 47, this patient has valid reasons to be referred earlier.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 25
Correct
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You are visiting a local nursing home to see a new resident who is complaining of an itchy rash when you get an urgent call to see a 78-year-old lady who has collapsed in the dining room.
The relief staff at the home tell you that she is a diabetic and has had a stroke some years ago, but they do not know much else about her.
On examination, she is lying in the recovery position on the floor and her BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse 95 she is bathed in sweat and is unresponsive. She has adequate air entry on auscultation of the chest and there is no danger in the immediate vicinity. Trained nursing staff are at hand to help you with her management and take any further action.
What would be your first action in this situation?Your Answer: Check her finger prick glucose
Explanation:Managing Hypoglycaemia in Nursing Homes
Hypoglycaemia is a common occurrence in nursing homes and can lead to significant neurological impairment if not managed promptly. When a patient is suspected of having hypoglycaemia, the first step is to check their finger prick glucose level. This should be done after ensuring their airway, breathing, and circulation are stable.
Early intervention with a glucagon injection can prevent further complications. It is important to note that nursing home ‘strokes’ are a common cause of admissions to emergency departments. Therefore, prompt management of hypoglycaemia can potentially avoid such admissions.
If the patient is unconscious, they should be placed in the recovery position until medical help arrives. By following these steps, nursing home staff can effectively manage hypoglycaemia and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy who has been unwell over the preceding two months is brought in by his father.
The father tells you that recently the child has been overly tired and complaining of generalised aches and pains. He has been brought in today with a sore throat. Looking at his record he has been back and forth with recurrent episodes of sore throat.
On examination, the child looks pale and has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. You also note a few small petechiae on the child's abdomen.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Provide symptomatic advice and review in two weeks unless better
Correct Answer: Check a full blood count (FBC)
Explanation:Suspected Leukaemia in a Young Girl
This young girl is showing signs that suggest she may have leukaemia. Her lymphadenopathy, petechial rash, and recurrent unwellness, combined with her pale appearance, should raise concerns and prompt an urgent FBC.
Performing a urine dipstick test would not be appropriate as she doesn’t have any specific renal or urinary symptoms that suggest Henoch-Schönlein purpura. Prescribing antibiotics would also be inadequate as it would neglect the serious underlying disorder present.
Symptomatic advice and monitoring would not be enough as the red flag features present require immediate action. A throat swab would also fail to address the bigger picture and detect the underlying problem.
It is crucial to recognize the potential severity of this situation and take appropriate measures to diagnose and treat the suspected leukaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Correct
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Johnny is an 8-year-old boy who presents with a mild fever, rash on the hands and feet, and oral ulcers. You inform his parents that he is likely suffering from hand, foot & mouth disease. They inquire about how long he should stay home from school?
Your Answer: No restriction
Explanation:Children with hand, foot and mouth disease do not need to be excluded from childcare or school.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.
The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents with her father to the General Practitioner, as her father is concerned that she may have attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). He reports that she achieves well in school academically but has difficulty taking turns in games at break times and often interrupts the teacher by blurting out the answer to a question before she has finished it. She can get cross with her father at home when he asks her to carry out chores and sometimes gets in physical fights with her sister.
Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for ADHD and is displayed by this child?Your Answer: Argumentative or defiant behaviour
Correct Answer: Impulsivity
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder that affects both children and adults. One of the diagnostic criteria for ADHD is impulsivity, which can manifest as difficulty waiting turns, interrupting others, or blurting out answers prematurely. However, restricted, repetitive behaviors are not a symptom of ADHD but rather a diagnostic criterion for autism spectrum disorder. Similarly, aggression towards people and animals is not a symptom of ADHD but is included in the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder. Argumentative or defiant behavior is also not a symptom of ADHD but is a diagnostic criterion for oppositional defiant disorder. It is important to note that high educational attainment is not a diagnostic criterion for ADHD, as individuals with ADHD may struggle in school due to inattention and difficulty concentrating. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for ADHD can aid in early identification and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old boy is brought by mum for his routine check. Which one of the following is not part of the 6 week routine check?
Your Answer: Check red reflex
Correct Answer: Cover test for squint
Explanation:At this stage, a cover test is not necessary.
The six-week baby examination is a crucial part of the Healthy Child Programme, which includes newborn screening elements such as physical examinations, blood spot tests, and hearing screens. This examination is usually conducted by a GP or other health professionals, and its purpose is to identify any potential issues that may not have been apparent during the initial hospital examination. The four key issues that are checked for during this examination are congenital heart disease, developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), congenital cataract, and undescended testes.
During the examination, the baby’s weight and head circumference are measured and plotted onto a growth chart in the red book. The baby’s color, behavior, breathing, and skin are also checked for any abnormalities. The heart is examined for any murmurs or palpitations, and the femoral pulses are felt. If there are any concerns, a pediatrician should be consulted. DDH is checked for by looking for leg length differences or asymmetry of hip creases, and performing Barlows and Ortolani’s tests. The eyes are checked for congenital cataract, and any concerns should be referred for a same-day ophthalmology assessment. The testes are checked for by feeling the scrotum, and any concerns should be referred for a same-day pediatric assessment.
Aside from the physical examination, this is also an opportunity to address any concerns from the parents, such as feeding or growth, and provide health promotion advice, such as immunizations or smoking cessation. The mother should also be screened for postnatal depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the Gold Standards Framework (GSF) and what does it enable for people nearing the end of their lives?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It involves an anticipatory approach to care
Explanation:The Gold Standards Framework: A Framework for Anticipatory End-of-Life Care
The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) was originally designed for use in primary care, but has since been adapted for use in care homes and nursing homes. Its anticipatory approach to care has been shown to have positive effects on pain and symptom control, and improved planning has helped to prevent some hospital admissions. The GSF is not a prescriptive model, but rather a framework that can be tailored to meet local needs and resources. It can also be adapted for patients with non-cancer diagnoses who require end-of-life care. Ultimately, the GSF aims to help patients live and die well in their preferred place of care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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