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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old woman with a history of intermittent ringing sound in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman with a history of intermittent ringing sound in her left ear for the last six months presents to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Department. She describes the ringing sound to be pulsatile in nature. She has no history of fever, hearing loss, trauma or any recent ear infections. Her past medical history includes a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis under remission for the past two years. Clinical examination of the head and neck is unremarkable.
      Which is the most appropriate investigation which will help to reach a final diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance angiography

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) (contrast-enhanced) scan of the temporal bone

      Explanation:

      Investigating Pulsatile Tinnitus in a Patient with Multiple Sclerosis

      Pulsatile tinnitus, a constant ringing or humming sound perceived in the absence of actual sound, can be psychologically debilitating to the patient. In a patient with multiple sclerosis, pulsatile tinnitus may be caused by spontaneous spasm of middle ear muscles. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging for all patients with pulsatile tinnitus to identify the underlying cause. In this case, contrast-enhanced CT scanning of the temporal bone is the best investigation to identify middle ear/osseous pathology. Tympanometry and otoscopy can also be valuable initial investigations for suspected middle ear pathologies. Magnetic resonance angiography is not the best investigation in this scenario as the patient’s history suggests a muscular cause of pulsatile tinnitus. Weber’s test is not relevant in this case as the patient does not report any hearing loss.

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  • Question 2 - A woman in her early 50s, who is a singer, has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early 50s, who is a singer, has a history of thyroid surgery and needs another procedure due to recurrent thyroid carcinoma. Following the surgery, she experiences a change in her voice and is unable to reach high notes while singing. During flexible laryngoscopy, it is observed that her left vocal cord does not elongate during phonation.
      Which nerve is likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerves Related to the Thyroid Gland and Their Risks in Surgery

      The thyroid gland is closely related to several nerves, including the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, recurrent laryngeal nerve, ansa cervicalis nerve, hypoglossal nerve, and lingual nerve. During neck dissection or surgery involving the thyroid or submandibular gland, these nerves may be at risk of damage.

      The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle, which elongates the vocal cords. Damage to this nerve can result in an inability to produce high-frequency notes. The recurrent laryngeal nerve, on the other hand, innervates all intrinsic muscles of the thyroid except the cricothyroid muscle. Its injury can cause hoarseness and difficulty in adducting the vocal cords, leading to an aspiration risk.

      The ansa cervicalis nerve is located superiorly to the thyroid and may be unavoidable to divide during surgery. The hypoglossal nerve is found even more superiorly and is at risk in submandibular gland excision and neck dissection. The lingual nerve is also located superiorly and may be at risk in submandibular gland excision, along with the hypoglossal nerve and the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve.

      In summary, surgeons must be aware of the location and function of these nerves to minimize the risk of damage during thyroid or submandibular gland surgery.

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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old man is referred to an otolaryngologist with vertigo and hearing loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is referred to an otolaryngologist with vertigo and hearing loss. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the cranial region reveals a tumour at the cerebellopontine angle. A working diagnosis of acoustic neuroma is made. In light of the progressive symptoms, the surgeon plans to remove the tumour.
      With regard to the vestibulocochlear nerve, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: The vestibulocochlear nerve exits the cranium through the jugular foramen

      Correct Answer: Vestibular fibres pass to the vestibular nuclear complex, located in the floor of the fourth ventricle

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Vestibulocochlear Nerve

      The vestibulocochlear nerve, also known as the eighth cranial nerve, is responsible for carrying special sensory afferent fibers from the inner ear. It is composed of two portions: the vestibular nerve and the cochlear nerve. The vestibular fibers pass to the vestibular nuclear complex, located in the floor of the fourth ventricle, while the cochlear fibers pass to the cochlear nuclear complex, located across the junction between the pons and medulla.

      Acoustic neuromas, which are tumors that commonly arise from the vestibular portion of the nerve, are also known as vestibular schwannomas. The efferent nerve supply to the tensor tympani, a muscle in the middle ear, is provided by the mandibular branch of the fifth cranial nerve.

      The vestibulocochlear nerve enters the brainstem at the pontomedullary junction, lateral to the facial nerve. It then passes into the temporal bone via the internal auditory meatus, along with the facial nerve. It does not exit the cranium through the jugular foramen, which is where the ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves exit. Understanding the anatomy of the vestibulocochlear nerve is important in diagnosing and treating disorders related to hearing and balance.

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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old asylum seeker from Africa presents to the Surgical Outpatient Clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old asylum seeker from Africa presents to the Surgical Outpatient Clinic with a mass on the right side of his neck that has been growing in size. On examination, a mass is found on the side of the neck, behind the sternocleidomastoid muscle, which transilluminates brightly. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Branchial cyst

      Correct Answer: Cystic hygroma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Neck Abnormalities: Cystic Hygroma, Laryngocoele, Cervical Rib, Branchial Cyst, and Enlarged Lymph Node

      Neck abnormalities can be challenging to differentiate, but understanding their characteristics can aid in proper diagnosis. Cystic hygromas are lymphatic abnormalities that are commonly found in the posterior triangle of the neck and transilluminate. They may not be noticeable at birth but typically grow as the child grows. Laryngoceles are abnormal cystic dilatations of the saccule or appendix of the laryngeal ventricle, which communicate with the lumen of the larynx and are filled with air. They are usually benign but can cause airway obstruction. Cervical ribs are extra ribs that arise from the seventh cervical vertebra and are located above the first rib. They do not transilluminate. Branchial cysts are remnants of the second branchial cleft and occur along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid, most commonly at the junction of the lower and middle thirds of the muscle. They do not transilluminate. Enlarged lymph nodes are usually secondary to an infection and settle to normal size after six to eight weeks. Understanding the characteristics of these neck abnormalities can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old patient experiences a severe nose bleed after being hit directly in...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old patient experiences a severe nose bleed after being hit directly in the nose during a rugby game. The bleeding is resolved with direct pressure and packing of the nose. Which vascular territory is most likely to have been impacted?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, can occur from two areas: the anterior bleed from the Kiesselbach’s plexus and the posterior bleed from the sphenopalatine artery. The former is usually caused by trauma, while the latter is due to underlying pathologies such as hypertension or old age.

      To manage epistaxis, direct pressure to the bleeding point, packing of the nose, or surgical ligation or selective embolisation of the relevant artery may be necessary. It is important to check clotting and haemoglobin levels, especially in significant episodes of epistaxis that may lead to considerable blood loss, which can be masked by ingestion of the blood into the digestive tract.

      It is worth noting that the nasal artery and the superficial temporal artery are not involved in epistaxis, while the zygomatic artery has no significant role in it. Understanding the causes and management of epistaxis can help individuals respond appropriately to this common medical condition.

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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old woman presents following a fall. During an assessment of her fall,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents following a fall. During an assessment of her fall, she complained of balance problems, nausea and dizziness whenever she moves her head or looks up, eg to hang laundry on her washing line outside. She denies loss of consciousness and did not injure herself during the fall. Her past medical history consists of osteoarthritis of the knees and lower back.
      On examination, her gait and balance and neurological examination are normal and there are no injuries. The Hallpike test is positive.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s vertigo?

      Your Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that can cause dizziness and vertigo. The best first-line management option for BPPV is the Epley manoeuvre, which can reposition the debris in the vestibular canals and provide rapid relief. If symptoms persist, investigations may be necessary to rule out more serious brain pathologies, but a brain MRI is not typically required for a BPPV diagnosis. Medications such as prochlorperazine or betahistine may help with symptoms in the short term, but they do not treat the underlying cause. Vestibular retraining exercises, such as Brandt-Daroff exercises, can also be effective if symptoms persist despite the Epley manoeuvre.

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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician to discuss the possibility of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician to discuss the possibility of tonsillectomy referral. She has experienced four instances of acute tonsillitis annually for the past five years. Some of these have necessitated antibiotics while others have been treated conservatively. As a graduate student, each of these occurrences has been debilitating, causing her to miss multiple days of classes. What is an indication for referral for tonsillectomy for tonsillitis?

      Your Answer: One severe episode of tonsillitis requiring admission

      Correct Answer: Episodes of tonsillitis are disabling and prevent normal functioning

      Explanation:

      When to Consider Tonsillectomy for Recurrent Tonsillitis

      Recurrent tonsillitis can be a debilitating condition that affects daily functioning. However, before considering tonsillectomy as a treatment option, it is important to confirm the diagnosis of recurrent tonsillitis through history and clinical examination. Additionally, it should be noted that tonsillectomy may only prevent recurrent acute attacks of tonsillitis and not sore throats due to other causes.

      The national clinical guidelines suggest different criteria for referral for tonsillectomy based on the frequency and severity of tonsillitis episodes. One severe episode may not be enough to warrant surgery, while five or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in the preceding year may be an indication for referral. However, it is important to consider whether the frequency of episodes is increasing or decreasing, as the natural history of tonsillitis is for episodes to become less frequent over time.

      For those with three or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in each of the preceding two or three years, referral for surgery may also be considered. However, it is important to keep in mind that tonsillectomy requires a short hospital admission, general anaesthetic, and can be painful. Recovery time can also result in a loss of time from education or work.

      Overall, the decision to consider tonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the frequency and severity of episodes, as well as the potential risks and benefits of surgery.

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  • Question 8 - A surgeon prepares to excise the submandibular gland for a suspected malignancy in...

    Correct

    • A surgeon prepares to excise the submandibular gland for a suspected malignancy in a pediatric patient. He incises the skin and the platysma in the neck below the gland, then proceeds to dissect the gland free of its bed. As he dissects the deep lobe, he notes the submandibular duct, which he mobilises, ligates and cuts anteriorly.
      When cutting the duct, which of the following needs the most care to be taken to avoid damage?

      Your Answer: The lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland and Related Structures

      The submandibular gland is composed of a superficial and deep part, with the facial artery passing between the gland and mandible and the facial vein indenting it superiorly. To access the deep lobe of the gland, both structures must be ligated and cut. The mandibular branch of the facial nerve is at risk of damage during the initial incision, while the lingual nerve is closely related to the submandibular duct and carries various fibers. The facial artery and vein may also be ligated during dissection, but are not as intimately related to the duct as the lingual nerve. The lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve carries parasympathetic supply to the parotid gland and synapses in the otic ganglion.

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  • Question 9 - Sophie is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by anxious parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by anxious parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Although she has difficulty getting up from sleep, she does not have any daytime somnolence. However, her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. They have done a lot of research on the Internet and are demanding that Sophie has her tonsils removed. On examination, Sophie has a short, thick neck and grade III tonsils, but no other abnormalities.
      Which of the following is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Book the child for an elective adenotonsillectomy as a day procedure

      Correct Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study

      Explanation:

      Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken, even though adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA. Childhood OSA is characterised by disordered breathing during sleep, which includes both apnoea and hypopnoea. Symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity and behavioural problems are typically observed.

      It is important to reassure parents that snoring loudly is normal in children of this age, and their child’s behaviour pattern will improve as they mature. Elective adenotonsillectomy as a day procedure is an option, but a polysomnographic study should be performed first to confirm the diagnosis.

      While dental splints have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment. Therefore, it is important to consider all available treatment options and choose the most appropriate one for each individual case.

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  • Question 10 - A patient with persistent sinusitis is scheduled for endoscopic surgery to address any...

    Correct

    • A patient with persistent sinusitis is scheduled for endoscopic surgery to address any blockages in the drainage pathways and perform balloon catheter dilation of the paranasal sinus openings. During the procedure, the surgeon aims to access the middle meatus of the nasal cavity to insert a cannula into the ostia.
      Which of the paranasal sinuses empties into the sphenoethmoidal recess?

      Your Answer: Sphenoidal sinus

      Explanation:

      Sinus Drainage Pathways in the Nasal Cavity

      The nasal cavity contains several sinuses that drain into different areas of the cavity. The sphenoidal sinus drains into the sphenoethmoid recess, which is located posterior and superior to the superior concha. The anterior ethmoidal sinus drains into the middle meatus via the semilunar hiatus, as does the maxillary sinus. The frontal sinus, on the other hand, drains into the infundibulum of the middle meatus. Finally, the middle ethmoidal sinus drains to the ethmoid bulla of the middle meatus. Understanding these drainage pathways is important for diagnosing and treating sinus issues.

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  • Question 11 - A 62-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of bothersome tinnitus that has...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of bothersome tinnitus that has been going on for 6 weeks. He reports hearing a ringing noise in his left ear only and experiencing hearing loss on the left side. The noise is intrusive and is causing him to have trouble sleeping at night. He denies experiencing any vertigo, headache, or other neurological symptoms. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes atenolol for it.
      Upon examination, his ears appear normal.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to ENT

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Tinnitus: Red Flags and Treatment Options

      Unilateral tinnitus is a rare but concerning symptom that should always warrant urgent referral to an ENT specialist. It may indicate an underlying condition such as acoustic neuroma, cerebellopontine angle tumor, glomus tumor, or Ménière’s disease. Other red flag symptoms include pulsatile tinnitus, tinnitus with significant vertigo or asymmetric hearing loss, tinnitus causing psychological distress, and tinnitus with significant neurological symptoms or signs.

      Vestibular retraining, an exercise-based treatment program, can help manage vertigo in patients with tinnitus. However, medication has no direct role in treating tinnitus, although it can be used to alleviate associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.

      It is important to note that there is no conventional or complementary medication that has been proven to have specific tinnitus-ameliorating qualities. In fact, repeatedly trying unsuccessful therapies may worsen tinnitus. Therefore, it is crucial to seek prompt medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan.

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  • Question 12 - A 5-year-old boy is presented to a paediatrician with a cystic mass on...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is presented to a paediatrician with a cystic mass on the right lateral aspect of his neck, just below the angle of the jaw. The mother reports intermittent discharge from a small pit located just in front of the lower anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the cause of this cyst, resulting from the failure of proliferation of which mesenchyme?

      Your Answer: Fourth pharyngeal arch

      Correct Answer: Second pharyngeal arch

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the pharyngeal arches give rise to various structures in the head and neck. The second arch forms the external auditory meatus and can sometimes lead to the formation of a branchial cleft cyst. The third arch becomes the common carotid artery and gives rise to the stylopharyngeus muscle. The first arch becomes the maxillary and mandibular prominences and gives rise to the muscles of mastication. The fourth arch forms the laryngeal cartilages and is innervated by the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve. The fifth arch regresses quickly. Understanding the development of these arches is important in understanding the anatomy and function of the head and neck.

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  • Question 13 - The patient in the picture has a slow-growing facial lump and has been...

    Incorrect

    • The patient in the picture has a slow-growing facial lump and has been referred to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Clinic. He denies any other symptoms and is in good health. Radiology confirms a parotid swelling. What is the most likely pathology he has?

      Your Answer: Parotid adenitis

      Correct Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Explanation:

      Possible Parotid Gland Conditions and Their Characteristics

      The parotid gland is a salivary gland located in front of the ear. It can be affected by various conditions, including pleomorphic adenoma, lymphoma, parotid adenitis, parotid abscess, and adenocarcinoma.

      Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It is a slow-growing, mixed benign tumour that can potentially become malignant and has a high chance of recurrence. Surgical removal through a parotidectomy is the current treatment approach.

      Lymphoma is a possibility in the parotid gland, but it is less common than pleomorphic adenoma. Patients with lymphoma may have constitutional symptoms, such as night sweats, weight loss, and fever.

      Parotid adenitis is inflammation of the parotid gland, which can occur for various reasons. It may be unilateral or bilateral, as seen in mumps. Inflammatory conditions typically cause more tenderness than swelling.

      Parotid abscess is a collection of pus in the parotid gland. However, the unusual shape of the gland in combination with normal overlying skin is not typical of abscesses or inflammation.

      Adenocarcinoma of the parotid gland is a malignant tumour that can involve the facial nerve. However, the lack of facial nerve involvement and the relative size of the tumour make adenocarcinoma unlikely in this case.

      In summary, the characteristics of each condition can help differentiate between them, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman comes to your General Practice clinic complaining of worsening hearing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to your General Practice clinic complaining of worsening hearing and tinnitus. She is currently pregnant and has noticed a significant decline in her hearing, although she had hearing problems before her pregnancy. Her father and grandfather also had hearing problems, and she is concerned about her future. During the examination, both tympanic membranes appear normal without abnormalities detected.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Common Cause of Hearing Loss in Pregnancy

      Otosclerosis is a genetic condition that causes the stapes footplate to become fused to the oval window, resulting in hearing loss. While it is an autosomal dominant condition, many people develop it without a family history. Women are twice as likely to be affected, and bilateral deafness is common. The condition typically manifests during middle age and is worsened by pregnancy. Interestingly, background noise can actually improve hearing. Eustachian tube dysfunction is another common cause of hearing loss in pregnancy, but it is usually accompanied by otitis media with effusion. Wax build-up is unlikely to be the cause of hearing loss in this case, and normal age-related hearing loss is not consistent with the rapid progression of symptoms. While Meniere’s disease is a possibility, the lack of vertigo and family history make otosclerosis the most likely diagnosis.

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  • Question 15 - A 57-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with a complaint of ongoing...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with a complaint of ongoing right ear pain and associated hearing loss for several weeks. He denies any significant discharge from his ear and has not experienced any fevers. He reports feeling pain in his jaw that sometimes clicks. During the examination, the doctor observes cerumen in the right ear and no inflammation. The tympanic membrane appears normal. The patient experiences pain when moving his jaw. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: TMJ dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Ear Pain and Hearing Loss

      Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction as a Likely Cause of Hearing Loss

      When infection is ruled out and cerumen is not the culprit, temporomandibular joint (TMJ) dysfunction becomes a probable diagnosis for ear pain and hearing loss. TMJ dysfunction often involves pain that radiates to the ear through the auriculotemporal nerve and crepitus in the jaw. Treatment options for TMJ dysfunction include rest, massage, relaxation techniques, bite guards, NSAIDs, and steroid injections.

      Other Possible Causes of Ear Pain and Discharge

      Otitis externa, or inflammation of the external auditory canal, typically presents with watery discharge, pain, and itching. Cholesteatoma, a benign tumor that can erode bone and cause cranial nerve symptoms, produces a foul-smelling white discharge and an inflammatory lesion on otoscopy. Mastoiditis, an infection that spreads from the middle ear to the mastoid air cells, causes fever, swelling, and unilateral ear prominence. Acute otitis media, a common childhood infection, results in sudden ear pain and bulging of the tympanic membrane, which may rupture and release purulent discharge.

      Conclusion

      Ear pain and hearing loss can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition. While TMJ dysfunction is a possible diagnosis that requires specific management, other conditions such as otitis externa, cholesteatoma, mastoiditis, and acute otitis media should also be considered and treated accordingly.

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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a sore throat, coryzal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a sore throat, coryzal symptoms, cough, feeling feverish and general malaise for the past week. She reports that she is eating and drinking well. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.1°C and her chest is clear. Her tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. She has no significant medical history except for carpal tunnel syndrome. Based on her Fever PAIN score, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Safety net and review in 1 week if no improvement

      Explanation:

      Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use in Pharyngitis

      Pharyngitis, or sore throat, is a common reason for patients to seek medical attention. However, not all cases of pharyngitis require antibiotics. In fact, inappropriate antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other negative outcomes. To help providers determine which patients with pharyngitis have streptococcal pharyngitis, the FeverPAIN Score was developed.

      The FeverPAIN Score assesses five factors: fever, presence of pus, how quickly symptoms attenuate, inflamed tonsils, and cough. A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection, while a score of 4 or more is associated with a high likelihood. For patients with a score of 2 or 3, delayed antibiotic use may be appropriate.

      In the case of a woman with inflamed tonsils, her FeverPAIN Score indicates that antibiotics are not necessary. However, it is important to safety net patients and review their condition in one week if there is no improvement. By using the FeverPAIN Score, providers can make informed decisions about antibiotic use in pharyngitis and help reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

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  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department after being involved in a...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department after being involved in a fight. He reports being punched on his left ear and has since lost hearing in that ear. He has a GCS score of 15 and has been coherent and lucid throughout the incident. He experiences a mild headache but has not vomited or felt drowsy. On examination, there are no focal neurological signs, and his cervical spine is not tender. Fundoscopy reveals a normal retina, but there is a ruptured left tympanic membrane with a small amount of blood. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Give him a week’s course of co-amoxiclav, and advise him to keep his ear dry and to see his general practitioner in 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing a Ruptured Tympanic Membrane: Treatment Options

      A ruptured tympanic membrane can occur due to otitis media or trauma. In most cases, the membrane heals on its own within six weeks. To promote healing, it is important to keep the ear dry and avoid exposing it to potentially contaminated water.

      Treatment options for a ruptured tympanic membrane depend on the severity of the condition. In most cases, a week’s course of co-amoxiclav is sufficient. However, if symptoms persist after six weeks, referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) specialist may be necessary for a tympanoplasty.

      There is no need for neurosurgical intervention or a CT scan unless there are complications or signs of an intracranial bleed. Overall, prompt treatment and careful management can help ensure a full recovery from a ruptured tympanic membrane.

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  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old man with a tumour of the left submandibular gland underwent surgery....

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man with a tumour of the left submandibular gland underwent surgery. While operating on the left submandibular gland, the lingual nerve was damaged. What is the most probable postoperative complaint of the patient?

      Your Answer: Loss of taste sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the left side of the tongue

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lingual Nerve Injury: Effects on Tongue Sensation and Movement

      The lingual nerve is a crucial component of the mandibular nerve, responsible for providing sensory innervation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and floor of the mouth. It also carries taste sensation fibers from the facial nerve via the chorda tympani special sensory nerves. Injuries to the lingual nerve can result in numbness, dysesthesia, paraesthesiae, and dysgeusia, affecting the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side. Such injuries can occur during invasive dental and surgical procedures.

      However, it is important to note that the lingual nerve does not contain a motor component, and thus, it does not affect tongue movement. Deviation of the tongue to either side is not expected in cases of lingual nerve injury.

      It is also worth noting that the lingual nerve only supplies sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. The posterior third of the tongue, on the other hand, is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve. Therefore, lingual nerve injury does not affect general sensation in the posterior third of the tongue.

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  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and fullness, bilateral yellow nasal discharge and difficulty smelling. Prior to this episode she describes having a minor cold, with sore throat and clear nasal discharge. She has no past medical history. On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C and there is mild tenderness to palpation over the maxillofacial area. There are no nasal polyps. Her throat appears normal.
      What should be included in the management of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Oral antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Sinusitis: Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use

      Acute sinusitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain. Self-care measures such as paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used to manage symptoms of pain or fever. However, if symptoms persist for around ten days or more without improvement, a high-dose nasal corticosteroid may be prescribed for 14 days. While nasal corticosteroids may improve symptoms, they are not likely to affect how long they last and could cause systemic effects.

      IV antibiotics should only be used in severe cases of systemic infection, intraorbital or periorbital complications, or intracranial complications. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that antibiotics, when compared with placebo, did not significantly increase the proportion of people in whom symptoms were cured or improved at 3–5 days follow-up. At 7–15 days follow-up, moderate quality evidence showed a statistically significant difference in effectiveness, but the clinical difference was small. This was not evident in the longer term.

      For acute sinusitis following a cold, symptoms for <10 days are more commonly associated with a cold rather than viral or bacterial acute sinusitis. Prolonged symptoms (for around ten days or more without improvement) can be caused by either viral (more likely) or bacterial acute sinusitis. Only 0.5–2% of viral sinusitis is complicated by bacterial infection. Even then bacterial sinusitis is usually self-limiting and does not routinely need antibiotics. There is no evidence that topical antibiotics are useful in acute or chronic sinusitis. Understanding Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use for Acute Sinusitis

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  • Question 20 - A 20-year-old man presents to his doctor with an enlarging neck mass. His...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man presents to his doctor with an enlarging neck mass. His mother had a right adrenal phaeochromocytoma which was successfully removed. The patient is 1.9m tall and weighs 74 kg. During examination, the doctor notices multiple yellowish white masses on the patient's lips and tongue. Three months later, the patient undergoes a total thyroidectomy. Which structure is innervated by the nerve most at risk during this procedure, and is also part of the vagus nerve?

      Your Answer: Aortic arch

      Explanation:

      The aortic arch has baroreceptors that send afferent fibers to the vagus nerve. A patient with an enlarging neck mass, a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B (MEN2B), and a marfanoid habitus may have medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which is a feature of MEN2B. Surgery is the definitive treatment, but the recurrent laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve, is at risk during thyroidectomy. The chorda tympani innervates the taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, while the lingual nerve and hypoglossal nerve innervate the general somatic sensation and motor function, respectively. The platysma muscle is innervated by cranial nerve VII, and the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) carries general visceral afferent information from the carotid sinus to the brainstem. The spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) innervates both the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man with advanced cancer of the stomach presents with hoarseness. During...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with advanced cancer of the stomach presents with hoarseness. During the physical examination, the physician notes enlarged deep cervical lymph nodes. What is the cause of the hoarse voice in this patient?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus

      Explanation:

      The Role of Nerves in Voice Production

      The human voice is a complex system that involves the coordination of various muscles and nerves. One of the most important nerves involved in voice production is the recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus. Damage to this nerve can cause hoarseness, as it innervates all the muscles of the larynx. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is more commonly affected due to its longer course and proximity to mediastinal tumors.

      The internal and external branches of the superior laryngeal nerve also play a role in voice production. They innervate the cricothyroid muscle and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor, as well as provide secretomotor fibers to mucosal glands of the larynx above the vocal folds. However, damage to these nerves would not cause hoarseness.

      Lastly, the pharyngeal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the pharynx, but does not directly affect voice production. Understanding the role of these nerves can help diagnose and treat voice disorders.

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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old man presents with increasing pain on the left side of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with increasing pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain on and off for about 2 weeks, particularly during meals. However, the pain has increased significantly over the last 2 days. During examination, he is found to be febrile at 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals poor dental hygiene and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dental abscess

      Correct Answer: Left submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Left Submandibular Gland Infection

      Left submandibular gland infection can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them for proper treatment. Sialolithiasis, or a submandibular gland calculus, is a common cause and presents with dull pain around the gland, worsened by mealtimes or sour foods. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes sharp tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth. Mumps parotitis affects younger patients and presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth. However, if left untreated, it can progress to Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth. Ludwig’s angina typically follows a dental infection and requires early specialist intervention to secure the airway and prevent fatal consequences.

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  • Question 23 - A 47-year-old woman presents with a lump in the upper anterior triangle of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents with a lump in the upper anterior triangle of her neck. She reports that it has been present for a few weeks and only started to bother her after a friend pointed it out. She denies any other symptoms such as weight loss or fevers. She recalls her mother having a similar swelling removed but does not remember the diagnosis. On examination, there is a small, smooth, non-tender, mobile lump. The skin overlying the lump appears normal, and it does not move on swallowing or tongue protrusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lipoma

      Correct Answer: Sebaceous cyst

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between various types of lumps and bumps on the body

      When it comes to lumps and bumps on the body, it can be difficult to determine what they are and whether they require medical attention. Here are some common types of lumps and their characteristics to help differentiate between them.

      Sebaceous cysts are small, smooth lumps that are caused by a blocked hair follicle. They are attached to the skin and may have a central punctum with a horn on top. If infected, they can become tender and the skin over them may become red and hot. Excision may be necessary if they are unsightly or infected.

      Lipomas are deep to the skin and are typically soft, doughy, and mobile. An ultrasound or biopsy may be necessary to rule out sarcoma or liposarcoma.

      Thyroid masses may be indicative of thyroid carcinoma or goitre. A thyroid malignancy would typically be hard, firm, and non-tender, while a goitre can be smooth or multinodular. Symptoms associated with thyroid disease may also be present.

      Sternocleidomastoid tumors are congenital lumps that appear within the first few weeks of life and are located beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscle. They can restrict contralateral head movement.

      It is important to seek medical attention if any lump or bump is causing discomfort or changes in appearance.

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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman presents with deteriorating hearing during pregnancy. There is no known...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with deteriorating hearing during pregnancy. There is no known family history of hearing loss. Upon examination, the tympanic membrane appears intact and pure tone audiometry indicates a conductive hearing loss with a Carhart notch.
      What is the most probable location of the issue?

      Your Answer: Stapes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Otosclerosis is a common autosomal dominant disorder that causes a conductive hearing loss, which typically worsens during pregnancy. The condition is caused by the fixation of the stapes bone in the ear, and it exhibits incomplete penetrance, meaning it can skip generations, and there may not be a positive family history of the condition.

      Diagnosis of otosclerosis is typically made through examination findings and audiometry results. The Carhart notch, a dip seen on bone conduction audiometry, is a sign that is classically associated with otosclerosis. However, the tympanic membrane is unlikely to be the site of abnormality as it is mentioned that the tympanic membrane is intact on examination.

      Treatment options for otosclerosis include amplification with hearing aids and medical treatment with sodium fluoride, which slows progression. Surgery, such as stapedectomy or stapedotomy, is becoming more popular and effective.

      It is important to understand the diagnosis and treatment options for otosclerosis to effectively manage the condition and improve quality of life for those affected.

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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a neck swelling. The lump is smooth, non-tender...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a neck swelling. The lump is smooth, non-tender and in the midline of the neck, just below the cricoid cartilage. A thyroglossal cyst is suspected.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer: Rises when patient protrudes her tongue

      Explanation:

      Thyroglossal Cysts: Causes and Symptoms

      Thyroglossal cysts are a type of neck mass that can occur due to a developmental abnormality in the thyroid gland. These cysts are usually located in the midline of the neck and can cause various symptoms. Here are some important facts about thyroglossal cysts:

      Causes:
      Thyroglossal cysts occur when part of the thyroglossal duct, which connects the tongue to the thyroid gland during embryonic development, remains and transforms into a cyst. This can happen due to incomplete closure of the duct.

      Symptoms:
      One of the most distinctive symptoms of a thyroglossal cyst is that it rises upwards when the patient protrudes their tongue. This is because the cyst is still connected to the tongue. However, it remains immobile when the patient swallows. Thyroglossal cysts are usually painless, but they can become tender if infected. They are not typically associated with lymphadenopathy. Most thyroglossal cysts present in the teens or early twenties.

      Treatment:
      Surgical removal is the most common treatment for thyroglossal cysts. This involves removing the cyst and the portion of the thyroglossal duct that is still present. The surgery is usually performed under general anesthesia and has a high success rate.

      In conclusion, thyroglossal cysts are a type of neck mass that can cause distinctive symptoms. While they are usually benign, they should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to rule out other conditions and determine the best course of treatment.

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  • Question 26 - A 40-year-old farmer visits the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old farmer visits the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of severe pain in the left parotid area for the past week. The pain is triggered when the patient is eating or about to eat. The GP suspects a parotid duct stone.
      Regarding the parotid gland, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: It has a duct that pierces the masseter muscle to enter the mouth opposite the upper second molar tooth

      Correct Answer: It has secretomotor action via the glossopharyngeal and auriculotemporal nerves

      Explanation:

      The parotid gland is innervated by parasympathetic nerves originating in the inferior salivary nucleus at the lower pons. These nerves travel along the glossopharyngeal and auriculotemporal nerves, and synapse in the otic ganglion before hitch-hiking with the auriculotemporal nerve to reach the gland. Injury to these nerves during parotidectomy can cause Frey syndrome. The gland consists of superficial and deep lobes separated by the neurovascular bundle, and its duct passes around the anterior border of the masseter muscle before piercing the buccinator muscle and exiting opposite the second upper molar tooth. The gland produces mainly serous secretion, which is why salivary stones are rarely found in the parotid gland.

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  • Question 27 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling like...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling like there is a lump in her throat. She reports an itching sensation, but no pain. The symptoms are intermittent and not related to swallowing solids or liquids, and there is no persistent hoarseness. She also reports feeling anxious and tired. There is no significant family history. She was a heavy smoker between the ages of 22-32 but has since quit smoking and drinking. Her blood profile and thyroid function tests show the following results:
      - Haemoglobin: 98 g/l (normal range: 115-165 g/l)
      - Mean corpuscular value: 75 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl)
      - Thyroid stimulating hormone: 2.2 mU/L (normal range: 0.45-4.1 mU/L)

      What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Naso-endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing globus sensation, but before being discharged, it is important to rule out any serious conditions. Given the patient’s history of smoking and anemia, a naso-endoscopy should be performed as an initial investigation. If the results are clear, the patient can be reassured and discharged. A CT neck is not necessary at this time unless the endoscopy results are inconclusive. A barium swallow would only be appropriate if a tumor was suspected, making it a second-line investigation. An ultrasound of the neck would only be necessary if a specific mass or thyroid issue was suspected, which is not the case here. Globus sensation can typically be diagnosed through a clinical examination and a ridged endoscopy. Overall, the initial investigation should focus on ruling out any serious conditions before considering further tests.

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  • Question 28 - A 5-year-old child, who was born in Germany, is brought to the General...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child, who was born in Germany, is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother because of recurrent sinus infections and failure to thrive. She is also concerned that the child has had diarrhoea for a few months, which is not resolving.
      During the examination, you notice several shiny, pink masses occupying the nasal canals.
      What is the most suitable initial step in treating this patient?

      Your Answer: Biopsy the mass for pathology

      Correct Answer: Testing in which pilocarpine is administered

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Testing for Nasal Polyps in Children: The Role of Pilocarpine Sweat Test

      Nasal polyps in children should raise suspicion of cystic fibrosis (CF), especially when accompanied by other symptoms. The gold standard test for CF diagnosis is the sweat test, which involves administering the direct-acting muscarinic agonist pilocarpine and measuring the chloride content of sweat. Loratadine, a second-generation antihistamine, is not the first step in managing nasal polyps. Genetic testing is more expensive and time-consuming than the sweat test and is not the initial diagnostic choice. Biopsy is not necessary for benign nasal polyps. Bacterial culture is not relevant to the pathology underlying nasal polyps in children.

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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has noticed a gradual decrease in hearing on her left side over the past six months. She also reports difficulty walking and a tendency to lean towards the left side. Upon referral to the ENT Department, the Consultant observes nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, as well as sensorineural loss in her left ear. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Neuroma: An Overview

      Acoustic neuroma is a type of tumor that affects the vestibular nerve and can cause symptoms such as unilateral hearing loss and unsteady gait. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most reliable test for detecting acoustic neuroma, as it can detect tumors as small as 1-1.3 mm. MRI with gadolinium contrast is recommended in cases where brainstem testing is abnormal or there is a high suspicion of vestibular schwannoma.

      Plain computerized tomography (CT) scan can provide prognostic information on post-operative hearing loss, but it cannot detect all cases of acoustic neuroma. Otoscopy is of limited or no value in cases of sensorineural deafness.

      Pure tone audiometry (PTA) is the best initial screening test for acoustic neuroma, as only 5% of patients will have a normal test. Brainstem-evoked response audiometry can be used as a further screening measure in patients with unexplained asymmetries on standard audiometric testing.

      Vestibular testing has limited utility as a screening test for acoustic neuroma, but a decreased or absent caloric response on the affected side may be seen in some cases. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose acoustic neuroma and guide treatment decisions.

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  • Question 30 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back pain for the past 6 months. Her husband, who accompanies her, also mentions that she has been acting strangely during this time. On examination, a nodule is found in the patient's neck, just left of the midline. Further investigations reveal an elevated parathyroid hormone level and abnormal levels of various electrolytes. The patient undergoes surgery and subsequently develops hoarseness. What is the most probable cause of the patient's voice change?

      Your Answer: Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Effects of Nerve Damage on Laryngeal Function

      Hypercalcaemia and Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Hypercalcaemia, often caused by parathyroid adenoma, can lead to transection of the recurrent laryngeal nerve during surgical removal of the adenoma. This can result in hoarseness.

      External Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Transection of the external laryngeal nerve can affect the cricothyroid muscle, leading to difficulty in increasing the pitch of one’s voice.

      Internal Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Damage to the internal laryngeal nerve can impair sensation in the pharynx above the vocal cords, but it does not cause hoarseness.

      Spinal Accessory Nerve Damage
      Damage to the spinal accessory nerve can impair shoulder shrugging and head rotation.

      Vagus Nerve Damage
      Damage to the vagus nerve can cause widespread effects involving autonomic dysfunction.

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