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  • Question 1 - As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you are updating a prescription...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you are updating a prescription chart for a premature baby born at twenty-seven weeks who is in poor condition. While reviewing the chart, you come across caffeine as one of the medications prescribed. Can you explain the purpose of caffeine in neonatal care?

      Your Answer: Aiding weaning off a ventilator

      Explanation:

      Newborn babies can benefit from caffeine as it acts as a respiratory stimulant. It is also used to help neonates transition off a ventilator. Sildenafil, known as Viagra, is typically used to treat erectile dysfunction in adults, but it can also be used to treat pulmonary hypertension in neonates. The approach to addressing distress in newborns depends on the underlying cause, which is often related to respiratory or pain issues. Gaviscon and ranitidine are sometimes used to treat gastro-oesophageal reflux, although this is not an approved use. Necrotising enterocolitis is more prevalent in premature babies and can be treated through medical interventions, such as resting the gut, or surgical interventions, such as resection.

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - Typically, which form of lung disease develops in people with a1-antitrypsin deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Typically, which form of lung disease develops in people with a1-antitrypsin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Correct Answer: Emphysema

      Explanation:

      Emphysema: Imbalance between Proteases and Anti-Proteases in the Lungs

      Emphysema is a lung disease that results from an imbalance between proteases and anti-proteases within the lung. This imbalance is often caused by a1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is associated with the development of emphysema in young people with no history of smoking and a positive family history. The interplay between environmental and genetic factors determines the onset of emphysema. Patients typically present with worsening dyspnoea, and weight loss, cor pulmonale, and polycythaemia occur later in the course of the disease. Chest radiographs show bilateral basal emphysema with paucity and pruning of the basal pulmonary vessels. Early onset of liver cirrhosis, often in combination with emphysema, is also associated with a1-antitrypsin deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old woman is recuperating in the hospital after a coronary angiogram for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is recuperating in the hospital after a coronary angiogram for unstable angina. Two days after the procedure, she reports experiencing intense pain in her left foot. Upon examination, her left lower limb peripheral pulses are normal. There is tissue loss on the medial three toes on the left foot and an area of livedo reticularis on the same foot.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Deep-vein thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol embolisation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Vascular Conditions: Causes and Symptoms

      Cholesterol embolisation occurs when cholesterol crystals from a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque block small or medium arteries, often following an intervention like coronary angiography. This results in microvascular ischemia, which typically does not affect blood pressure or larger vessels, explaining the normal peripheral pulses in affected patients. Livedo reticularis, a purplish discoloration, may also occur due to microvascular ischemia.

      Arterial thromboembolism is a common condition, especially in patients with established cardiovascular disease or risk factors like hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking. It tends to affect larger vessels than cholesterol embolism, leading to the absence of peripheral pulses and gangrenous toes.

      Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a vasculitis that mainly affects young men who smoke. It presents with claudication of the arms or legs, with or without ulcers or gangrene. However, the acute onset of symptoms following an intervention makes cholesterol embolism a more likely diagnosis.

      Deep vein thrombosis typically presents with a swollen, painful calf and does not display signs of arterial insufficiency like gangrene and livedo reticularis.

      Takayasu’s arteritis is a rare form of large vessel vasculitis that mainly affects the aorta. It is more common in women and tends to present below the age of 30 years old with pulseless arms. However, this patient’s history is not typical for Takayasu’s arteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      41.1
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  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old woman comes to her doctor after finishing her hepatitis B vaccination...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman comes to her doctor after finishing her hepatitis B vaccination series and wants to verify her immunity status. What is the best test to confirm her status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg; anti-HBs)

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding Their Significance

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several markers used to diagnose and monitor the disease, including antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs), hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg), anti-hepatitis B envelope antibody (anti-HBe), hepatitis B virus (HBV) DNA, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc).

      Anti-HBs is produced after a resolved infection or effective vaccination and is the only HBV antibody marker present after vaccination. High-risk individuals should have their anti-HBs level checked after completing their primary course of vaccination.

      HBeAg is a marker of infectivity and can serve as a marker of active replication in chronic hepatitis. It is not present following vaccination. Anti-HBe is a predictor of long-term clearance of HBV in patients undergoing antiviral therapy and indicates lower levels of HBV and, therefore, lower infectivity. Both HBeAg and anti-HBe remain negative following vaccination.

      HBV DNA is used to quantify viral load in a patient with proven acute or chronic hepatitis B infection. A positive result suggests not only the likelihood of active hepatitis but also that the disease is much more infectious as the virus is actively replicating. HBV DNA remains negative following vaccination.

      The presence of IgM anti-HBc is diagnostic of an acute or recently acquired infection. It remains negative following vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 5 - A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents with blood pressure readings of 150/100 mmHg, 148/95mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents with blood pressure readings of 150/100 mmHg, 148/95mmHg and 160/95mmHg during three consecutive visits to his GP surgery. He refuses ambulatory blood pressure monitoring due to its interference with his job as a construction worker. His home blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/95mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and has stage 2 hypertension, it is recommended to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker. This is in accordance with the NICE guidelines, which suggest that antihypertensive drug treatments should be offered to individuals of any age with stage 2 hypertension. If the patient is 55 years or older, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended instead.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man undergoes a new-patient screen by his general practitioner (GP) and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man undergoes a new-patient screen by his general practitioner (GP) and is found to have microscopic haematuria. The GP also observes a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and a calcium concentration of 3.1 mmol/l (reference range 2.2–2.7 mmol/l). During the examination, the patient is noted to have a varicocele. What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal-cell adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a renal mass in a 68-year-old man

      Renal-cell adenocarcinoma, retroperitoneal sarcoma, transitional-cell carcinoma, Wilms’ tumour and urinary tract infection (UTI) are among the possible causes of a renal mass in a 68-year-old man. Renal-cell adenocarcinoma is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults, but it may remain clinically silent for most of its course. Retroperitoneal sarcomas are rare tumours that usually present as an asymptomatic abdominal mass. Transitional-cell carcinoma is a malignant tumour arising from the transitional epithelial cells lining the urinary tract, and it often causes gross haematuria. Wilms’ tumour is a childhood malignancy that is not consistent with the age of the patient. UTIs in men are generally complicated and may cause dysuria, urinary frequency and urgency, but these symptoms are not elicited in this clinical scenario. Diagnosis and management of a renal mass require a thorough evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, laboratory tests, imaging studies and biopsy, if indicated. Treatment options depend on the type, stage and location of the tumour, as well as the patient’s overall health and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have a regular,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have a regular, monomorphic, broad complex tachycardia on cardiac monitoring. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and has undergone percutaneous coronary intervention for his left anterior descending, right coronary, and circumflex arteries. Physical examination is unremarkable except for tachycardia, and there are no signs of myocardial ischemia on a 12-lead electrocardiogram. Which of the following management options should be avoided in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is contraindicated in ventricular tachycardia, which is the most probable diagnosis.

      Managing Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia is a type of rapid heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. In a peri-arrest situation, it is assumed to be ventricular in origin. If the patient shows adverse signs such as low blood pressure, chest pain, heart failure, or syncope, immediate cardioversion is necessary. However, in the absence of such signs, antiarrhythmic drugs may be used. If drug therapy fails, electrical cardioversion may be needed with synchronised DC shocks.

      There are several drugs that can be used to manage ventricular tachycardia, including amiodarone, lidocaine, and procainamide. Amiodarone is ideally administered through a central line, while lidocaine should be used with caution in severe left ventricular impairment. Verapamil should not be used in VT. If drug therapy fails, an electrophysiological study (EPS) may be conducted, or an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) may be implanted. The ICD is particularly indicated in patients with significantly impaired LV function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic with primary generalised epilepsy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic with primary generalised epilepsy and is currently taking sodium valproate. Despite being on a therapeutic dose, he is still experiencing seizures and has also noticed weight gain since starting the medication. He expresses a desire to discontinue the current drug and try an alternative. What would be the most suitable second-line treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Before starting combination therapy, it is advisable to first try monotherapy with a different drug. When combining sodium valproate and lamotrigine, it is important to be cautious as it may lead to the development of severe skin rashes like Steven-Johnson’s syndrome.

      Treatment for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The condition is characterized by recurrent seizures, which can be debilitating and life-threatening. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures and improve quality of life.

      According to NICE guidelines, AEDs should be started after the second epileptic seizure. However, if a patient has a neurological deficit, brain imaging shows a structural abnormality, the EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity, or the patient or their family considers the risk of having a further seizure unacceptable, AEDs may be started after the first seizure. It is important to note that sodium valproate should not be used during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age unless clearly necessary due to the risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children.

      The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, lamotrigine or levetiracetam are the first-line treatments, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are prescribed sodium valproate, while females are prescribed lamotrigine.

      In summary, treatment for epilepsy involves the use of AEDs to control seizures and improve quality of life. The choice of AEDs depends on the type of epilepsy, and sodium valproate should be used with caution in women of childbearing age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old complains of tingling and numbness in his left little and ring...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old complains of tingling and numbness in his left little and ring finger. He states that the pain used to be intermittent but is now persistent. The pain intensifies when he puts pressure on his elbow, and he remembers fracturing his elbow as a child. Based on the provided medical history, what is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cubital tunnel syndrome results from the ulnar nerve being compressed, leading to tingling and numbness in the 4th and 5th fingers. This condition is often aggravated by leaning on the affected elbow and may be associated with osteoarthritis or prior injury. Medial epicondylitis causes pain in the medial elbow, not distal hand symptoms. Radial tunnel syndrome causes aching and paraesthesia in the hand and forearm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve and presents with pain and tingling in the thumb, index, middle, and medial half of the ring finger. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically affects the base of the thumb.

      Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.

      Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the early pregnancy unit...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the early pregnancy unit drop-in clinic complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past 2 days. The results of her urine dipstick test are as follows: Leucocytes +++, Nitrites +, Protein -, pH 5.0, Blood +, Ketones -, Glucose -. What is the recommended treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7-day course of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for lower UTI in pregnant women who are not at term is a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. However, nitrofurantoin should be avoided in women who are close to term due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. It is important to promptly and appropriately treat UTI in pregnancy as it is associated with pre-term delivery and low-birthweight. Amoxicillin and cefalexin are second-line options, but local guidelines may vary. It is important to note that a 3-day course of nitrofurantoin is not recommended according to NICE guidelines.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Passmed