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Question 1
Incorrect
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Regarding local anaesthetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Prilocaine is the principal drug used for Bier's block.
Correct Answer: Adrenaline should be used in digital nerve blocks to create a bloodless field.
Explanation:It is not advisable to give adrenaline/epinephrine with a local anaesthetic injection in digits or appendages because of the risk of ischaemic necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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Cardiac myocytes contract by excitation-contraction coupling, very much like skeletal myocytes. On the other hand, calcium-induced calcium release (CICR) is a mechanism that is unique to Cardiac myocytes. The influx of calcium ions (Ca 2+) into the cell causes a 'calcium spark,' which causes more ions to be released into the cytoplasm.In CICR, which membrane protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum is involved?Â
Your Answer: Ryanodine receptor
Explanation:Cardiac myocytes contract by excitation-contraction coupling, just like skeletal myocytes. Heart myocytes, on the other hand, utilise a calcium-induced calcium release mechanism that is unique to cardiac muscle (CICR). The influx of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the cell causes a ‘calcium spark,’ which causes more ions to be released into the cytoplasm.An influx of sodium ions induces an initial depolarisation, much as it does in skeletal muscle; however, in cardiac muscle, the inflow of Ca2+ sustains the depolarisation, allowing it to remain longer. Due to potassium ion (K+) inflow, CICR causes a plateau phase in which the cells remain depolarized for a short time before repolarizing. Skeletal muscle, on the other hand, repolarizes almost instantly.The release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is required for calcium-induced calcium release (CICR). This is mostly accomplished by ryanodine receptors (RyR) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane; Ca2+ binds to RyR, causing additional Ca2+ to be released.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with BPH presents to the emergency department in significant pain secondary to urinary retention. What is the location of the neuronal cell bodies that are responsible for urinary bladder discomfort sensation?
Your Answer: Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord levels S2, S3 and S4
Explanation:The activation of stretch receptors with visceral afferents relayed through the pelvic nerve plexus and into the pelvic splanchnic nerves causes bladder pain. The sensory fibres of spinal nerves S2 – S4 enter the dorsal root ganglia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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The patient is a 78-year-old woman who has recently developed left-sided hemiplegia. A CT head scan is performed, and the diagnosis of an ischaemic stroke is confirmed. Her blood pressure is currently very high, with the most recent measurement being 196/124 mmHg, according to the nurse in charge. While you wait for the stroke team to review her, she asks you to prescribe something to help lower the patient's blood pressure.Which of the following is the best drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?
Your Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.In the setting of a stroke syndrome (i.e., in the presence of focal neurological deficits), hypertensive emergencies usually necessitate a slower and more controlled blood pressure reduction than in other situations. Rapid reduction of MAP in the presence of an ischaemic stroke can compromise blood flow, leading to further ischaemia and worsening of the neurological deficit. In this situation, intravenous labetalol is the drug of choice for lowering blood pressure.Significantly elevated blood pressure (>185/110 mmHg) is a contraindication to thrombolysis, but there is some evidence for controlling blood pressure before thrombolysis in exceptional circumstances, when it is only slightly above this threshold.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding hepatitis C, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Hepatitis C becomes chronic in about 80% of infected patients.
Correct Answer: Anti-HCV IgG antibodies are diagnostic of acute infection.
Explanation:Anti-HCV IgG antibodies indicate exposure to hepatitis C but this could be acute, chronic or resolved infection. If the antibody test is positive, HCV RNA should be tested for, which if positive indicates that a person has current infection with active hepatitis C.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis:
Your Answer: Methaemalbuminaemia
Correct Answer: Bilirubinuria
Explanation:Features of intravascular haemolysis include:haemoglobinaemia, methaemalbuminaemia, haemoglobinuria (dark urine) and haemosiderinuria
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 7
Correct
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Insulin binds to the insulin receptor (IR) on cell surfaces to exert its action. The IR is a very specific transmembrane receptor belonging to the tyrosine kinase receptor class.One of these also activates the IR:
Your Answer: Pancreatic polypeptide
Correct Answer: IGF-I
Explanation:Insulin receptor (IR), in addition to being activated by insulin, is also activated by IGF-I and IGF-II.The IR is a dimer with two identical subunits spanning the cell membrane and are connected by a single disulphide bond. The two sub-units include: The alpha chain situated on the exterior of the cell membrane and the beta chain spanning the cell membrane in a single segment. When insulin is detected, the alpha chains move together folding around the insulin making the beta chains move together, converting them into an active tyrosine kinase. This initiates a phosphorylation cascade increasing the expression of GLUT4 and allowing uptake of glucose by cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Regarding apoptosis, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Apoptosis is mediated by activation of a caspase cascade.
Correct Answer: Apoptosis leads to cell swelling and eventual cell lysis.
Explanation:Apoptosis is a controlled form of cell death in which no cellular contents are released from the dying cell, and thus no inflammatory reaction is seen. Apoptosis may occur physiologically or pathologically. Apoptosis may be induced in two main ways: by the engagement of surface death receptors e.g. TNF-alpha (extrinsic pathway) or through cellular injury (intrinsic pathway). The end result is the activation of proteases enzymes called caspases which dismantle the cell cytoplasm and nucleus. Apoptotic cells shrink down and fragment into apoptotic bodies, each of which retains an intact cell membrane; apoptotic bodies are then targeted or rapid removal by adjacent cells. Disordered apoptosis is thought to be central to a number of important disease processes, particularly carcinogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammatory Responses
- Pathology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought into the paediatric emergency room by her mother in a state of high-grade fever and extreme irritability. She is also reluctant to urinate as it is associated with lower abdominal pain and stinging. She has no history of any UTIs requiring antibiotics in the past 12 months. The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. A clean catch urine sample is taken for urine dipstick, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrites. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be 40 ml/minute. Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:The NICE guidelines for children and young people under 16 years lower UTIs are:1. Get a urine sample before antibiotics are taken, and do a dipstick test OR send for culture and susceptibility2. Assess and manage children under 5 with lower UTI with fever as recommended in the NICE guideline on fever in under 5s.3. Prescribe an immediate antibiotic prescription and take into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results, previous antibiotic use, which may have led to resistant bacteria4. If urine culture and susceptibility report is sent- Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available AND- change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant and symptoms are not improving, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possibleThe choice of antibiotics for non-pregnant young people under 16 years with lower UTI is summarised below:1. Children under 3 months:- Refer to paediatric specialist and treat with intravenous antibiotic in line with NICE guideline on fever in under 5s2. Children over 3 months: – First-choice Nitrofurantoin – if eGFR >45 ml/minuteTrimethoprim – (if low risk of resistance*)- Second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice not suitable)Nitrofurantoin – if eGFR >45 ml/minute and not used as first-choiceAmoxicillin (only if culture results available and susceptible)Cefalexin
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following is an action of glucagon:
Your Answer: Stimulates glycogenolysis
Explanation:Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline. Glucagon then causes:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissueThe secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:AdrenalineCholecystokininArginineAlanineAcetylcholineThe secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 29 year old patient with known inflammatory bowel disease presents to ED with surgical complications following his recent ileocaecal resection. Removal of the terminal ileum may result in the malabsorption of which of the following:
Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:On ingestion, vitamin B12 is bound to R protein found in saliva and gastric secretions, which protects it from digestion in the stomach. Intrinsic factor is secreted by gastric parietal cells. Receptors for the IF-B12 complex are present in the membrane of epithelial cells of the terminal ileum, which bind the complex and allow uptake of vitamin B12 across the apical membrane by endocytosis. Vitamin B12 is then transported across the basal membrane into the portal blood where it is bound to transcobalamin II and processed by the liver. In pernicious anaemia, there are autoantibodies against gastric parietal cells and intrinsic factor, resulting in vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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One of your patients is undergoing resuscitation and is in septic shock. The intensive care outreach team arrives to assess them and determines that a dobutamine infusion should be started.Which of the following receptors does dobutamine primarily affect?
Your Answer: Alpha-1 receptors
Correct Answer: Beta-1 receptors
Explanation:Dobutamine is a synthetic isoprenaline derivative that is used to provide inotropic support to patients with low cardiac output caused by septic shock, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac conditions.Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to produce its primary effect. As a result, it has inotropic properties that increase cardiac contractility and output. It also has a small amount of alpha1- and beta-2-adrenergic activity.A summary of the mechanism and effects of different inotropic agents is shown below:InotropeMechanismEffectsAdrenaline (epinephrine)Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;Alpha-agonist at high dosesIncreased cardiac output;Vasoconstriction at higher dosesNoradrenaline (norepinephrine)Mainly alpha-agonist;Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing dosesVasoconstriction;Some increased cardiac outputDopamineDopamine agonist at low doses;Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;Alpha-agonist at high dosesIncreased cardiac output;Vasoconstriction at higher dosesDobutamineMainly beta-1 agonistIncreased cardiac output
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Gentamicin is contraindicated in which of the following:
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Gentamicin is the aminoglycoside of choice in the UK and is used widely for the treatment of serious infections. It has a broad spectrum but is inactive against anaerobes and has poor activity against haemolytic streptococci and pneumococci. When used for the blind therapy of undiagnosed serious infections it is usually given in conjunction with a penicillin or metronidazole (or both). The main toxic effects are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity due to damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).Gentamicin is contraindicated in myasthenia gravis and should be used with caution in renal disease which may result in accumulation and a greater risk of toxic side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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All of the following statement about the microcirculation are correct except:
Your Answer: Plasma oncotic pressure tends to draw fluid intravascularly.
Correct Answer: Over the capillary bed, there is a net absorption of fluid.
Explanation:The hydrostatic pressure along the length of the capillary is usually greater than plasma oncotic pressure. As a result, there is a small net filtration of fluid from the capillary into the interstitial space. The regulation of blood flow into the microcirculation is via the vasoconstriction of small arterioles, which is activated by the sympathetic nervous system through numerous nerve endings in their walls. Unlike proteins, most ions and small molecules diffuse easily across capillary walls and thus the crystalloid osmotic pressure they exert is roughly the same on either side of the capillary wall. Because the plasma colloid osmotic pressure is higher than interstitial colloid osmotic, fluid is drawn intravascularly. A reduction of hydrostatic capillary pressure and transient increase in absorption of fluid is a result of arteriolar constriction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 16
Correct
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The common bile duct drains into the duodenum in which of the following regions:
Your Answer: Second part of the duodenum
Explanation:As the common bile duct descends, it passes posterior to the first part of the duodenum before joining with the pancreatic duct from the pancreas, forming the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater) at the major duodenal papilla, located in the second part of the duodenum. Surrounding the ampulla is the sphincter of Oddi, a collection of smooth muscle which can open to allow bile and pancreatic fluid to empty into the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The mechanism of action of abciximab is by:
Your Answer: Inhibition of thrombin-induced platelet aggregation
Correct Answer: Blocking the binding of fibrinogen to GPIIb/IIIa receptor sites
Explanation:Abciximab is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors and prevents platelet aggregation by blocking the binding of fibrinogen to receptors on platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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What type of pump is the Na+/K+ATPase pump?
Your Answer: An antiporter
Explanation:In order for primary active transport to pump ions against their electrochemical gradient, chemical energy is used in the form of ATP. This is facilitated by the Na+/K+-ATPase antiporter pump, which uses metabolic energy to move 3 Na+ions out of the cell for every 2 K+ions that come in, against their respective electrochemical gradients. As a result, the cell the maintains a high intracellular concentration of K+ions and a low concentration of Na+ions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 19
Correct
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You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall all of his medications, but he does know that he takes a diuretic.The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is inhibited by which of the following diuretics?
Your Answer: Acetazolamide
Explanation:Acetazolamide is a non-competitive, reversible inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase found in the cytosol of cells and on the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule. Bicarbonate and hydrogen ions are converted to carbonic acid by carbonic anhydrase, which then converts carbonic acid to carbon dioxide and water. As a result, acetazolamide reduces the availability of hydrogen ions, causing sodium and bicarbonate ions to accumulate in the renal tubule, resulting in diuresis.The mechanism of action of the various types of diuretics is summarised below:1) Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide, bumetanideAct on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporters in the ascending loop of Henlé to inhibit sodium, chloride and potassium reabsorption.2) Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide, hydrochlorothiazideAct on the Na.Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption.3) Osmotic diuretics, e.g. mannitolIncreases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect.4) Aldosterone antagonists, e.g. spironolactoneActs in the distal convoluted tubule as a competitive aldosterone antagonist resulting in inhibition of sodium reabsorption and increasing potassium reabsorption.5) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, e.g. acetazolamideInhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase preventing the conversion of bicarbonate and hydrogen ions into carbonic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child has been convulsing for 20 minutes. She has received two doses of lorazepam. She takes phenytoin for maintenance therapy, and you draw up a phenobarbitone infusion.What dose of phenobarbitone is advised in the treatment of the convulsing child that reaches that stage of the APLS algorithm? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: 5 mg/kg over 30-60 minutes
Correct Answer: 20 mg/kg over 30-60 minutes
Explanation:If a convulsing child reaches step 3 of the APLS algorithm, then a phenytoin infusion should be set up at 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes. If they are already taken phenytoin as maintenance therapy, then a phenobarbitone infusion should be set up at 20 mg/kg over 30-60 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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After an accidental fall, a 75-year-old patient complains of neck pain and weakness in his upper limbs. Select the condition that most likely caused the neck pain and weakness of the upper limbs of the patient.
Your Answer: Anterior cord syndrome
Correct Answer: Central cord syndrome
Explanation:The cervical spinal cord is the section of the spinal cord that goes through the bones of the neck. It is injured incompletely in the central cord syndrome (CCS). This will result in arm weakness more than leg weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In the foetus at 4 months gestation, where does haematopoiesis mainly occur?
Your Answer: Marrow of axial skeleton
Correct Answer: Liver and spleen
Explanation:The first place that haematopoiesis occurs in the foetus is in the yolk sac. Later on, it occurs in the liver and spleen, which are the major hematopoietic organs from about 6 weeks until 6 – 7 months gestation. At this point, the bone marrow becomes the most important site. Haemopoiesis is restricted to the bone marrow in normal childhood and adult life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60 -year-old man is tested to have low calcium levels . After additional questioning, it becomes clear that he has a calcium-deficient diet.What is the daily calcium intake recommendation for a healthy adult?Â
Your Answer: 2000 mg
Correct Answer: 1300 mg
Explanation:A daily calcium intake of 1,000 to 1,300 mg is advised for adults. Women have a slightly higher calcium need than men and are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis as they age.Calcium-rich foods include the following:Milk, cheese, and butter as dairy products.Broccoli, spinach, and green beans as green veggies.Bread, rice, and cereals as whole grain foods.Sardines, salmon, and other bony fishEggsNutsThe following foods have the least calcium:CarrotFruits such as kiwis, raspberries, oranges, and papayaChicken and pork in meats.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about vitamin B12 absorption is TRUE:
Your Answer: Receptors for the vitamin B12/Intrinsic factor complex are found in the duodenum allowing uptake of vitamin B12.
Correct Answer: On ingestion, vitamin B12 is bound to R protein which protects it from digestion in the stomach.
Explanation:The substance intrinsic factor,essential for absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum, issecreted by the parietal cells along with the secretion ofhydrochloric acid. When the acid-producing parietalcells of the stomach are destroyed, which frequentlyoccurs in chronic gastritis, the person develops not onlyachlorhydria (lack of stomach acid secretion) but oftenalso pernicious anaemia because of failure of maturationof the red blood cells in the absence of vitamin B12 stimulation of the bone marrow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following hormones regulates Na+reabsorption in the proximal tubule:
Your Answer: Renin
Correct Answer: Angiotensin II
Explanation:Angiotensin II increases Na+reabsorption from the proximal tubule (by activating Na+/H+antiporters).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Regarding dermatophytes, which of the following statement is CORRECT:
Your Answer: First-line treatment is usually with oral terbinafine.
Correct Answer: Diagnosis is made from microscopy and culture of skin scrapings, hair samples or nail clippings.
Explanation:Diagnosis is made from microscopy and culture of skin scrapings, hair samples or nail clippings depending on the site of infection. The lesions of ringworm typically have a dark outer ring with a pale centre. Tinea capitis is ringworm affecting the head and scalp. Spread is via direct skin contact. Treatment is usually topical, oral antifungals are reserved for refractory infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 27
Incorrect
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After collapsing in his nursing home, a 70-year-old man is brought into the ER. He is a known case of diabetes mellitus and is on medication for it. An RBS of 2.5 mmol/L (3.9-5.5 mmol/L) is recorded in the ER. Out of the following, which medication for diabetes mellitus is MOST likely responsible for his hypoglycaemic episode?
Your Answer: Sitagliptin
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Pioglitazone is used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It selectively stimulates the nuclear receptor peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-γ) and to a lesser extent PPAR-α. Of the medications mentioned in this question, only pioglitazone is a recognized cause of hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Correct
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Mast cells play a significant part in which of the following?
Your Answer: Allergic disease
Explanation:Mast cells play a central role in the response to allergen challenges. The activation of mast cells results in both an early and a delayed phase of inflammation. Mast cells have been implicated in both physiologic and pathogenic processes. Mast cells are important in defence against some bacteria and viruses and contribute to defence against parasites. They are key effector cells in both innate and acquired immunity and are capable of inducing and amplifying both types of responses. Specifically, mast cells are capable of detecting microbial products through surface pattern recognition receptors, and they are involved in the recruitment of other leukocytes, containment of bacterial infections, and tissue repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The following statements are not true of the flexor digiti minimi brevis, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is situated on the radial border of abductor digiti minimi
Explanation:Flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle is located on the ulnar side of the palm, lying on the radial border of the abductor digiti minimi. Together with the abductor digiti minimi and opponens digiti minimi muscles, it forms the hypothenar eminence. The muscle is situated inferior and lateral to adductor digiti minimi muscle and superior and medial to opponens digiti minimi muscle. The proximal parts of flexor digiti minimi brevis and abductor digiti minimi muscles form a gap through which deep branches of the ulnar artery and ulnar nerve pass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Despite taking the oral contraceptive pill, a 29-year-old woman becomes pregnant. During a medication review, you discover that she is epileptic and that her antiepileptic therapy has recently been changed.Which of the following antiepileptics is most likely to impair the oral contraceptive pill's effectiveness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:The metabolism of ethinyl oestradiol and progestogens has been shown to be increased by enzyme-inducing antiepileptics. The oral contraceptive pill (OCP) is less effective in preventing pregnancy as a result of this increased breakdown.Antiepileptic drugs that induce enzymes include:CarbamazepinePhenytoinPhenobarbitalTopiramateAntiepileptics that do not induce enzymes are unlikely to affect contraception. Non-enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants include the following:ClonazepamGabapentinLevetiracetamPiracetamSodium valproate is a type of valproate that is used toLamotrigine is an antiepileptic drug that does not cause the production of enzymes. It does, however, require special consideration, unlike other non-enzyme-inducing antiepileptics. The OCP does not appear to affect epilepsy directly, but it does appear to lower lamotrigine levels in the blood. This could result in a loss of seizure control and the occurrence of seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
