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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. She experiences bloating that is relieved by defecation and finds relief with hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan). She denies any weight loss and has no relevant family history. Coeliac disease screening was negative and both full blood count and CRP were normal. Despite being diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome and given dietary advice and antispasmodics, she disagrees with the diagnosis and requests further investigations. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Reassure that further tests are not required at this stage
Explanation:It is not recommended to use faecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening in symptomatic patients who are under the age of 60. This woman is displaying symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and has normal blood results, without any red flag symptoms. Repeating the full blood count is unlikely to provide any additional information. The use of steroids and azathioprine is not appropriate for treating irritable bowel syndrome, as they are typically used for ulcerative colitis, which is not likely in this case.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Correct
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What advice should you give a young adult (who is NOT pregnant) if they ask what is the recommended amount of alcohol they can consume?
Your Answer: No more than 14 units of alcohol per week. If you do drink as much as 14 units per week, it is best to spread this evenly over 3 days or more
Explanation:Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 3
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with diagnosed irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is currently taking loperamide, movicol and hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan) for management. However, she is still experiencing bloating and abdominal pain.
What would be the next treatment option from the list below?Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant (eg amitriptyline)
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. It is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Diagnosis is based on the presence of symptoms for at least 6 months, and physical examination and investigations are used to exclude other differential diagnoses.
Management of IBS involves psychological support and dietary measures, such as fibre supplementation, low FODMAP diets, increased water intake, and avoiding trigger foods. Pharmacological treatment is adjunctive and should be directed at symptoms. Antispasmodics, antidiarrhoeals, and antidepressants may have a positive effect on symptoms. However, the choice of medication should be based on the nature and severity of symptoms, with the option of single or combination medication determined by the predominant symptom(s).
It is important to note that certain medications, such as aspirin and NSAIDs, can worsen IBS symptoms, and laxatives like lactulose should be discouraged. Patients should be made aware of these potential risks and advised accordingly. Overall, a multidisciplinary approach involving healthcare professionals and patients is essential for the effective management of IBS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She is also a heavy drinker, consuming around 30-35 units per week. During the examination, a palpable gallbladder is detected, but there is no history of abdominal pain. The doctor orders blood tests, and the results are as follows:
- Albumin: 28 g/L
- Alk Phos: 320 U/L
- ALT: 90 U/L
- Bilirubin: 100 umol/L
- INR: 1.5
- GGT: 120 U/L
What is the most likely diagnosis for Samantha?Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Explanation:Pancreatic cancer is the correct answer for this question, as indicated by Courvoisier’s sign. This sign suggests that a painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice are unlikely to be caused by gallstones, but rather by a malignancy of the pancreas or biliary tree. While alcoholic hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are possible differentials, the presence of a painless, enlarged gallbladder makes them less likely. Paracetamol overdose is not a likely cause, as it would not result in a painless, palpable gallbladder and jaundice is not typically associated with this type of overdose.
Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.
Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman presents with lethargy and pruritus. She reports having a normal appetite and no weight loss. Upon examination, there is no clinical jaundice or organomegaly. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Hb: 12.8 g/dl
- Platelets: 188 * 109/l
- WBC: 6.7 * 109/l
- Na+: 140 mmol/l
- K+: 3.9 mmol/l
- Urea: 6.2 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 68 µmol/l
- Bilirubin: 30 µmol/l
- ALP: 231 u/l
- ALT: 38 u/l
- γGT: 367 u/l
- Albumin: 39 g/l
What additional test is most likely to lead to a diagnosis?Your Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 6
Correct
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A 54-year-old man presents to your clinic after a routine blood test showed abnormal liver function tests. He denies any alcohol consumption and his hepatitis screen is negative. His cholesterol level is 4.2 and his HBA1c is 38ml/mol. He has a body mass index of 31 kg/m² and an ultrasound reveals non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. What is the most suitable approach to manage this condition?
Your Answer: Diet and exercise
Explanation:The primary management approach for NAFLD is weight loss, achieved through diet and exercise. Medications have not shown to be effective in improving the condition’s outcome.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about his recent private medical screening test results. His liver function tests have shown abnormalities, but he has no symptoms and is generally healthy. He admits to consuming approximately 40 units of alcohol per week. The following are his blood test results:
- Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
- ALP: 100 u/l
- ALT: 67 u/l
- γGT: 110 u/l
- Albumin: 40 g/l
Other blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, and fasting glucose, were normal. An ultrasound of his liver revealed fatty changes. His liver screen showed:
- Hepatitis B: Negative
- Hepatitis C: Negative
- Serum ferritin: 550 microg/L (normal range: 25-300 microg/L)
- Immunoglobulins: Normal
- Transferrin saturation: 41% (normal range: <50%)
What is the most likely underlying cause of the elevated ferritin levels?Your Answer: Primary polycythaemia
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:The elevated ferritin level can be attributed to the patient’s excessive alcohol consumption, as the typical transferrin saturation rules out iron overload as a potential cause.
Understanding Ferritin Levels in the Body
Ferritin is a protein found inside cells that binds to iron and stores it until it is needed in other parts of the body. When ferritin levels are increased, it is usually defined as being above 300 µg/L in men and postmenopausal women, and above 200 µg/L in premenopausal women. However, it is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase protein, meaning that it can be produced in higher quantities during times of inflammation. This can lead to falsely elevated results, which must be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical picture and other blood test results.
There are two main categories of causes for increased ferritin levels: those without iron overload (which account for around 90% of cases) and those with iron overload (which account for around 10% of cases). Causes of increased ferritin levels without iron overload include inflammation, alcohol excess, liver disease, chronic kidney disease, and malignancy. Causes of increased ferritin levels with iron overload include primary iron overload (hereditary hemochromatosis) and secondary iron overload (such as from repeated transfusions). To determine whether iron overload is present, the best test is transferrin saturation, with normal values being less than 45% in females and less than 50% in males.
On the other hand, reduced ferritin levels can indicate a deficiency in iron, which can lead to anemia. When iron and ferritin are bound together, a decrease in ferritin levels can suggest a decrease in iron levels as well. Measuring serum ferritin levels can be helpful in determining whether a low hemoglobin level and microcytosis are truly caused by an iron deficiency state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP with jaundice and itchy skin for the past 2 weeks. She claims that is a lot worse during this pregnancy compared to her last one. History reveals that she is currently 30 weeks pregnant with no complications up until presentation.
On examination, the only notable findings are mild jaundice seen in the sclerae, as well as excoriations around the umbilicus and flanks. She denies any tenderness in her abdomen during the examination. Blood tests show the following:
ALT 206 U/L
AST 159 U/L
ALP 796 umol/l
GGT 397 U/L
Bilirubin (direct) 56 umol/L
Bile salts 34 umol/L
Bile salts reference range 0 - 14 umol/L
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Obstetric cholestasis
Explanation:Obstetric cholestasis, also known as intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, is a condition that occurs when the flow of bile is impaired, resulting in a buildup of bile salts in the skin and placenta. The cause of this condition is believed to be a combination of hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors. While the pruritic symptoms can be distressing for the mother, the buildup of bile salts can also harm the fetus. The fetus’s immature liver may struggle to break down the excessive levels of bile salts, and the vasoconstricting effect of bile salts on human placental chorionic veins may lead to sudden asphyxial events in the fetus, resulting in anoxia and death.
Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman was urgently referred for investigation (2-week wait) via the cancer referral pathway by her General Practitioner after presenting with a 2-month history of weight loss and fatigue. Blood tests reveal a carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level of 300 μg/l (Normal range: 2.5–5.0 μg/l).
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hepatocellular cancer
Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer
Explanation:Overview of Common Cancers and Tumor Markers
Colorectal Cancer, Hepatocellular Cancer, Lung Cancer, Prostate Cancer, and Testicular Cancer are some of the most common types of cancer. Each type presents with different symptoms and may require different diagnostic tests. Tumor markers, such as carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer, alpha-fetoprotein for hepatocellular and testicular cancer, and bombesin for lung cancer, can be used to screen high-risk groups, assess prognosis, detect recurrence, and monitor treatment. Digital rectal examination (DRE) is often used in conjunction with prostate-specific antigen (PSA) as a screening test for prostate cancer. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes for patients with cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy has arrived at the emergency department after overdosing on paracetamol. He has come in 3 days after taking the overdose due to feeling extremely ill. What liver disease patterns are most probable to be observed?
Your Answer: High ALT. High ALP. ALT/ALP ratio low
Correct Answer: High ALT. Normal ALP. ALT/ALP ratio high
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose leads to a liver disease characterized by hepatocellular symptoms. This type of liver disease is different from cholestatic (obstructive) or mixed liver diseases, which have distinct laboratory test results. Hepatocellular disease is indicated by raised ALT levels, while cholestatic disease is indicated by raised ALP levels. Mixed liver disease has raised levels of both ALT and ALP. AST and ALT are both produced by hepatocytes, and in hepatocellular disease, these enzymes are released into the bloodstream, causing raised ALT levels. ALP, on the other hand, is produced by the cells lining the bile ducts, and its levels rise in obstructive liver disease.
Understanding Drug-Induced Liver Disease
Drug-induced liver disease is a condition that occurs when certain medications or drugs cause damage to the liver. This condition is generally divided into three categories: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there is often overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of changes to the liver.
Hepatocellular drug-induced liver disease is characterized by damage to the liver cells. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include paracetamol, sodium valproate, phenytoin, MAOIs, halothane, anti-tuberculosis medications, statins, alcohol, amiodarone, methyldopa, and nitrofurantoin.
Cholestatic drug-induced liver disease, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in bile flow from the liver. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include the combined oral contraceptive pill, antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, and erythromycin, anabolic steroids, testosterones, phenothiazines such as chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine, sulphonylureas, fibrates, and rare reported causes such as nifedipine. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone can cause both hepatocellular and cholestatic damage.
It is important to note that drug-induced liver disease can be a serious condition and can lead to liver cirrhosis if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of liver damage occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 11
Correct
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A 59-year-old man with known cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C infection attends for review. There is a past history of intravenous heroin abuse and alcoholism. He has been feeling progressively more unwell over the past six months, with weight loss and worsening ascites. He is on long-term sick leave and has been closely monitored by his live-in partner, who maintains that there has been no further drug abuse or consumption of alcohol.
What is the most probable diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Worsening Ascites
Worsening ascites can be a sign of various underlying conditions. One possible diagnosis is hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), which is a primary malignancy of the liver that often occurs in patients with chronic liver disease and cirrhosis. Another possible diagnosis is chronic active hepatitis, which is caused by the hepatitis C virus and can result in joint and muscle pain, nausea, and exhaustion. Superimposed hepatitis B infection can also cause liver injury and jaundice. Alcoholism, which can lead to alcoholic hepatitis, is another possible diagnosis, but it is not consistent with the clinical scenario given if there has been no further alcohol consumption. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is an acute bacterial infection of ascitic fluid that can cause fever, abdominal pain, and other symptoms. It is important to consider these and other possible diagnoses when evaluating a patient with worsening ascites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with diarrhea and abdominal pain. She has a history of depression and takes citalopram, smokes 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week. During ileocolonoscopy, Crohn's disease is diagnosed, and she is treated with glucocorticoid therapy. What is the most crucial step to decrease the likelihood of future episodes?
Your Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.
To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 13
Correct
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A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of vomiting. She is unable to take any fluids orally and complains of feeling dizzy and lethargic. There is no past medical history of note and she takes no regular medications. She is 12 weeks pregnant.
On examination, she has a temperature of 36.5ºC with a heart rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. She has dry mucous membranes. Her abdomen is soft and nontender.
What is the most appropriate initial anti-emetic for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Antihistamines, specifically cyclizine, are the recommended first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. Dexamethasone is not typically used for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is more commonly used for post-operative and chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Domperidone is not commonly used for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is primarily used to treat nausea in patients with Parkinson’s disease. Metoclopramide is a second-line treatment option for hyperemesis gravidarum, but is not the first-line choice.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with a recent change in bowel habit and is scheduled for outpatient sigmoidoscopy. He reports passing 3 stools daily with some mucus but no blood. The patient is in good overall health, with stable vital signs and normal blood test results. He has no known allergies and is not taking any medications at present.
During the sigmoidoscopy, the patient is found to have localised proctitis, with no inflammation detected further up the gastrointestinal tract. Based on these findings, the patient is diagnosed with ulcerative colitis and receives appropriate counselling.
What would be the most effective drug management approach for this patient's current symptoms?Your Answer: Oral aminosalicylates
Correct Answer: Rectal aminosalicylates
Explanation:For a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is rectal aminosalicylates. This is particularly effective if the inflammation is limited to the rectum. If rectal aminosalicylates are not effective, oral aminosalicylates may be used in combination with or instead of the topical treatment. However, if the patient has contraindications or intolerances to aminosalicylates, topical or oral steroids may be preferred. Intravenous steroids are typically reserved for severe flares of colitis with symptoms such as frequent bloody stools, systemic upset, anemia, or elevated inflammatory markers.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a three-week history of heartburn. There is no significant weight loss, no alteration in bowel movements, no nausea, and no difficulty swallowing. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Long term low-dose PPI (proton-pump inhibitor)
Correct Answer: One-month trial of full-dose PPI
Explanation:Management of Dyspepsia in Primary Care: Guidelines and Recommendations
Dyspepsia is a common complaint in primary care, encompassing a range of symptoms such as epigastric pain, heartburn, acid regurgitation, bloating, nausea, and vomiting. Here are some guidelines and recommendations for managing dyspepsia in primary care:
One-month trial of full-dose PPI: NICE guidelines recommend offering empirical full-dose PPI therapy for 4 weeks to patients with dyspepsia. Helicobacter pylori testing should also be offered, but a 2-week washout PPI-free period is necessary before testing.
Helicobater pylori stool test and routine referral for OGD: In young patients with no risk factors and relatively benign history and physical findings, routine referral for an endoscopy or testing for Barrett’s esophagus is not necessary.
Long-term low-dose PPI: If symptoms recur after initial treatment, offering a PPI at the lowest dose possible to control symptoms would be appropriate. H2 receptor antagonist therapy should be considered if there is an inadequate response to a PPI.
Refer urgently for OGD: Patients presenting with dyspepsia and significant acute GI bleeding should be referred for same-day assessment to a specialist. Other reasons for urgent referral would be the suspicion of malignancy, which in young patients with no red flag symptoms would be unwarranted.
Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori eradication: Testing for Helicobacter pylori should be offered to patients with dyspepsia after a 2-week washout PPI-free period. It would be inappropriate to initiate triple therapy treatment without a positive test result first.
In summary, dyspepsia in the general population in primary care is defined broadly to include patients with recurrent epigastric pain, heartburn or acid regurgitation, with or without bloating, nausea, or vomiting. Management should follow evidence-based guidelines and recommendations to ensure appropriate and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of malaise, yellowing sclera, and increasing abdominal girth. He admits to drinking 80 cl of whisky daily and has had several unsuccessful attempts at community detoxification. The patient has a medical history of liver cirrhosis. During the examination, a significantly distended abdomen with a shifting dullness and an enlarged mass in the right upper quadrant are observed.
What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:For patients with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis, it is recommended to prescribe an aldosterone antagonist, such as spironolactone, as the preferred diuretic to combat sodium retention. A low-salt diet should also be implemented. While furosemide can be useful in combination with spironolactone, it is not effective in blocking aldosterone and should not be used as a single agent. Nephrotoxic medications, including naproxen, should be avoided. ACE inhibitors, like ramipril, can induce renal failure and should be used with caution and careful monitoring of blood pressure and renal function. Restricting high sodium concentration fluids will not be beneficial, but a low sodium diet is recommended to prevent water retention.
Understanding Ascites: Causes and Management
Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal fluid in the abdomen. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. A SAAG level greater than 11g/L indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. On the other hand, a SAAG level less than 11g/L is caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, infections, and other factors such as bowel obstruction and biliary ascites.
The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and fluid restriction, especially if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone and loop diuretics are often prescribed to patients. In some cases, drainage through therapeutic abdominal paracentesis is necessary. Large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality. Prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In severe cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.
Understanding the causes and management of ascites is crucial in providing appropriate medical care to patients. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a 7-month history of abdominal bloating, pain and urgency to defecate in the morning. He has no history of nausea/vomiting, per rectum bleeding, mucus on stools or weight loss. He says that his symptoms become much worse, with worsening constipation, when he is stressed. Physical examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the best initial treatment for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Lactulose
Correct Answer: Mebeverine
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more likely to develop it than men. It is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology.
Diagnosis of IBS is based on the presence of symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and change in bowel habit for at least 6 months. Physical examination and further investigations are necessary to exclude other differential diagnoses.
Management of IBS primarily involves psychological support and dietary measures such as fiber supplementation, low FODMAP diets, increased water intake, and avoiding trigger foods. Pharmacological treatment is adjunctive and should be directed at symptoms. Anti-spasmodics, anti-diarrheals, and antidepressants may have a positive effect on symptoms.
It is important to note that symptoms not consistent with IBS, such as rectal bleeding, anorexia/weight loss, nocturnal symptoms, or fecal incontinence, should alert the clinician to the possibility of an organic pathology. Referral for psychological therapies should be considered for patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments after 12 months and who develop a continuing symptom profile.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 18
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a blocked stoma bag. She had surgery for bowel cancer recently, which involved removing a section of her bowel. The stoma bag is situated in the upper left quadrant of her abdomen. The bag is entirely empty, and you can see that the proximal part of the resected bowel is flush with the skin. Her abdomen is swollen, and you can hear tinkling bowel sounds. What kind of stoma does this patient have?
Your Answer: End colostomy
Explanation:The correct type of stoma in this case is an end colostomy. This is because the stoma is flush to the skin, indicating that the large bowel contents are not irritant. To differentiate between a colostomy and a small intestine stoma, one can look at the location and output. Ileostomies are typically located on the right iliac fossa and have spouted output, while colostomies are usually on the left iliac fossa and have flush output. An end ileostomy is used after complete colon excision or when an ileocolic anastomosis is not planned, and it would have spouted output. A loop ileostomy involves taking a loop of the ileum and bringing it up to the skin, and it is used to defunction the colon and can be reversed. It would also have spouted output. A loop jejunostomy is used as a high output stoma and would also have spouted output. A percutaneous jejunostomy involves a feeding tube directly inserted into the jejunum and would not have a stoma bag.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 19
Correct
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A 50-year-old female with a history of Sjogren's syndrome presents to the gastroenterology clinic with elevated liver function tests. She reports experiencing fatigue and itching that has worsened over the past 3 months. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft, nontender, and without any organ enlargement. Laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, normal platelet count and white blood cell count, elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels, and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the initial treatment recommended to halt the progression of her liver disease?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is characterized by the destruction of small bile ducts in the liver, leading to cholestasis and liver damage. The disease is diagnosed through blood tests that measure levels of specific antibodies and liver enzymes, which are highly specific to the condition. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for slowing disease progression and improving symptoms, while cholestyramine can be used to alleviate itching but does not affect disease progression. In cases of decompensated liver disease, such as when bilirubin levels exceed 100, liver transplantation may be an option. Although recurrence in the graft can occur, it is typically not a significant issue. While fat-soluble vitamins can be supplemented, they are not a primary treatment option.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 20
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus stools and abdominal pain undergoes a colonoscopy, which shows a mucosal ‘cobblestone’ pattern and skip lesions. She drinks approximately four units of alcohol a week and has a smoking history of five pack years.
Which of the following is the most appropriate lifestyle advice for this patient?Your Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Lifestyle Advice for Patients with Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic inflammatory process that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Patients with IBD may experience symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bleeding. Here are some lifestyle advice for patients with IBD:
Stop smoking: Research suggests that smoking can make Crohn’s disease worse. Smokers with Crohn’s disease have more severe symptoms and complications, require more medication, and are more likely to need surgery.
Eat a balanced diet: Patients with IBD may need to be careful about the amount and type of fibre in their diet. During flare-ups, it may be helpful to reduce the amount of insoluble fibre consumed, but, once the flare-up is over, it is important to increase fibre intake again.
Avoid alcohol: Although there is no evidence that alcohol consumption worsens IBD symptoms, alcohol can affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract and interact with certain medications.
Quit smoking: Although smoking may delay or even prevent ulcerative colitis, the health risks of smoking outweigh any benefits seen in UC, and strongly discourage smoking in everyone, whether or not they have IBD.
Consider probiotics: The role of probiotics in IBD is not fully understood, but their use can be discussed with a General Practitioner or dietitian. More research is needed on their general effectiveness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of alcoholic liver disease and cirrhosis is scheduled for an oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD) to screen for oesophageal varices. The OGD reveals several high-risk varices, and medical prophylaxis is advised. What medication would be the best choice?
Your Answer: Terlipressin
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, is utilized for the prevention of oesophageal bleeding. Bisoprolol and metoprolol, both cardio-selective beta-blockers, are not as effective as propranolol for the extended management of varices. Terlipressin, a vasopressin analogue, is recommended for the immediate treatment of variceal bleeding.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient before endoscopy. Correcting clotting with FFP and vitamin K is important, as is the use of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method of treatment, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. Propranolol and EVL are effective in preventing rebleeding and mortality, and are recommended by NICE guidelines. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 22
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with epigastric pain which radiates to the back. She feels nauseous and has been vomiting since arriving at the Emergency Department. On questioning, the woman tells you that she takes no regular medication. She was last in hospital three years ago after she slipped and fell in the shower. She was not admitted. She travelled to Thailand to visit relatives two months ago.
On examination, the woman’s abdomen is tender in the epigastrium. She is jaundiced. She is also tachycardia and pyrexia.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 280 IU 30–130 IU
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 50 IU 5–30 IU
Bilirubin 40 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Amylase 900 u/l 30-100 u/l
What is the best initial treatment for this woman?Your Answer: Admission, intravenous (IV) fluids, analgesia, and place a nasogastric tube
Explanation:Initial Treatment for Pancreatitis: What to Do and What Not to Do
Pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment. The initial management of pancreatitis involves admission, intravenous (IV) fluids, analgesia, and placing a nasogastric tube. However, there are certain things that should not be done in the initial treatment of pancreatitis.
One of the things that should not be done is administering antibiotics unless the pancreatitis is complicated by pancreatic necrosis, an abscess, or a pseudocyst > 6 cm for < 6 weeks. Another thing that should not be done is performing surgical intervention unless the pancreatitis is complicated by the aforementioned conditions. It is important to note that acute pancreatitis can cause a fever without the presence of an abscess or pseudocyst. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the patient’s condition closely and perform further investigations if necessary. In addition, it is important to consider the patient’s medical history. If the patient has a history of excess alcohol consumption, this may be the cause of pancreatitis. In such cases, appropriate initial treatment should be given without delay. Overall, the initial treatment of pancreatitis should focus on stabilizing the patient’s condition and addressing the underlying cause of the condition. With proper management, the patient can recover from pancreatitis and avoid complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 23
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhoea. She says that her stools float and are difficult to flush away.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.08 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Albumin 29 g/l 35–55 g/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 91 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 89 fl 76–98 fl
Coeliac disease is suspected.
Which of the following is the initial investigation of choice?Your Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)
Explanation:Diagnosis and Investigation of Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with chronic diarrhoea and steatorrhoea. The initial investigation of choice is the anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) test, which has a sensitivity of over 96%. However, it is important to check immunoglobulin A (IgA) levels concurrently, as anti-TTG is an IgA antibody and may not be raised in the presence of IgA deficiency.
The treatment of choice for coeliac disease is a lifelong gluten-free diet, avoiding gluten-containing foods such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Patients with coeliac disease are at increased risk of small bowel lymphoma and oesophageal carcinoma over the long term.
While faecal fat estimation may be useful in estimating steatorrhoea, small bowel biopsy is the gold standard investigation for coeliac disease. However, this would not be the initial investigation of choice as it is invasive. An anti-TTG test is more sensitive and specific than an anti-gliadin test in untreated coeliac disease. Magnesium (Mg2+) levels may be abnormal in coeliac disease, but this would not be diagnostic and therefore not the first investigation of choice.
In summary, the diagnosis of coeliac disease requires a combination of clinical presentation, laboratory investigations, and small bowel biopsy if necessary. The anti-TTG test is the initial investigation of choice, and a gluten-free diet is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female comes to the surgery complaining of painless rectal bleeding that has been going on for 2 weeks. Upon inspection of the perineum and rectal examination, there are no notable findings. However, proctoscopy reveals haemorrhoidal cushions located at the left lateral and right anterior position. What is the crucial aspect of management?
Your Answer: Application of lubricant prior to defecation
Correct Answer: Fibre supplementation
Explanation:In certain studies, it has been demonstrated that fibre supplementation is equally effective to injection sclerotherapy.
Understanding Haemorrhoids
Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy that contribute to anal continence. They are mucosal vascular cushions found in specific areas of the anal canal. However, when they become enlarged, congested, and symptomatic, they are considered haemorrhoids. The most common symptom is painless rectal bleeding, but pruritus and pain may also occur. There are two types of haemorrhoids: external, which originate below the dentate line and are prone to thrombosis, and internal, which originate above the dentate line and do not generally cause pain. Internal haemorrhoids are graded based on their prolapse and reducibility. Management includes softening stools through dietary changes, topical treatments, outpatient procedures like rubber band ligation, and surgery for large, symptomatic haemorrhoids. Acutely thrombosed external haemorrhoids may require excision if the patient presents within 72 hours, but otherwise can be managed with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia.
Overall, understanding haemorrhoids and their management is important for individuals experiencing symptoms and healthcare professionals providing care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 25
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a 4-day history of a feeling of rectal fullness, tenesmus, diarrhoea with small, frequent stools and mucus, and rectal bleeding. He denies systemic symptoms. He is not sexually active. Physical examination is unremarkable. The GP thinks a diagnosis of inflammatory exacerbation of proctitis is likely and contacts the local Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBM) specialist nurse for advice.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Per-rectal administration of aminosalicylate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Proctitis: Aminosalicylates, Topical Corticosteroids, and More
Proctitis, an inflammation of the rectal mucosa, can be caused by various factors such as radiation, infections, autoimmune diseases, and trauma. Symptoms include rectal bleeding, pain, and diarrhea. To manage proctitis, aminosalicylates in the form of enemas or suppositories are often used as first-line therapy to reduce inflammation and relieve symptoms. Topical corticosteroids are less effective but can be used in patients who cannot tolerate aminosalicylates. Oral prednisolone is a second-line therapy for ulcerative colitis. Ibuprofen is not recommended, and codeine phosphate and loperamide may aggravate symptoms. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and severity of proctitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes back from a trip. During her final day overseas, she had lunch from an unlicensed street food vendor. After eight days of returning home, she encounters bloating, abdominal discomfort, and non-bloody diarrhea, and she observes that her stools are floating in the toilet bowl. The patient's symptoms persist for nine weeks. What is the probable pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Giardia
Explanation:Chronic Giardia infection can lead to malabsorption.
Giardia is a type of protozoan that can be transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated fecal matter. While giardiasis typically resolves within a few weeks, if the infection persists for more than six weeks, it is considered chronic. Chronic Giardia infection can cause malabsorption of various nutrients, including vitamin A, B12, iron, zinc, and lipids. This malabsorption can result in steatorrhea, which is characterized by greasy, foul-smelling stools that float in the toilet bowl.
It is important to note that other pathogens, such as Entamoeba histolytica, Escherichia coli, and Salmonella, do not commonly cause malabsorption. While they may cause diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms, they do not typically result in the malabsorption of nutrients.
Understanding Giardiasis
Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with a 4-week history of a diagnosed anal fissure returns to the general practice surgery for review. He has been regularly using stool softeners along with eating a healthy diet and drinking adequate water. He is still experiencing bleeding and pain on opening his bowels. Examination reveals an anal fissure with no alarming signs.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate management at this stage?Your Answer: Senna
Correct Answer: Topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)
Explanation:Management of Primary Anal Fissure: Treatment Options and Referral Guidelines
Primary anal fissure is a common condition that can cause significant pain and discomfort. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the management of this condition, which include prescribing rectal topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) 0.4% ointment for 6-8 weeks to relieve pain and aid healing. Referral to a colorectal surgeon is warranted if the fissure does not heal after this period. Botulinum toxin injections can be considered in secondary care settings for chronic and recurrent cases, but only after a trial of topical GTN. Taking no action is not recommended, as it can lead to chronic non-healing ulcers. Trying different laxatives, such as senna, is also unlikely to help and should not be the first-line treatment for anal fissure. Overall, early intervention with topical GTN and appropriate referral can improve outcomes for patients with primary anal fissure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with worries about the appearance of his tongue. He reports that it has been like this for a few months but is not causing any discomfort or issues. On examination, the tongue appears mildly erythematous with a few patches surrounded by a white-ish border, and there is no exudate that can be scraped off. What is the MOST probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral leukoplakia
Correct Answer: Geographic tongue
Explanation:Understanding Geographic Tongue: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Geographic tongue is a common and benign condition that affects the tongue. It is characterized by irregular, smooth, red patches with a white border that resemble a map. While some individuals may experience pain or discomfort, others may not have any symptoms at all. The cause of geographic tongue is unknown, and there is currently no cure. However, symptomatic pain relief and avoidance of certain triggers may help manage the condition.
It is important to differentiate geographic tongue from other oral conditions such as oral candidiasis, oral leukoplakia, and vitamin deficiencies. Oral candidiasis can present with white/yellow plaques that can be easily removed, while oral leukoplakia presents with painless white plaques that cannot be easily scraped away and may be pre-malignant. Vitamin deficiencies such as B12 and C can also cause oral symptoms.
Overall, geographic tongue is a harmless condition that primarily affects females. While it may cause discomfort for some individuals, it does not pose any serious health risks. If you are experiencing symptoms of geographic tongue, it is recommended to seek advice from a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with a burning sensation and unusual appearance to his tongue. Upon examination, small bumps are observed on the surface of the tongue, along with red patches and white lines that resemble a map.
What is the most probable cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Geographic tongue
Explanation:Understanding Geographic Tongue: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Geographic tongue, also known as benign migratory glossitis, is a common condition that affects the tongue. It is characterized by irregularly shaped, red, smooth, and swollen patches on the tongue, often with a white border, giving rise to a map-like appearance. The exact cause of geographic tongue is unknown, but it has been associated with fissured tongue and has an inverse association with cigarette smoking.
Symptoms of geographic tongue include a burning sensation on the tongue, and eating acidic foods can worsen the pain. While the condition is usually self-limiting, symptomatic treatment can include topical anaesthetic preparations and/or soluble corticosteroids used as a ‘mouth rinse’.
It is important to note that geographic tongue is not a pre-malignant condition and is not associated with an increased risk of oral cancer. However, it is important to seek medical attention if you experience any unusual symptoms or changes in your oral health.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and treatment options for geographic tongue can help individuals manage their condition and maintain good oral health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man undergoes routine screening tests as part of his NHS health check. His results show an HbA1C level of 52 mmol/mol (<42), eGFR of >90 ml/min (>90), blood pressure of 130/84 mmHg, and a QRISK-3 score of 24.3%. After a repeat measurement, he is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and decides to make lifestyle changes and take medication. However, he experiences significant gastrointestinal side effects with metformin, even after switching to a modified-release preparation.
What would be the most appropriate class of drug to switch to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SGLT-2 inhibitor
Explanation:A suitable medication would have been a DDP-4 inhibitor, glitazone, or sulfonylurea. The use of GLP-1 receptor agonists is not appropriate, as it is only recommended when triple therapy with metformin and two other oral drugs has failed.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain, fatigue, and anorexia that has been going on for a few weeks and is getting gradually worse. His past medical history includes heavy alcohol intake, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) and a hiatus hernia. He only takes omeprazole and has no known allergies.
On examination, he looks jaundiced.
A liver function test is done which shows:
Bilirubin 50 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALT 150 u/L (3 - 40)
AST 300 u/L (8 - 33)
Albumin 35 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis
Explanation:Understanding Alcoholic Liver Disease and its Management
Alcoholic liver disease is a range of conditions that includes alcoholic fatty liver disease, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis. One of the characteristic findings in this disease is an elevated gamma-GT level. Additionally, a ratio of AST:ALT greater than 2, and especially greater than 3, strongly suggests acute alcoholic hepatitis.
When it comes to managing alcoholic hepatitis, glucocorticoids such as prednisolone are often used during acute episodes. The Maddrey’s discriminant function (DF) is used to determine who would benefit from glucocorticoid therapy. This function is calculated using prothrombin time and bilirubin concentration. Pentoxyphylline is also sometimes used as a treatment option.
A study called STOPAH compared the two common treatments for alcoholic hepatitis, pentoxyphylline and prednisolone. The study showed that prednisolone improved survival at 28 days, while pentoxyphylline did not improve outcomes. Understanding the different types of alcoholic liver disease and their management options is crucial for healthcare professionals in providing effective care for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 32
Incorrect
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You encounter a 50-year-old female patient during a clinic visit who had a cholecystectomy six months ago. She reports experiencing persistent diarrhea since the surgery, which appears to float in the toilet. What medication would you suggest to alleviate these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholestyramine
Explanation:Cholestyramine is an effective treatment for bile-acid malabsorption. It functions by binding to bile acids in the small intestine and facilitating their reabsorption into the bile acid production cycle. This approach addresses the root cause of diarrhea in patients with this condition. In the case of the patient described, the removal of her gallbladder likely disrupted the normal cycle of bile release and reabsorption, leading to excessive bile in the large intestine and resulting in increased water and salt loss in the stool and faster transit time of stool through the intestines. While bismuth may be useful in preventing symptoms during infectious diarrhea, it is not a long-term solution. Creon is typically used to replace pancreatic enzymes in conditions such as cystic fibrosis, where there is a reduction in pancreatic enzymes reaching the intestine. Loperamide may be effective in preventing diarrhea in the short term, but it does not address the underlying cause of the patient’s condition.
Understanding Bile-Acid Malabsorption
Bile-acid malabsorption is a condition that can cause chronic diarrhea. It can be primary, which means that it is caused by excessive production of bile acid, or secondary, which is due to an underlying gastrointestinal disorder that reduces bile acid absorption. This condition can lead to steatorrhea and malabsorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K. Secondary causes are often seen in patients with ileal disease, such as Crohn’s disease, as well as those who have undergone cholecystectomy, have coeliac disease, or have small intestinal bacterial overgrowth.
To diagnose bile-acid malabsorption, the test of choice is SeHCAT, a nuclear medicine test that uses a gamma-emitting selenium molecule in selenium homocholic acid taurine or tauroselcholic acid. Scans are done 7 days apart to assess the retention or loss of radiolabeled 75SeHCAT.
The management of bile-acid malabsorption involves the use of bile acid sequestrants, such as cholestyramine. These medications work by binding to bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption and promoting their excretion. With proper management, the symptoms of bile-acid malabsorption can be controlled, and patients can lead a normal life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is more prevalent in Crohn's disease compared to ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal mass palpable in the right iliac fossa
Explanation:Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old-woman, who rarely visits the clinic, complains of heartburn and acid reflux for the past 3 weeks. She comes back after taking a PPI for 1 week with some relief. Her BMI is 27 kg/m2. What is the most suitable next step in her treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue the PPI and review in 2 weeks
Explanation:Management of New-Onset Dyspepsia in a Middle-Aged Patient
When a middle-aged patient presents with new-onset dyspepsia, it is important to take a thorough clinical history to rule out more serious conditions such as malignancy. A 4-week course of full-dose PPI is typically recommended, although there is no clear evidence on whether this or Helicobacter pylori testing should be done first. If PPIs are used, a 2-week washout period is necessary before testing for H. pylori to avoid false-negative results.
While alginate preparations like Gaviscon® can be used to inhibit gastric acid reflux, it may be more appropriate to increase the PPI dose if the patient has already experienced some improvement with this medication. However, if the patient exhibits ‘red flag’ symptoms like gastrointestinal bleeding, anorexia, weight loss, dysphagia, or the presence of an epigastric mass, urgent endoscopy is necessary. Endoscopy is also recommended for patients over 55 with persistent, unexplained dyspepsia that has not responded well to PPIs.
Finally, while this patient’s BMI is on the higher end of the healthy range, referral to a dietician is unlikely to be necessary unless there are specific concerns about weight loss measures. Overall, a comprehensive approach to managing new-onset dyspepsia in middle-aged patients involves careful consideration of symptoms, medication options, and potential underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 35
Incorrect
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You are assessing an 80-year-old man who has a medical history of hypothyroidism, Parkinson's disease, and depression. His conditions are well-managed with levothyroxine, co-careldopa, and citalopram. He reports experiencing symptoms indicative of gastroesophageal reflux disease. What medication should be avoided to manage his symptoms effectively?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Patients with Parkinsonism should not take metoclopramide due to its dopamine antagonist properties, which can exacerbate their symptoms.
Metoclopramide is a medication that is commonly used to manage nausea. It works by blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which helps to alleviate feelings of sickness. In addition to its antiemetic properties, metoclopramide also has other uses, such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis caused by diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics to treat migraines, which can cause gastroparesis and slow the absorption of pain medication.
However, metoclopramide can have some adverse effects, such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. These side effects are particularly problematic in children and young adults. It is important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in cases of bowel obstruction, but it may be helpful in cases of paralytic ileus.
Although metoclopramide primarily works as a D2 receptor antagonist, its mechanism of action is quite complex. It also acts as a mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist. The antiemetic effects of metoclopramide are due to its D2 receptor antagonist activity in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, while its gastroprokinetic effects are mediated by both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. At higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist activity also comes into play.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 36
Incorrect
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You assess a 19-year-old female patient in the outpatient medical assessment unit. Over the course of the last four months, she has been experiencing repeated episodes of severe vomiting lasting a few hours, preceded by intense sweating and nausea. She has also noticed a decrease in appetite and a slight loosening of her clothes. She was hospitalized once in the past four months due to dehydration. Her medical history includes migraines, but no psychiatric history. Routine blood tests with her GP and during her previous admission were unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclical vomiting syndrome
Explanation:Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting that occurs in distinct episodes lasting from a few hours to a few days. This condition is often associated with migraine and may also result in reduced appetite and weight loss. Unlike Crohn’s disease, which typically presents with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss, Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome does not involve these symptoms. While nausea and weight loss may be present in Pheochromocytoma, this condition does not typically involve discrete episodes of vomiting. Symptoms such as headaches, tremors, palpitations, and anxiety may also be present in Pheochromocytoma. The episodes of vomiting in Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome are not related to food consumption, making bulimia an unlikely diagnosis.
Understanding Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome
Cyclical vomiting syndrome is a rare condition that is more commonly seen in children than adults. It affects females slightly more than males, and its cause is unknown. However, 80% of children and 25% of adults who develop CVS also have migraines. The condition is characterized by severe nausea and sudden vomiting that can last for hours to days. Patients may experience intense sweating and nausea before an episode, but they are typically well in between episodes. Other symptoms that may be present include weight loss, reduced appetite, abdominal pain, diarrhea, dizziness, photophobia, and headache.
To diagnose CVS, doctors typically perform routine blood tests to exclude any underlying conditions. A pregnancy test may also be considered in women. Treatment for CVS involves avoiding triggers and using prophylactic medications such as amitriptyline, propranolol, and topiramate. During acute episodes, ondansetron, prochlorperazine, and triptans may be used.
Overall, understanding cyclical vomiting syndrome is important for patients and healthcare providers alike. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right upper quadrant pain and rigors that have been ongoing for 2 days. She had previously seen her GP 6 months ago for biliary colic and was referred for an elective cholecystectomy. Upon examination, her blood work reveals elevated levels of WCC, CRP, and bilirubin. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:If a patient with a history of gallstones experiences RUQ pain along with elevated inflammatory markers, it is more likely to be acute cholecystitis or cholangitis rather than biliary colic. The presence of fever and abnormal LFTs suggests ascending cholangitis, as opposed to cholecystitis, which is indicated by Charcot’s triad of RUQ pain, fever, and jaundice. Acute pancreatitis is unlikely if amylase levels are normal, and the sudden onset of symptoms makes malignancy, particularly cholangiocarcinoma, less probable.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is being investigated for unexplained weight loss. He reports experiencing abdominal pain, dyspepsia, and nausea. He has a history of pernicious anaemia. What is the probable diagnosis based on these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stomach cancer
Explanation:Dyspepsia, abdominal pain, nausea, and anorexia are among the early signs of stomach cancer. This type of cancer is uncommon and is more likely to occur in individuals over the age of 50, particularly those with pernicious anemia. Pancreatic cancer is linked to the onset of diabetes. Bone pain is a typical symptom of myeloma. Recurrent infections, bleeding, and bruising are common symptoms of acute leukemia.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 39
Incorrect
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As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of loose stools, abdominal pain, and fatigue. She reports having bowel movements an average of 8 times a day, and in the last 24 hours, she has noticed blood mixed in with the stools. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, which is typically well controlled with rectal mesalazine. She has no allergies or other medical conditions.
Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 16/min, oxygen saturation is 96%, and temperature is 37.9 ºC. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and the abdomen is soft with localized tenderness in the left iliac fossa. There is no guarding or peritonism, and bowel sounds are audible.
The patient's Hb is 102 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160), platelets are 398 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), WBC is 13.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0), Na is 140 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145), K is 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0), urea is 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0), creatinine is 95 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120), and CRP is 35 mg/L (normal range: <5). Based on these findings, a flare of ulcerative colitis is suspected.
What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit + IV hydrocortisone
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
Blood tests reveal:
Bilirubin 45 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 326 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 72 u/L (3 - 40)
Positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis is a likely diagnosis for a middle-aged female patient with an obstructive liver injury picture and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype. This differential is important to consider, as alcohol abuse may not always be obvious and gallstones could produce a similar result on liver function tests. However, the absence of pain and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies make these less likely. Paracetamol overdose is also a potential differential, but the liver function profile in this case is more consistent with an obstructive picture, with a higher ALP and bilirubin and a modest increase in ALT. Additionally, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are not associated with paracetamol overdose.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man complains of dyspepsia without any alarm symptoms. He has no significant medical history and this is his first episode. The plan is to use a test-and-treat approach. What is the most suitable test to detect Helicobacter pylori?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 13C-urea breath test
Explanation:The urea breath test is a non-invasive, highly specific and sensitive method. Therefore, there is no need for an endoscopy. Instead, an alternative option is to use stool antigen instead of culture.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She has vomited twice since the onset of the pain and has not passed any wind or faeces in the last twelve hours. Her medical history includes a partial small bowel resection due to traumatic perforation. On examination, her abdomen appears distended and there is generalised tenderness on palpation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 153 g/L (115 - 160), platelets of 312 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC count of 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), bilirubin of 17 µmol/L (3 - 17), ALP of 78 u/L (30 - 100), ALT of 29 u/L (3 - 40), and amylase of 880 U/L (70 - 300). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Explanation:Elevated serum amylase levels are not always indicative of acute pancreatitis, as they can also be seen in cases of small bowel obstruction. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, and a lack of bowel movements or gas, which are all typical symptoms of small bowel obstruction. The fact that the patient has a history of abdominal surgery further supports this diagnosis, despite the misleading blood test results. Acute cholecystitis, on the other hand, presents with different symptoms such as fever, right upper quadrant pain, and systemic distress, and does not typically cause elevated amylase levels. Acute pancreatitis may also be considered as a differential diagnosis, but it is not associated with a lack of bowel movements or gas, and previous bowel surgery is not a risk factor. Ascending cholangitis and large bowel obstruction can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and test results.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with ulcerative colitis is seen for his follow-up appointment. He had a moderate flare-up of his condition two months ago, which was treated with oral steroids and resolved. He has not had any other flare-ups in the past year and his most recent colonoscopy showed left-sided disease. He is currently asymptomatic, with normal observations and bowel movements of 2-3 times per day. What is the best medical treatment to maintain remission for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral mesalazine
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) due to biliary colic. She has an uneventful procedure but is re-admitted the same night with severe abdominal pain.
On examination, she is tachycardic, short of breath, and has a pleural effusion on her chest X-ray (CXR).
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
C-reactive protein (CRP) 180 mg/l < 10 mg/l
White cell count (WCC) 15.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Creatine (Cr) 140 µmol/l 50–120µmol/l
Urea 7.5mmol/l 2.5–6.5mmol/l
Phosphate (PO4-) 1.0mmol/l 0.8–1.5 mmol/l
Corrected Calcium (Ca2+) 0.8 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
What is her most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Understanding Complications of ERCP: Pancreatitis, Cholangitis, and More
ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) is a common procedure used to diagnose and treat conditions of the bile ducts and pancreas. However, like any medical procedure, it carries risks and potential complications. One such complication is pancreatitis, which can present with non-specific symptoms but may be accompanied by hypocalcaemia. Immediate management includes confirming the diagnosis and severity of pancreatitis, intravenous fluid resuscitation, oxygen, and adequate analgesia. Another potential complication is ascending cholangitis, which can present with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain. Biliary perforation is a serious but infrequent complication that is usually recognized during the procedure, while intestinal perforation is not an expected complication. A reaction to contrast would have occurred during the procedure. It is important to understand these potential complications and their symptoms in order to provide prompt and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a 3-day history of acute left-sided abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fever. She has a history of chronic constipation. On examination she is tachycardic and there is localised peritonism in the left iliac fossa.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital under the surgical team for investigation and management
Explanation:Differentiating Appropriate Management Strategies for Diverticulitis: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
Diverticulitis is a common condition that can lead to serious complications if not managed appropriately. As a healthcare professional, it is important to understand the different management strategies available and when they are appropriate. Here are some scenarios and the recommended management strategies:
1. Admit to hospital under the surgical team for investigation and management: This is the recommended management strategy for a patient with peritonitis secondary to diverticulitis. The surgical team may choose to use imaging investigations first or proceed straight to surgery for operative management.
2. Admit to hospital for urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) enterography: MRI enterography is not usually used in diverticular disease. A CT scan would be quicker and would provide the required information needed to evaluate whether or not the patient needs emergency surgery.
3. Analgesia and fluids and review in 24 hours: This management strategy is not appropriate for a patient with severe diverticulitis and peritonism. Urgent intravenous antibiotics and fluid management in the hospital are needed.
4. Arrange a stool sample and commence antibiotics in the community: A stool sample is unlikely to provide any additional information in this scenario. Urgent admission to the hospital for further management is needed.
5. Admit to hospital for urgent colonoscopy: Performing a colonoscopy on an inflamed bowel would be inappropriate since the risk of perforation would be high. A colonoscopy is sometimes used to evaluate the patient after the diverticulitis is present, to exclude other intramural pathology.
In conclusion, appropriate management strategies for diverticulitis depend on the severity of the condition and the presence of complications. Healthcare professionals should be aware of the different options available and choose the most appropriate one for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the neurology clinic with a unilateral hand tremor. Her family has noticed changes in her behavior, mood, and speech over the past year. During the examination, a resting tremor is observed in her right hand, along with bradykinesia and a lack of movement. Additionally, dark circular marks are visible around her iris. The patient mentions that her uncle passed away from liver cirrhosis at the age of 42. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilson's disease
Explanation:Wilson’s disease is indicated by the presence of both liver and neurological conditions, as well as the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings and a family history of liver disease.
Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes excessive copper buildup in the body tissues due to increased copper absorption from the small intestine and decreased hepatic copper excretion. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13. Symptoms usually appear between the ages of 10 and 25, with children presenting with liver disease and young adults with neurological disease. The disease is characterised by excessive copper deposition in the brain, liver, and cornea, resulting in various symptoms such as hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioural problems, Kayser-Fleischer rings, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails.
To diagnose Wilson’s disease, a slit lamp examination is conducted to check for Kayser-Fleischer rings, and blood and urine tests are performed to measure copper levels. The diagnosis is confirmed by genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene. The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. However, trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation for the treatment of Wilson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes of gastroenteritis has the lengthiest incubation period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with dyspepsia and an endoscopy reveals a gastric ulcer. A CLO test confirms H. pylori infection and she is treated with eradication therapy. However, at her follow-up appointment six weeks later, her symptoms persist. What is the best test to confirm H. pylori eradication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:The sole recommended test for H. pylori after eradication therapy is the urea breath test. It should be noted that H. pylori serology will still show positive results even after eradication. In such cases, a stool antigen test, rather than culture, may be a suitable alternative.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) visits the Emergency Room (ER) with complaints of intense abdominal pain that has been ongoing for the past two hours. His arterial blood gas results reveal metabolic acidosis with elevated lactate levels.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemic colitis
Explanation:Ischaemic colitis is a condition where a segment of the colon does not receive enough blood supply, resulting in varying degrees of tissue death. It is typically seen in older individuals with atherosclerosis of the mesenteric vessels, but can also be caused by other factors such as embolic disease, vasculitis, and trauma. The main symptom is severe pain that is not proportional to physical exam findings. Serum lactate levels may be elevated, but this does not necessarily indicate GI ischemia. Diagnosis can be confirmed with contrast-enhanced CT or early endoscopy. Prognosis is poor, especially in cases of occlusive mesenteric infarction. Colorectal cancer typically presents with bleeding, change in bowel habits, and abdominal pain, but the patient’s hyperacute onset of symptoms makes this diagnosis unlikely. Diverticulitis is inflammation of a diverticulum in the colon and presents with left lower quadrant pain, but the patient’s other symptoms are not consistent with this diagnosis. Community-acquired pneumonia and pyelonephritis also have different clinical presentations and are not likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his symptoms through dietary changes alone. He is primarily bothered by abdominal discomfort and bloating.
What is the most suitable next step in his treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mebeverine hydrochloride
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. The condition is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Management of IBS involves psychological support, dietary measures, and pharmacological treatment for symptom relief.
Antispasmodics, such as mebeverine hydrochloride, are commonly used to alleviate pain and bloating in IBS patients. Loperamide is the first choice of antimotility agent for diarrhea, while laxatives are recommended for constipation. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), such as amitriptyline, are considered a second-line treatment option for IBS patients who do not respond to other medications. However, the use of opioids, such as tramadol, is not recommended due to the risk of constipation, dependence, and tolerance.
In conclusion, pharmacological management of IBS should be tailored to the individual patient’s symptoms and needs, with a focus on providing relief from pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits. Regular review and adjustment of medication dosages are necessary to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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