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Question 1
Correct
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A 29-year-old male patient complains of ongoing discomfort during bowel movements for the last 3 months. He has observed minor amounts of fresh blood while wiping. The patient is in good health otherwise and reports no weight loss. There is no significant family history. Upon examination of the anus, the diagnosis is confirmed. Despite initial treatment with laxatives and dietary changes, there has been no improvement. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Topical glyceryl trinitrate
Explanation:For the treatment of chronic anal fissure, the appropriate step to take after failed conservative measures is to trial topical glyceryl trinitrate. This is because the symptoms of acute pain upon defecation and fresh blood indicate an anal fissure. Botox injection would be considered if topical measures were unsuccessful. Rubber band ligation is used for haemorrhoids, which present differently and are generally painless unless thrombosed. Topical hydrocortisone is not used for anal fissures, but is available over-the-counter for the treatment of haemorrhoids.
Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.
Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.
Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.
In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with acute appendicitis. You are evaluating his suitability for surgery.
He has no relevant medical history, his blood pressure is being monitored by his GP but he has not yet been prescribed any medication for it. He does not smoke and drinks a couple of beers with his meals on Fridays and Saturdays.
The nursing staff have recorded his vital signs, height, and weight. His heart rate is 98 /min, respiratory rate is 17 /min, temperature is 37.8ºC, blood pressure is 148/93 mmHg, and saturations are 99% on room air. He is 178 cm tall, weighs 132 kg, and has a BMI of 41.6 kg/m².
An anaesthetist evaluates his American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) grade before surgery.
What ASA grade would you assign to this man based on the information provided?Your Answer: ASA III - patient with severe systemic disease
Explanation:Patients who have a BMI that falls under the morbidly obese category (greater than 40) are classified as ASA III. ASA grades are utilized by anaesthetists to evaluate the risk of anaesthesia for a patient. These grades are determined before surgery to determine the appropriate anaesthetic agents to use and to identify patients who may not be suitable for surgery or may not survive anaesthesia. When calculating a patient’s ASA, their medical history and social history are both taken into account. Current smoking and social alcohol consumption automatically classify a patient as ASA grade II. Morbid obesity is considered a severe disease and is therefore classified as ASA grade III.
The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).
ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.
ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is scheduled for an elective knee replacement surgery the following day. He has type 2 diabetes and is the first patient on the surgery list. His doctor has advised him to continue taking his once-daily dose of metformin and his new anti-diabetic medication on the day of the operation. The patient's physician recently changed his diabetes medication due to hypoglycemic episodes with his previous medication. What is the most probable new antidiabetic medication he is taking?
Your Answer: Empagliflozin
Correct Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:Patients undergoing surgery who are taking DPP-4 inhibitors (-gliptins) and GLP-1 analogues (-tides) can continue taking these medications as normal throughout the perioperative period. However, SGLT-2 blockers such as empagliflozin and dapagliflozin should be omitted on the day of surgery due to the increased risk of diabetic ketoacidosis during periods of dehydration and acute illness. Sulphonylureas like gliclazide should also be omitted until the patient is able to eat and drink again, as they can cause hypoglycaemia in patients who are in a fasted state. It is important to note that the patient in the case scenario may have been taking sulphonylureas in the past, but they are unlikely to be part of their current treatment regimen as they were discontinued by their GP due to side effects.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with a swollen, tender, and red glans penis that he has been experiencing for the past five days. He is unable to retract his foreskin fully and is experiencing pain while urinating. He has no sexual activity. This is his fourth presentation for balanitis in the last year, and he has tested negative for sexually transmitted infections and bacterial infections on each occasion. He has been successfully managed with saline baths and topical clotrimazole. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus.
After treating this acute episode with saline baths and topical clotrimazole, what is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Prophylactic oral fluconazole
Correct Answer: Refer for circumcision
Explanation:Circumcision is recommended for patients with recurrent balanitis.
Balanitis, which is characterized by inflammation of the glans penis, can be caused by various factors such as sexually transmitted infections, dermatitis, bacterial infections, and opportunistic fungal infections like Candida. In this case, the patient’s diabetes is likely the underlying cause of the fungal infection. Acute infections are typically treated with saline baths and addressing the root cause. Topical treatments are also recommended, depending on the cause of the infection. However, for patients with recurrent balanitis, circumcision is the most appropriate course of action to prevent future occurrences.
Understanding Circumcision
Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.
The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.
There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.
Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with shoulder pain following a day of intense garage painting. The pain radiates to the front of his upper arm and is exacerbated by raising his shoulder beyond 90 degrees. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subacromial bursitis
Correct Answer: Biceps tendonitis
Explanation:Biceps Tendonitis
The biceps muscle is situated in the upper arm’s front part and connects to the elbow and two points in the shoulder. Biceps tendonitis, also known as bicipital tendonitis, is an inflammation that causes pain in the upper arm or front part of the shoulder. This condition is caused by overuse of the arm and shoulder or an injury to the biceps tendon. The pain is most noticeable when the arm and shoulder are moved, particularly when the arm is raised above shoulder height.
Patients with biceps tendonitis experience pain when they touch the front of their shoulder. Speed’s test is a diagnostic tool used to detect biceps tendonitis. Lateral epicondylitis, on the other hand, is caused by activities such as painting or repetitive rotation, such as using a screwdriver for an extended period. However, shoulder flexion alone would not exacerbate the pain associated with lateral epicondylitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a past medical history of internal hemorrhoids presents with a recent exacerbation of symptoms. He reports having to manually reduce his piles after bowel movements. What grade of hemorrhoids is he experiencing?
Your Answer: Grade IV
Correct Answer: Grade III
Explanation:Understanding Haemorrhoids
Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy that contribute to anal continence. They are mucosal vascular cushions found in specific areas of the anal canal. However, when they become enlarged, congested, and symptomatic, they are considered haemorrhoids. The most common symptom is painless rectal bleeding, but pruritus and pain may also occur. There are two types of haemorrhoids: external, which originate below the dentate line and are prone to thrombosis, and internal, which originate above the dentate line and do not generally cause pain. Internal haemorrhoids are graded based on their prolapse and reducibility. Management includes softening stools through dietary changes, topical treatments, outpatient procedures like rubber band ligation, and surgery for large, symptomatic haemorrhoids. Acutely thrombosed external haemorrhoids may require excision if the patient presents within 72 hours, but otherwise can be managed with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia.
Overall, understanding haemorrhoids and their management is important for individuals experiencing symptoms and healthcare professionals providing care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a breast lump and is referred to secondary care. Imaging reveals ductal carcinoma in situ that is oestrogen receptor-positive, progesterone receptor-negative, and HER2-negative. The recommended treatment plan includes lumpectomy, adjuvant radiotherapy, and endocrine therapy. The patient has no medical history and does not use hormonal contraceptives. Her menstrual cycle is regular with a 28-day cycle. What is the mechanism of action of the drug that will likely be prescribed?
Your Answer: Partial antagonism of the oestrogen receptor
Explanation:Tamoxifen is the preferred treatment for premenopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. It is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that partially antagonizes the oestrogen receptor. Other options for endocrine therapy include aromatase inhibitors and GnRH agonists, but these are not typically used as first-line treatment for premenopausal women with breast cancer. GnRH antagonists and complete antagonists of the oestrogen receptor are not used in the management of breast cancer.
Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flashes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flashes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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A 52-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and suffers a significant intra-abdominal injury. He undergoes a laparotomy, bowel resection, and end colostomy, and requires a 6-unit blood transfusion due to an associated vascular injury. After a prolonged recovery, he is paralyzed and ventilated for 2 weeks in the intensive care unit. He is given total parenteral nutrition and eventually weaned off the ventilator and transferred to the ward. During a routine blood test, the following results are observed:
Full blood count
Hb 11.3 g/dl
Platelets 267 x 109/l
WBC 10.1 x109/l
Urea and electrolytes
Na+ 131 mmol/l
K+ 4.6 mmol/l
Urea 2.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 78 µmol/l
Liver function tests
Bilirubin 25 µmol/l
ALP 445 u/l
ALT 89 u/l
γGT 103 u/l
What is the most probable underlying cause for the noted abnormalities?Your Answer: Total parenteral nutrition
Explanation:Liver function tests are often affected by TPN, which can cause cholestasis but it is unlikely to lead to the formation of gallstones as seen in the image. While blood transfusion reactions may cause hepatitis, they usually present earlier and with changes in haemoglobin, which is rare in modern times.
Understanding Total Parenteral Nutrition
Total parenteral nutrition is a commonly used method of providing nutrition to surgical patients who are nutritionally compromised. The bags used in this method contain a combination of glucose, lipids, and essential electrolytes, with the exact composition being determined by the patient’s nutritional requirements. While it is possible to infuse this nutrition peripherally, doing so may result in thrombophlebitis. As such, longer-term infusions should be administered into a central vein, preferably via a PICC line.
Complications associated with total parenteral nutrition are related to sepsis, refeeding syndromes, and hepatic dysfunction. It is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of these complications and adjust the nutrition accordingly. By understanding the basics of total parenteral nutrition, healthcare professionals can provide optimal care to their patients and ensure their nutritional needs are being met.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Correct
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An 85 kg 40-year-old man who is normally fit and well is scheduled for an appendectomy today. He has been made nil by mouth, and surgeons expect him to continue to be nil by mouth for approximately 24 hours. The man has a past medical history of childhood asthma. He has been taking paracetamol for pain but takes no other regular medication. On examination, the man’s blood pressure (BP) is 110/80 mmHg and heart rate 65 bpm. His lungs are clear. Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is not raised, and he has no peripheral oedema. Skin turgor is normal.
What is the appropriate fluid prescription for this man for the 24 hours while he is nil by mouth?Your Answer: 1 litre 0.9% sodium chloride with 20 mmol potassium over 8 hours, 1 litre 5% dextrose with 20 mmol potassium over 8 hours; 500 ml 5% dextrose with 20 mmol potassium over 8 hours
Explanation:Assessing and Prescribing Maintenance Fluids for a Euvolaemic Patient
When assessing and prescribing maintenance fluids for a euvolaemic patient, it is important to consider their daily fluid and electrolyte requirements. As a general rule, a minimum of 30 ml/kg of fluid is required over a 24-hour period. In addition, the patient will require 0.5-1 mmol/kg/day of potassium for maintenance.
A common prescription for maintenance fluids is 2´ sweet (5% dextrose) and 1´ salt (0.9% sodium chloride), or an equivalent volume of Hartmann’s solution. Accurate fluid balance monitoring and daily blood tests for electrolyte levels are also necessary.
Several examples of fluid prescriptions are given, with explanations of why they may not be appropriate for a euvolaemic patient. These include prescriptions with excessive volumes of fluid, inappropriate types of fluid, and inadequate potassium replacement.
Overall, careful consideration of a patient’s individual needs and regular monitoring are essential when prescribing maintenance fluids.
Assessing and Prescribing Maintenance Fluids for a Euvolaemic Patient
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old ex-footballer undergoes a right hip hemi-arthroplasty. He is an ex-smoker. He is admitted to the ward.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding his deep venous thrombosis (DVT) thromboprophylaxis?Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and compression stockings should be prescribed as standard
Explanation:Prophylaxis of Deep Vein Thrombosis in Surgical Patients
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a common complication in patients undergoing major orthopaedic surgery, particularly in the pelvis and lower limbs. To prevent DVT formation, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and compression stockings should be prescribed as standard for all surgical patients. Aspirin is not recommended for DVT prophylaxis, but may be prescribed for cardiac risk factor modification. LMWH should be prescribed routinely, regardless of the patient’s risk of immobility. Heparin infusion is not recommended as first-line therapy, with LMWH being the preferred option. There is no indication to start formal anticoagulation with warfarin postoperatively. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively prevent DVT formation in surgical patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and distention. She has been feeling unwell for the past 4 hours and she has vomited three times. Her past medical history includes hypertension and an appendicectomy in her late 40s. On examination, her abdomen is distended but not peritonitic, with absent bowel sounds. Her electrolytes were assessed and are as follows:
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 105 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
What is the first-line management for her condition?Your Answer: Nasogastric tube insertion and intravenous fluids with additional potassium
Explanation:The initial medical management for small bowel obstruction involves the insertion of a nasogastric tube to decompress the small bowel and the administration of intravenous fluids with additional potassium. This is the correct answer as the patient is exhibiting classic symptoms of small bowel obstruction, including intense abdominal pain and early vomiting, and has a history of abdominal surgery that could have caused adhesions, the most common cause of this condition. The intravenous fluids are necessary to replace electrolytes, particularly potassium, which can be lost due to the increased peristalsis and enlargement of the proximal bowel segment. Antibiotics and intravenous fluids would be the appropriate treatment for acute pancreatitis, which presents with different symptoms and causes. Surgery is not the first-line management for small bowel obstruction, and sigmoidoscope insertion with a flatus tube is not appropriate as the patient has small bowel obstruction, not large bowel obstruction.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-hour history of right-sided loin to groin pain. He has never experienced pain like this before and regular analgesia has not relieved his symptoms. His past medical history includes hypertension for which he takes amlodipine and indapamide.
His observations are as follows:
Temperature 35.8ºC
Heart rate 105 bpm
Blood pressure 100/60 mmHg
Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
Saturations 96% on air
On examination, he is clammy to touch. His chest is clear and heart sounds are normal. There is generalised abdominal tenderness and central guarding. Bowel sounds are present.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Urgent vascular review
Explanation:Immediate vascular review for emergency surgical repair is necessary for patients suspected of having a ruptured AAA. This is particularly important for men aged above 50 years who may present with symptoms similar to renal colic, such as loin to groin pain. In this case, the patient is displaying signs of shock, including tachycardia and hypotension, which further support the diagnosis of a ruptured AAA. Blood cultures are not necessary at this stage as the patient’s symptoms are more likely due to haemorrhagic shock than sepsis. Similarly, urinalysis is not useful in managing a ruptured AAA. Although a CT KUB is commonly used to detect ureteric calculi and renal pathology in patients with loin to groin pain, the presence of shock in an older man with a history of hypertension suggests a ruptured AAA as the more likely diagnosis.
Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: Symptoms and Management
A ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) can present in two ways: as a sudden collapse or as persistent severe central abdominal pain with developing shock. The mortality rate for a ruptured AAA is almost 80%, making it a medical emergency. Symptoms of a ruptured AAA include severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back and a pulsatile, expansile mass in the abdomen. Patients may also experience shock, which is characterized by hypotension and tachycardia, or they may have collapsed.
Immediate vascular review is necessary for patients with a suspected ruptured AAA, with emergency surgical repair being the primary management option. In haemodynamically unstable patients, the diagnosis is clinical, and they are not stable enough for a CT scan to confirm the diagnosis. These patients should be taken straight to theatre. For frail patients with multiple comorbidities, a ruptured AAA may represent a terminal event, and consideration should be given to a palliative approach.
Patients who are haemodynamically stable may undergo a CT angiogram to confirm the diagnosis and assess the suitability of endovascular repair. In summary, a ruptured AAA is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention and management to improve the patient’s chances of survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Correct
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A 80-year-old woman falls during her shopping trip and sustains an injury to her left upper limb. Upon arrival at the Emergency department, an x-ray reveals a fracture of the shaft of her humerus. During the assessment, it is observed that the pulses in her forearm are weak on the side of the fracture. Which artery is most likely to have been affected by the injury?
Your Answer: Brachial
Explanation:Brachial Artery Trauma in Humeral Shaft Fractures
The brachial artery, which runs around the midshaft of the humerus, can be affected by trauma when the humeral shaft is fractured. The extent of the damage can vary, from pressure occlusion to partial or complete transection, and may also involve mural contusion with secondary thrombosis. To determine the nature of the damage, an arteriogram should be performed. Appropriate surgery, in combination with fracture fixation, should then be undertaken to address the injury. It is important to promptly assess and treat brachial artery trauma in humeral shaft fractures to prevent further complications and ensure proper healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a 3-month history of worsening dyspepsia, epigastric pain, and drenching night sweats on a background of recurrent gastric ulcers. The GP urgently refers the patient for investigation. Following a gastroscopy with biopsies taken, a low grade gastric MALT lymphoma is diagnosed, and the presence of H. pylori was also noted on the biopsy report. The patient has no significant past medical history. What treatment plan is the doctor likely to recommend?
Your Answer: Omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin
Explanation:The recommended treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma associated with H. pylori infection is a combination of omeprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin. This is because the majority of cases are linked to H. pylori, as suggested by the patient’s history of gastric ulcers. Low-grade cases can be treated with H. pylori eradication alone, but high-grade or atypical cases may require chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy. The answer choice of lansoprazole, clarithromycin, and doxycycline is incorrect, as doxycycline is not used in H. pylori eradication. Active monitoring may be an option in some cases, but when a clear cause like H. pylori is identified, treatment is recommended. Partial gastrectomy is not a standard treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma.
Gastric MALT Lymphoma: A Brief Overview
Gastric MALT lymphoma is a type of lymphoma that is commonly associated with H. pylori infection, which is present in 95% of cases. The good news is that this type of lymphoma has a good prognosis, especially if it is low grade. In fact, about 80% of patients with low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma respond well to H. pylori eradication.
One potential feature of gastric MALT lymphoma is the presence of paraproteinaemia, which is an abnormal protein in the blood. However, this is not always present and may not be a reliable indicator of the disease. Overall, gastric MALT lymphoma is a treatable form of lymphoma with a high likelihood of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man is in a physical altercation outside the hospital and loses consciousness after being struck in the head, hitting the ground with his head first. A junior doctor is alerted and needs to take action to protect his airway. Despite some minor bruising and scratches, there are no visible injuries or bleeding.
What should the junior doctor do next to ensure the patient's airway is safeguarded?Your Answer: Head-tilt chin-lift manoeuvre
Correct Answer: Jaw thrust manoeuvre
Explanation:When managing a patient’s airway, if there is concern about a cervical spine injury, the preferred manoeuvre is the jaw thrust. This is particularly important in cases where the patient has fallen and hit their head, as there may be a risk of cervical spine injury. The ABCDE approach should be followed, with airway assessment and optimisation being the first step. In this scenario, as it is taking place outside of a hospital, basic airway management manoeuvres should be used initially, with the jaw thrust being the most appropriate option for suspected cervical spine injury. This is because it minimises movement of the cervical spine, reducing the risk of complications such as nerve impingement and tetraplegia. The use of an endotracheal tube or laryngeal mask is not the most appropriate initial option, as they take time to prepare and may not be suitable for the patient’s condition. The head-tilt chin-lift manoeuvre should also be avoided in cases where cervical spinal injury is suspected, as it involves moving the cervical spine.
Airway Management Devices and Techniques
Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.
The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.
It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 16
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman has been experiencing constipation lately and noticed blood in her stool this morning. She decided to see her GP and reported having constipation for almost two months with only one instance of blood in her stool. Her husband, who accompanied her, mentioned that she has lost a considerable amount of weight recently. The woman confirmed this and stated that she has not been intentionally trying to lose weight. The GP is alarmed and orders an urgent investigation. What is the most appropriate investigation to be ordered at this stage?
Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:This man has recently experienced constipation, weight loss, and one instance of blood in his stool. The most probable diagnosis for these symptoms is colorectal cancer (CRC), and further investigation should focus on confirming or ruling out CRC. According to NICE CG131 guidelines, patients without significant comorbidities should be offered a colonoscopy to diagnose CRC.
If the patient had upper GI symptoms such as dysphagia, dyspepsia, or epigastric pain, an upper GI endoscopy would be appropriate. A Faecal Occult Blood Test (FOBT) would have been suitable for screening purposes, as is currently done in the UK. An abdominal X-ray is not necessary as there is no evidence to suggest a likely diagnosis of bowel obstruction, infarction, or perforation that would require X-ray imaging.
Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.
The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after sustaining a head injury. He tripped over a rake in his backyard and hit his head on a tree trunk about an hour ago. He vomited once immediately after the incident and again on his way to the hospital. He has no other symptoms and is not taking any medication.
Upon examination, he is responsive and spontaneously opens his eyes. He has normal limb movement. His pupils are equal and react to light. There are no visible external injuries.
What is the most appropriate course of action for imaging?Your Answer: Contrast CT head within 8 hours
Correct Answer: Non-contrast CT head within 1 hour
Explanation:If a patient experiences more than one episode of vomiting following a head injury, a non-contrast CT head should be performed within 1 hour according to NICE guidelines. A contrast CT head within 1 hour or within 8 hours is not necessary, as non-contrast CT is typically preferred for head injuries. It is also incorrect to assume that no imaging is required, as two episodes of vomiting indicate the need for a CT head within 1 hour.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 18
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman arrives at the surgical assessment unit with fever, right upper quadrant pain, and yellowing of the sclera. Imaging confirms ascending cholangitis. She has a history of multiple hospitalizations for biliary colic. What is the primary cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Ascending cholangitis is commonly caused by E. coli, while Mycobacterium avium complex is unlikely to cause chronic diarrhea in immunodeficient patients. Clostridium difficile is also unlikely to cause this condition, as it typically follows an antibiotic course. Staphylococcus aureus would not be a likely cause of this condition, as it requires a breach in the skin to enter the body.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following haemodynamic changes is not observed in hypovolaemic shock?
Your Answer: Reduced systemic vascular resistance
Explanation:Cardiogenic shock is caused by conditions such as MI or valve abnormalities, leading to decreased cardiac output and blood pressure, with increased SVR and HR. Hypovolaemic shock is caused by blood volume depletion from sources such as haemorrhage or dehydration, also resulting in decreased cardiac output and blood pressure, with increased SVR and HR. Septic shock, as well as anaphylactic and neurogenic shock, is characterized by reduced SVR and increased HR, with normal or increased cardiac output and decreased blood pressure due to peripheral vascular dilation.
Understanding Shock: Aetiology and Management
Shock is a condition that occurs when there is inadequate tissue perfusion. It can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, haemorrhage, neurogenic injury, cardiogenic events, and anaphylaxis. Septic shock is a major concern, with a mortality rate of over 40% in patients with severe sepsis. Haemorrhagic shock is often seen in trauma patients, and the severity is classified based on the amount of blood loss and associated physiological changes. Neurogenic shock occurs following spinal cord injury, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by ischaemic heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe hypersensitivity reaction that can be life-threatening.
The management of shock depends on the underlying cause. In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics and haemodynamic stabilisation are crucial. In haemorrhagic shock, controlling bleeding and maintaining circulating volume are essential. In neurogenic shock, peripheral vasoconstrictors are used to restore vascular tone. In cardiogenic shock, supportive treatment and surgery may be required. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the most important drug and should be given as soon as possible.
Understanding the aetiology and management of shock is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide timely and appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Correct
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A 55-year-old smoker presents with a three month history of persistent hoarseness and right-sided earache. On examination, the patient has mild stridor and is hoarse. Ear examination is unremarkable, but endoscopy of the upper airway reveals an irregular mass in the larynx. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carcinoma of the larynx
Explanation:Laryngeal Carcinoma in a Heavy Smoker
This patient’s history of heavy smoking and symptoms related to the larynx suggest the presence of laryngeal pathology. Further examination using nasal endoscopy revealed an irregular mass, which is a common finding in cases of laryngeal carcinoma. Therefore, the diagnosis for this patient is likely to be laryngeal carcinoma.
In summary, the combination of smoking history, laryngeal symptoms, and an irregular mass on nasal endoscopy strongly suggest the presence of laryngeal carcinoma in this patient. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat this condition to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Correct
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As a member of the surgical team, you come across a patient who is a 32-year-old male diagnosed with pigmented gallstones. In which condition is this frequently observed?
Your Answer: Sickle cell anaemia
Explanation:Sickle cell disease is linked to the formation of pigmented gallstones.
The increased breakdown of red blood cells in sickle cell disease leads to the development of pigmented gallstones. These types of gallstones are mainly composed of bilirubin and are commonly seen in individuals with hemolytic anemia and liver cirrhosis. Fanconi anemia and myelodysplastic syndrome are both forms of anemia caused by a decrease in hemoglobin production, rather than increased hemolysis. On the other hand, pancreatitis and glomerulonephritis are not associated with the formation of pigmented gallstones.
Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old plumber visits his family doctor complaining of a lump in his groin. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and no prior surgeries or medical issues. The lump has been present for three weeks, causes mild discomfort, and has not increased in size. During the physical examination, a soft, reducible lump is observed on the left side, located above the pubic tubercle, without skin changes. The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia. What test would confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reappearance of lump during coughing when covering the deep inguinal ring
Correct Answer: No reappearance during coughing when covering the deep inguinal ring
Explanation:To prevent the recurrence of an indirect inguinal hernia, pressure should be applied over the deep inguinal ring after reducing the hernia. This is because the hernia protrudes through the inguinal canal and covering the deep inguinal ring prevents it from reappearing during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing. Noting bilateral herniae is not relevant to confirming or refuting the diagnosis, and there is no such thing as a femoral ring. If the lump reappears during coughing while covering the deep inguinal ring, it may indicate a direct hernia instead. It is important to distinguish between indirect and direct herniae during surgical repair, as they occur in different locations relative to the inferior epigastric blood vessels due to a hole in the internal oblique and transversus muscles.
Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 23
Correct
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A 72-year-old man visits his GP complaining of voiding symptoms but no storage symptoms. After being diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia, conservative management proves ineffective. The recommended first-line medication also fails to alleviate his symptoms. Further examination reveals an estimated prostate size of over 30g and a prostate-specific antigen level of 2.2 ng/ml. What medication is the GP likely to prescribe for this patient?
Your Answer: Finasteride
Explanation:If a patient with BPH has a significantly enlarged prostate, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors should be considered as a second-line treatment option. Finasteride is an example of a 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor and is used when alpha-1-antagonists fail to manage symptoms. Desmopressin is a later stage drug used for BPH with nocturnal polyuria after other treatments have failed. Tamsulosin is an alpha-1-antagonist and is the first-line option for BPH. Terazosin is another alpha-blocker and could also be used as a first-line option.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset pain in his loin-to-groin region. He reports having experienced similar pain in the past, but never to this extent. Upon arrival, the following observations are recorded:
- Blood pressure: 110/85 mmHg
- Heart rate: 119 bpm
- Temperature: 38.6ºC
- Oxygen saturation: 98% on air
- Respiratory rate: 22/min
What is the most likely diagnosis and what is the definitive management?Your Answer: Oral fluids, IV antibiotics and analgesia
Correct Answer: IV antibiotics and urgent renal decompression
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and observations suggest that they are suffering from ureteric colic caused by urinary calculi, which may be accompanied by an infection leading to sepsis. In such cases, urgent renal decompression and IV antibiotics are necessary. While fluid resuscitation may help manage ureteric colic, it is not sufficient when there are signs of infection, and inpatient management is required. Although oral fluids, IV antibiotics, and analgesia may provide some relief, urgent renal decompression is the definitive treatment. While NSAIDs may be helpful in managing ureteric colic, they cannot be the sole treatment when there is an infection. Rectal diclofenac is often the preferred NSAID. An urgent nephrectomy is not necessary for this condition.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with perianal pain, bleeding and a palpable mass that is not consistent with a haemorrhoid. He reports having multiple male sexual partners and engaging in unprotected anal sex. An anoscopic examination with biopsy is performed, and the histology confirms a squamous cell carcinoma. The cancer is staged at T3 based on its size. What is the most significant risk factor for this patient's diagnosis?
Your Answer: HIV infection
Correct Answer: HPV infection
Explanation:Anal cancer is primarily caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), with approximately 90% of cases being linked to this viral infection. While being on immunosuppressive medication can increase the risk of anal cancer, this is believed to be due to the higher likelihood of contracting HPV. HIV infection has also been associated with anal cancer, but this is thought to be a result of the virus weakening the immune system and making it more difficult for the body to fight off HPV. Men who have sex with men are also at a higher risk of developing anal cancer, but this is likely due to their increased risk of contracting HPV.
Understanding Anal Cancer: Definition, Epidemiology, and Risk Factors
Anal cancer is a type of malignancy that occurs exclusively in the anal canal, which is bordered by the anorectal junction and the anal margin. The majority of anal cancers are squamous cell carcinomas, but other types include melanomas, lymphomas, and adenocarcinomas. The incidence of anal cancer is relatively rare, with an annual rate of about 1.5 in 100,000 in the UK. However, the incidence is increasing, particularly among men who have sex with men, due to widespread infection by human papillomavirus (HPV).
There are several risk factors associated with anal cancer, including HPV infection, anal intercourse, a high lifetime number of sexual partners, HIV infection, immunosuppressive medication, a history of cervical cancer or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, and smoking. Patients typically present with symptoms such as perianal pain, perianal bleeding, a palpable lesion, and faecal incontinence.
To diagnose anal cancer, T stage assessment is conducted, which includes a digital rectal examination, anoscopic examination with biopsy, and palpation of the inguinal nodes. Imaging modalities such as CT, MRI, endo-anal ultrasound, and PET are also used. The T stage system for anal cancer is described by the American Joint Committee on Cancer and the International Union Against Cancer. It includes TX primary tumour cannot be assessed, T0 no evidence of primary tumour, Tis carcinoma in situ, T1 tumour 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, T2 tumour more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, T3 tumour more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, and T4 tumour of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).
In conclusion, understanding anal cancer is crucial in identifying the risk factors and symptoms associated with this type of malignancy. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the prognosis and quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Correct
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A 22-year-old man is struck on the left side of his face while playing rugby. He reports experiencing double vision when both eyes are open and finds it painful to open his mouth.
What is the likely explanation for his symptoms?Your Answer: Depressed fracture of the zygoma
Explanation:Facial trauma can result in fractures of the facial bones, which are often caused by assaults or accidents. The location of the impact can determine the type of injury, with a punch to the cheek bone or eye area commonly resulting in a fractured zygoma. If the globe is ruptured, there will be a significant loss of vision. Monocular visual blurring may indicate a hyphaema, which can be diagnosed through inspection. A ramus fracture can cause difficulty opening the mouth, but will not affect vision. A maxillary antrum rupture may occur as a result of a comminuted maxillary fracture or blowout fracture of the orbit. If a patient has binocular vision and facial trauma, it may suggest a depressed fracture of the zygoma. Inspection and palpation of the orbital margins can reveal a step deformity or depressed contour of the cheek.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 27
Correct
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A 28-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of a painless lump he discovered on his right testicle while showering. He has no other symptoms or significant family history except for his father's death from pancreatic cancer two years ago. During the examination, the doctor identifies a hard nodule on the right testicle that does not trans-illuminate. An ultrasound is performed, and the patient is eventually referred for an inguinal orchiectomy for a non-invasive stage 1 non-seminoma germ cell testicular tumor. Based on this information, which tumor marker would we anticipate to be elevated in this patient?
Your Answer: AFP
Explanation:The correct tumor marker for non-seminoma germ cell testicular cancer is not serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (gamma-GT), as it is only elevated in 1/3 of seminoma cases. PSA, which is a marker for prostate cancer, and CA15-3, which is produced by glandular cells of the breast and often raised in breast cancer, are also not appropriate markers for this type of testicular cancer.
Understanding Testicular Cancer
Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.
The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Correct
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A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe pain in her right upper quadrant and vomiting. Upon examination, she is found to be pyrexial and has tenderness and peritonism in the right upper quadrant. There is more pain during inspiration on subcostal pressure in the right upper quadrant than in the left. Her bilirubin level is 9 mol/L (normal range: 1-22), amylase level is 50 U/L (normal range: 50-130), hemoglobin level is 128 g/L (normal range: 115-165), platelet count is 172 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400), and white cell count is 15 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Explanation:Manifestations of Gallstone Disease
All options for gallstone disease can be seen in different manifestations. However, the combination of pyrexia, an elevated white cell count, and local peritonism (Murphy’s sign) is a classic symptom of acute cholecystitis. Pancreatitis can be eliminated with normal amylase levels, while jaundice and cholangitis (which are usually associated with fever and tenderness: Charcot’s triad) can be ruled out with normal bilirubin levels. Biliary colic, on the other hand, would not exhibit peritonism and an elevated white cell count. It is important to note that these symptoms can help in the diagnosis and treatment of gallstone disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a burning sensation in his right leg while walking. The pain occurs only during physical activity and subsides with rest. He has a medical history of hypertension and has suffered two heart attacks in the past. He is currently taking ramipril, amlodipine, aspirin, and atorvastatin. He is a former smoker with a 20-pack-year history. An ECG reveals a normal sinus rhythm, and the ankle-brachial pressure index in his right leg is 0.67. What is the most appropriate initial recommendation for this patient, given the most likely diagnosis, after advising him to quit smoking and optimizing his hypertension management?
Your Answer: Referral for angioplasty
Correct Answer: Exercise training
Explanation:Peripheral arterial disease can be improved with exercise training, which has been shown to be beneficial. In addition to lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, smoking cessation, and diet, patients should be referred to smoking cessation services and have their comorbidities managed. Aspirin is already being taken by this patient due to a previous myocardial infarction. Naftidrofuryl oxalate is a vasodilator drug used in the treatment of peripheral arterial disease, but exercise training should be recommended first. Angioplasty is a treatment for severe peripheral arterial disease or critical limb ischaemia, which is not applicable to this patient with an ABPI of 0.67 suggesting intermittent claudication. Amputation is a last resort for irreversible limb ischaemia. Bypass surgery is another potential treatment for critical limb ischaemia, but surgical options would only be considered if conservative management, such as exercise training, failed.
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions.
For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.
There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of frequent urination and dribbling. He reports going to the bathroom six times per hour and waking up multiple times at night to urinate. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia, and is currently taking finasteride and tamsulosin. On physical examination, the doctor notes an enlarged, symmetrical, firm, and non-tender prostate. The patient denies any changes in weight, fever, or appetite. His International Prostate Symptom Score is 20. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Add sildenafil
Correct Answer: Add tolterodine
Explanation:Tolterodine should be added to the management plan for patients with an overactive bladder, particularly those with voiding and storage symptoms such as dribbling, frequency, and nocturia, which are commonly caused by benign prostatic hyperplasia in men. If alpha-blockers like tamsulosin are not effective, antimuscarinic agents can be added according to NICE guidelines. Adding alfuzosin or sildenafil would be inappropriate, and changing the alpha-blocker is not recommended.
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.
For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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