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Question 1
Correct
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You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant. The midstream specimen of urine (MSU) indicates bacteriuria. During the discussion with the patient, she reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or fever. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin for 7 days
Explanation:Antibiotics should be administered promptly to pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman who has had systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for a number of years complains of facial swelling, which she thinks might be due to a food allergy. On examination, she has facial oedema, raised blood pressure at 170/100 mmHg and although she can only produce a small amount of urine, dipstick testing is strongly positive for blood and protein.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Understanding Nephritis, Angioedema, Chronic Liver Disease, and Hypertensive Emergencies
Nephritis is a condition that causes haematuria, oliguria, proteinuria, facial oedema, and hypertension. It can be caused by various factors, but it is a common complication of SLE, affecting 30-55% of patients. Hypertension is a poor prognostic sign in these patients.
Angioedema, on the other hand, causes facial swelling due to an allergic reaction and is not typically associated with renal abnormalities. Urinary tract infections do not usually cause heavy proteinuria and facial swelling. Chronic liver disease can cause hypoalbuminaemia, but it doesn’t typically cause renal abnormalities on its own.
Hypertensive emergencies include accelerated hypertension and malignant hypertension. Both conditions result in target organ damage due to a recent increase in blood pressure to very high levels (usually ≥180 mm Hg systolic and ≥110 mm Hg diastolic). This damage is usually seen as neurological (e.g., encephalopathy), cardiovascular, or renal damage. In malignant hypertension, papilloedema is present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of severe pain in the left flank and left lower abdomen with radiation to the left testicle. He reports that he woke up with the pain, but was “fine last night”. The clinician suspects uncomplicated renal colic.
What feature would best support this diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Renal Colic
Renal colic is a condition characterized by sudden and severe pain caused by stones in the urinary tract. The pain typically starts in the loin and moves to the groin, with tenderness in the renal angle. Patients with renal colic may experience periods of relief or dull aches before the pain returns. Other symptoms include microscopic haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Unlike patients with peritoneal irritation, those with renal colic may writhe around in agony and have increased bowel sounds. Apyrexia is common in uncomplicated cases, while pyrexia suggests infection. It’s important to note that although there may be severe pain in the testis, the testis itself should not be tender. Understanding these symptoms can help with the diagnosis and management of renal colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with haematuria. Investigations confirm the presence of a bladder carcinoma.
In his occupational history, select the single substance exposure which would be a significant risk factor for his current diagnosis.Your Answer: Arsenic
Correct Answer: Aromatic amines
Explanation:Occupational and Environmental Carcinogens: A Brief Overview
Exposure to certain chemicals and substances in the workplace and environment can increase the risk of developing cancer. Bladder carcinoma, for example, is linked to exposure to aromatic amines found in various industries such as dyes, paints, and textiles. Smoking is also a major contributor to bladder cancer. Asbestos, commonly found in construction materials, increases the risk of lung cancer and mesothelioma. Vinyl chloride, used in plastic production and tobacco smoke, is associated with liver cancer, brain cancer, lung cancer, lymphoma, and leukemia. Arsenic exposure predisposes individuals to skin cancer, while nickel exposure increases the risk of squamous-cell carcinomas in the lung and nasal cavity. It is important for individuals to be aware of potential carcinogens in their workplace and environment to take necessary precautions and reduce their risk of developing cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) has transferred to the surgery. He is reviewed in clinic and it is noted that his vaccination history is not up to date. The patient's renal disease is advanced and he says that his renal specialist has been discussing the potential for haemodialysis and eventually transplantation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination regimen for this patient?Your Answer: Hepatitis B, influenza and pneumococcal
Explanation:Vaccination Recommendations for Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) are at increased risk of infections due to their compromised immune system. Vaccination is an important preventive measure for these patients. The following vaccines are recommended for patients with CKD:
Hepatitis B, influenza, and Pneumococcal Vaccines
Patients on Renal Replacement Therapy (RRT) or those likely to require RRT in the future should receive the standard series of three doses of hepatitis B vaccine. influenza vaccine should be given annually to all patients with CKD. Patients with CKD 3 or above should be offered two doses of Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) two months apart, followed by a booster dose of PCV every five years.Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B Vaccine
Patients with haemophilia should receive the combination of Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B vaccine.Hib MenC, Men B Pneumococcal Vaccine
Patients with a defective spleen, such as those with sickle cell disease or those who have had or will require splenectomy, should receive this combination vaccine.influenza and Pneumococcal and BCG Vaccine
The BCG vaccine is not recommended for patients with CKD unless they are at increased risk of tuberculosis.It is important to note that immunisation should be given early in the course of progressive renal disease to maximise the chance of immunity. Live vaccines may need to be deferred in severely immunocompromised patients, but the majority of patients with CKD have sufficient immune function to safely receive live vaccines if there is no inactivated form available. Patients should also be monitored for antibody levels and offered booster doses as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of dysuria, frequent urination, and malaise for the past week. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant. Upon examination, a dipstick test reveals nitrites ++ and leukocytes ++, and a urine culture is ordered.
What is the initial management strategy that should be employed?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin PO
Explanation:When a pregnant woman presents with symptoms of a UTI such as dysuria, frequency, and malaise, nitrofurantoin is the first-line treatment option. However, if the woman is close to term, this medication should be avoided. A urine culture should be sent and if necessary, second-line antibiotics such as amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used. For non-pregnant women, trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin are the recommended treatments. In cases of acute pyelonephritis, IV cefuroxime is a viable antibiotic option.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with prostate cancer from the given options?
Your Answer: Prostate-specific antigen
Explanation:The Controversy Surrounding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
The introduction of the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test has led to increased awareness and earlier diagnosis of prostate cancer. However, the use of PSA testing for screening purposes remains controversial. While PSA is currently the best method for detecting localized prostate cancer and monitoring treatment response, it lacks specificity as it is also increased in patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy. Additionally, the effectiveness and cost-effectiveness of treating localized cancer is still uncertain.
Bone scans at diagnosis are likely unnecessary for patients with a PSA below 20 ng/ml, as bone metastases are unlikely at this level. Repeated bone scans during treatment are also unnecessary unless there are clinical indications, as repeated PSA tests are just as effective and more cost-effective. Biopsies under transrectal-ultrasound control are now commonly used for diagnosing prostate cancer, with a PSA exceeding 4 ng/ml being the usual indication for biopsy.
PSA is a protease produced exclusively by epithelial prostatic cells, both benign and malignant. It breaks down the high molecular weight protein of the seminal coagulum, resulting in more liquid semen. PSA testing is also useful for monitoring therapy in patients with prostate cancer.
Overall, the lack of specificity of the PSA test, combined with a lack of knowledge about the epidemiology and natural history of prostate cancer, are reasons against instituting a national screening program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy experiences urinary retention and an acute kidney injury. Which medication should be discontinued?
Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Due to the risk of lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued as the patient has developed an acute kidney injury. Additionally, in the future, it may be necessary to discontinue paroxetine as SSRIs can exacerbate urinary retention.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy visits his GP with his mother after he observed blood in his urine two days after receiving treatment for tonsillitis. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, it is positive for blood and protein. The doctor sends a sample for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity and receives the following results: Growth < 104 cfu/ml, Large numbers of red blood cells, < 10/mm3 of white blood cells, and red-cell casts in microscopy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Haematuria: A Brief Overview
Haematuria, or the presence of blood in the urine, can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is glomerulonephritis, which is indicated by the presence of red-cell casts in the urine. In particular, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) may be suspected if the patient has a recent history of tonsillitis. PSGN typically resolves on its own, but symptom control and infection removal may be necessary.
Another possible cause of haematuria is myoglobinuria, which is characterized by a positive urine dipstick but the absence of red-cell casts. Myoglobinuria is an early sign of rhabdomyolysis, which requires fluid resuscitation and further investigations into renal function and creatine kinase.
Porphyria, on the other hand, may cause dark or reddish urine due to excessive excretion of haem precursors. However, red-cell casts are not present and a urine dipstick would not be positive for blood.
Renal calculus, or kidney stones, is unlikely in a young patient and would typically be accompanied by severe pain. No casts would be present in this case.
Finally, a urinary tract infection (UTI) may cause haematuria, but a diagnosis requires significant bacteriuria, which is defined as greater than 100,000 colonies of bacteria per milliliter of urine. Counts between 10,000 and 100,000 are indeterminate, while counts below 10,000 are considered normal. Sensitivity testing may be necessary to determine the appropriate antibiotics for treatment.
In summary, the presence of red-cell casts in the urine suggests glomerulonephritis, while a positive urine dipstick without casts may indicate myoglobinuria. Other possible causes of haematuria include porphyria, renal calculus, and UTI, but these require further investigation and testing for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half of his left testicle for the past 2 weeks. What is the most appropriate course of action to take?
Your Answer: Prescribe antibiotics
Correct Answer: Testicular ultrasound
Explanation:Testicular Cancer: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis
Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that typically affects young men in their third or fourth decade of life. The most common symptom is a painless, unilateral mass in the scrotum, but in about 20% of cases, scrotal pain may be the first symptom. Unfortunately, in about 10% of cases, a testicular tumor can be mistaken for epididymo orchitis, leading to a delay in the correct diagnosis.
Diagnostic ultrasound is the most effective way to confirm the presence of a testicular mass and explore the contralateral testis. It has a sensitivity of almost 100% in detecting a testicular tumor and can determine whether a mass is intra- or extratesticular. Even if a testicular tumor is clinically evident, an ultrasound should still be performed as it is an inexpensive test.
Serum tumor markers, including αfetoprotein, HCG, and LDH, are important prognostic factors and contribute to diagnosis and staging. In about half of all cases of testicular cancer, markers are increased, but there is variation between different cancers and different markers.
In conclusion, early detection and diagnosis of testicular cancer are crucial for successful treatment and a positive prognosis. Men should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their testicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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