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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Neurology Clinic with a severe, sudden-onset headache at the back of his head, associated with vomiting. His paternal aunt has been on dialysis since the age of 45.
On examination, his blood pressure is 190/100 mm/Hg and he has a mass in both loins.
Given the diagnosis, what is the likelihood that his sister is affected?Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Likelihood of Genetic Diseases: A Case Study of Autosomal-Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease
Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPCKD) affects 1 in 1000 individuals and is the most common inherited cause of serious renal disease. This case study explores the likelihood of a patient having ADPCKD based on their symptoms and family history.
The patient presented with a headache caused by a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which is often caused by intracranial aneurysms. Individuals with ADPCKD have a higher risk of developing these aneurysms, which also rupture at a younger age than those in the general population. The patient also had hypertension, loin masses, and a family history of dialysis, all of which are indicators of ADPCKD.
The likelihood of the patient having ADPCKD is 50%, as it is highly unlikely that both parents have the ADPCKD gene. If one parent has the gene, there is a 50% chance of inheriting it.
It is important to note that 100% likelihood of genetic diseases is rare unless prenatal genetic testing has taken place. Prenatal testing can only be done if the specific genetic abnormality is known and can be tested for. This type of testing raises ethical implications that need to be considered.
Understanding the likelihood of genetic diseases is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment. In the case of ADPCKD, early detection and management can help prevent serious renal and neurological complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the family General Practitioner (GP) as she is concerned about his development. He has not yet started to walk and was not able to sit unaided until the age of 18 months. For the first few months of his life, the health visitor had seen him frequently for poor weight gain, though for the last year, his appetite has seemed insatiable.
On examination, his height is in the 25th centile (25th centile at 18 months) and his weight is in the 90th centile (50th centile at 18 months). He has small, descended testes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Angelman syndrome
Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS)
Explanation:Diagnosing a Child with Developmental Delay, Excessive Appetite, and Small Testes: Differential Diagnosis
Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS), a genetic disorder characterized by developmental delay, learning disability, excessive appetite, and obesity, is a possible diagnosis for a child presenting with these symptoms. However, other conditions must be considered in the differential diagnosis. Obesity, while becoming more common in childhood, would not account for the developmental delay or small testes. Angelman syndrome, another genetic cause of developmental delay, is not associated with excessive hunger, obesity, or hypogonadism. Fragile X syndrome (FXS), the commonest cause of sex-linked learning disability, is characterized by large testicles, but the small testes in this case make FXS unlikely. Hyperphagic short stature syndrome (HSS), a behavioral disease associated with growth-hormone insufficiency, leading to short stature and an insatiable appetite, doesn’t account for the symptoms of developmental delay and small testes seen in this case. Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother, who has concerns about his mobility. He is having progressive difficulty with standing from the floor. He was able to sit unaided at 12 months and walk at 22 months. He has not been able to run, tending to ‘waddle’ if he tries.
On examination, he has wasting to the quadriceps and calves, and a positive Gowers sign.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Type I diabetes mellitus (T1DM)
Correct Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
Explanation:The case involves a boy with DMD, a common childhood-onset muscular dystrophy with X-linked recessive inheritance. Symptoms include developmental delay, inability to run, waddling gait, and wasting of leg muscles. DDH, BMD, cerebral palsy, and T1DM are ruled out as possible causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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Which mental health disorder has the strongest and most established association with family history as a risk factor in the index case?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Strongest and Most Established Link in Mental Health Disorders
A family history is particularly associated with depressive disorder and schizophrenia. For schizophrenia, the average lifetime risk is about 5-10% among first-degree relatives of schizophrenics. However, monozygotic twin studies do not show 100% concordance, suggesting that environmental factors also play a part, although the nature of these is not clear.
The cause of Asperger’s syndrome is unclear, and there is no known heredity involved. Similarly in OCD there is no clear familial link, although some studies have noted higher frequency of OCD in the first-degree relatives of children and adults with OCD.
Borderline personality disorder is not inherited, although may be associated with traumatic early life experiences, particularly physical and sexual abuse in childhood.
MRCGP questions may include options that are plausible but less appropriate than the correct answer. There may be genetic factors involved in OCD and Tourette’s, but the associations are complex and less clear cut than with schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about being different from her peers who have already started menstruating. She has a history of irregular attendance but is currently in good health. On examination, she is on the 25th centile for height and the 90th centile for weight. She has no signs of secondary sexual characteristics and presents with a broad chest and webbed neck. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Common Causes of Short Stature and Delayed Puberty
Short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the most common causes:
1. Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females. It occurs in between 1 in 2500 and 1 in 5000 live births. Features include short stature, delayed development of secondary sexual characteristics, and absence of menses. Patients may also have mild intellectual impairment and cardiovascular defects. There is a loss of one X chromosome (chromosome pattern XO), which results in a broad (webbed neck) and widely spaced nipples.2. Constitutional Delay in Puberty
Constitutional delay in puberty is often familial and is the most common cause of short stature and delayed puberty. In otherwise normal children, linear growth slows until about the age of 3 years, then proceeds normally until expected puberty, and then slows again in the absence of a growth spurt. A full catch-up may not occur.3. Down’s Syndrome
Short stature occurs in Down’s syndrome, but puberty is not normally delayed. Down’s syndrome would usually have been diagnosed early in life by the presence of typical features, which do not include a webbed neck.4. Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism occurring during prepubertal years, usually due to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, can cause delayed puberty or, in some cases, precocious puberty. Other features of hypothyroidism should be present. In contrast, treated congenital hyperthyroidism usually results in normal pubertal development.5. Klinefelter Syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is caused by an XXY genotype. The usual presentation is with delayed sexual development or infertility.In conclusion, short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and thyroid problems. It is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 65-year-old retired teacher who is a smoker is diagnosed with lung cancer. Some ten years ago, he was treated with surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy for bladder cancer. His brother had oesophageal cancer, aged 66, and another brother had prostate cancer in his 70s. His 55-year-old daughter was recently diagnosed with breast cancer.
What is the most likely explanation for the cancers in this patient?Your Answer: Exposure to tobacco smoke
Explanation:Possible causes of multiple malignancies
Exposure to tobacco smoke and other factors that increase cancer risk
It is not uncommon for a person to develop more than one cancer in their lifetime. In this case, the most likely explanation is exposure to tobacco smoke, which is a known carcinogen for both lung and bladder cancer. Other factors that can increase cancer risk include exposure to asbestos, aniline dyes, and certain chemicals, as well as a hereditary cancer predisposition syndrome. However, there is no evidence of these factors in this case, except for a family history of common cancers. It is also possible, although less likely, that the second tumor is a late complication of chemotherapy, which has been linked to some types of secondary cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has just failed her medical for a career as a graphic designer because of previously undiagnosed red-green colour blindness. She has been told that she has inherited this from her parents and feels that it is their fault that she has been barred from her chosen career.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the cause of red-green colour blindness?Your Answer: Red-green colour blindness is extremely rare
Correct Answer: Red-green colour blindness is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait
Explanation:Understanding Red-Green Colour Blindness: Causes, Prevalence, and Implications for Driving and Employment
Red-green colour blindness is the most common type of colour vision deficiency, affecting 8% of men and 0.4% of women. This condition is usually congenital and inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. While less common forms of colour blindness are acquired and associated with macular disease, red-green colour blindness is often present from birth.
To assess red-green colour vision, Ishihara plates are commonly used as a screening tool. It is important to test colour vision in suspected optic nerve lesions and thyroid eye disease, as colour vision can be affected before visual acuity is impacted.
While the DVLA need not be informed of red-green colour blindness, certain occupations may exclude individuals with this condition. However, driving is generally not limited as traffic lights can be distinguished by their position.
Understanding the causes, prevalence, and implications of red-green colour blindness is important for individuals with this condition and their healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to you with his wife due to infertility issues after being married for 8 years. Upon examination, you notice that he is tall, thin, and has bilateral gynaecomastia. Your colleague has conducted some initial tests, and one of them has come back with elevated levels of urinary gonadotrophins. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Marfan syndrome
Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders and Andropause
Gaucher’s and Marfan syndrome are genetic disorders that do not typically present with infertility. Noonan’s syndrome, on the other hand, is associated with short stature. Klinefelter’s syndrome is a sex chromosome disorder that affects approximately 1 in 400 to 1 in 600 male births, typically with 47 XXY, XXXYY, or XXYY.
Andropause is a term used to describe the gradual decrease in serum testosterone concentration that occurs with age. However, this decrease usually doesn’t occur until after the age of 50. It is important to note that while these conditions may affect fertility and hormone levels, there are various treatments and management options available to individuals who may be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Among the given options, which disorder exhibits a polygenic mode of inheritance?
Your Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia
Correct Answer: Manic depressive psychosis
Explanation:Inherited Conditions: Types and Patterns of Inheritance
Inherited conditions can be classified based on their patterns of inheritance. Polygenic traits, such as height, are affected by multiple genes and do not follow Mendelian inheritance. Mental health conditions are often polygenic. Huntington’s chorea is an autosomal-dominant condition that presents in adulthood with involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and memory problems. Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal-recessive condition that typically presents before age 25. Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked-dominant condition and the most common inherited cause of learning disability. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be detected through newborn screening or present with respiratory and/or gastrointestinal symptoms. Understanding the patterns of inheritance can aid in diagnosis and genetic counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of a first degree relative of someone with coeliac disease also having the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 50
Explanation:Importance of Testing First Degree Relatives for Coeliac Disease
The prevalence of coeliac disease is high in individuals who have a first degree relative with the condition, with a rate of 1 in 10. This highlights the significance of offering testing to first degree relatives, even if they do not exhibit any symptoms. This recommendation is supported by NICE, as untreated coeliac disease can lead to an increased risk of various diseases, such as lymphoma and gut malignancy. Therefore, early detection and treatment of coeliac disease in first degree relatives can help prevent the development of these serious health complications. It is crucial to raise awareness about the importance of testing for coeliac disease in families with a history of the condition to ensure that individuals receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You see a 45-year-old man who has a family history of pancreatic cancer. He says his father and paternal grandmother had been diagnosed and a cousin also had breast cancer, as well as a number of family members being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The patient has no related symptoms.
Which is the best management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to a geneticist
Explanation:Referral for Genetic Counseling in a Patient with Strong Family History of Pancreatic Cancer
With a strong family history of pancreatic cancer and related conditions such as diabetes, it is important to refer the patient to a genetic counselor. The genetic counselor will gather information about the family history of pancreatic cancer and other related cancers such as prostate cancer, melanoma, breast cancer, or ovarian cancer. This will help determine if genetic testing is necessary.
At this stage, an MRI or ultrasound scan is not necessary as the patient is asymptomatic. However, a routine referral to a gastroenterologist may be considered. It is important to investigate further due to the strong family history of pancreatic cancer. Therefore, referral for genetic counseling is recommended to determine if the patient is at increased risk for developing pancreatic cancer or other related cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with hypogonadism and infertility. He had a normal puberty and there is no significant family history. On physical examination, he has gynaecomastia, small testes, and is tall. His sense of smell is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Syndromes and Their Characteristics
Klinefelter Syndrome: The Most Common Sex-Chromosome Abnormality
Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the addition of an extra X chromosome (XXY) due to non-disjunction. It is the most common sex-chromosome abnormality, affecting 1 in 600 male births. Men with Klinefelter syndrome tend to be tall and may have mild learning difficulties, although many have normal intellect. This syndrome is also the most common cause of male hypogonadism and infertility.
Fragile X Syndrome: A Learning Disability Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both sexes. In males, it is associated with macro-orchidism, but not hypogonadism or infertility. Females with Fragile X syndrome may experience premature ovarian failure. People with this syndrome have moderate-to-severe learning disabilities and average height.
Kallmann Syndrome: A Disorder Associated with Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism
Kallmann syndrome is a genetic disorder associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, where levels of luteinising hormone and follicular stimulating hormone are low. It has several inheritance patterns, including dominant, recessive, and X-linked. People with Kallmann syndrome fail to go through puberty and are usually infertile. They also have anosmia, but most have normal or above normal height.
Marfan Syndrome: A Disorder Associated with Tall Stature
Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that causes people to be tall and thin with long arms and legs compared to their trunk. It is not associated with hypogonadism or infertility, and intelligence is normal.
XYY Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder
XYY syndrome is a rare genetic disorder caused by the addition of an extra Y chromosome in males due to non-disjunction. Symptoms are few but may include being tall, having acne, and a risk of learning difficulty. It is not associated with hypogonadism or infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7 mmol/l on testing by the GP. His father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 60-years old. He has no other risk factors and is well. However, he himself has three daughters.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to a lipid specialist
Explanation:Management of Familial Hypercholesterolaemia
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol in the blood, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Here are some management options for a patient suspected of having FH:
Refer to a lipid specialist: If there is strong evidence of FH, NICE recommends referral to a specialist for confirmation of the diagnosis and cascade testing. This is important to identify affected relatives and provide appropriate management.
Prescribe atorvastatin: Atorvastatin 20 mg daily is the drug of choice for a patient with confirmed heterozygous FH. It is a high-intensity statin that effectively lowers cholesterol levels.
Provide dietary advice: Patients with FH should be offered individualised advice from a dietician to help manage their cholesterol levels. This may include reducing saturated fat intake and increasing consumption of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
Avoid simvastatin: Simvastatin is only a moderate-intensity statin and is not recommended as the first-line treatment for FH. High-intensity statins such as atorvastatin and rosuvastatin are preferred.
Avoid combination therapy with a fibrate: While fibrates can lower cholesterol levels, they are not recommended for use in FH management. Statins and/or ezetimibe are the drugs of choice, and treatment should be initiated by a lipid specialist if needed.
In summary, FH requires careful management to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Referral to a lipid specialist, prescribing atorvastatin, providing dietary advice, and avoiding certain medications can all help to effectively manage FH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to see you as she is worried that she may be at risk of ovarian cancer.
Her 52-year-old maternal cousin has just been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. Her mother also recently passed away with ovarian cancer, which she contracted aged 77. Her paternal uncle died of lung cancer in his 60s.
What should you do?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to specialist genetics clinic
Explanation:Key Points for Referring Women for Genetic Counselling
When it comes to referring women for genetic counselling, there are a few key points to keep in mind. While you don’t need to know all the details, it’s important to know when to refer. One crucial learning point is that women should be referred if they have two relatives with ovarian cancer on the same side of the family, regardless of age.
If a woman’s mother had breast cancer instead of ovarian cancer, the age of diagnosis would be a factor in determining whether she should be referred. Guidelines suggest that if the mother was diagnosed with breast cancer before the age of 50, the daughter should be referred to a specialist genetics clinic.
Other guidelines from NICE and SIGN provide additional criteria for referral, such as a family history of breast or colon cancer. However, annual examinations for breast or ovarian cancer are not recommended, and CA125 testing is not currently suggested for asymptomatic patients.
It’s important to provide women with advice on ovarian cancer symptoms so they can seek medical attention early if needed. But ultimately, a specialist genetics service assessment is the best way to determine if genetic counselling is necessary. By keeping these key points in mind, healthcare providers can ensure that women receive the appropriate care and support for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman comes to your clinic to ask for advice about breast screening.
She has a friend aged 50 who has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer and knows several other women who have had breast cancer in the past. She wants to know about the overall risk of developing breast cancer.
What is the lifetime risk of a woman developing breast cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 7
Explanation:Breast Cancer and Age: Understanding the Risk
Breast cancer is a disease that affects women of all ages, but the risk of developing it increases with age. In fact, 80% of cases occur in postmenopausal women. While breast cancer is extremely rare in women in their teens or early twenties, it becomes more common as women get older. The risk of developing breast cancer continues to rise after the age of 35, with a sharp increase after menopause. It is important for women to be aware of their risk and to undergo regular screenings as they age. By understanding the relationship between age and breast cancer, women can take steps to protect their health and detect any potential issues early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You see a 14-year-old girl who has never previously attended medical care. Her mother is concerned that she has short stature (below the 50th centile for height) and has not begun menstruating. She appears to have excess skin around her neck and has poor development of secondary sexual characteristics. There is a murmur suggestive of aortic stenosis. After referral, you are informed that her chromosome pattern is XO.
Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders: Overview and Characteristics
Genetic disorders are conditions caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These disorders can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including growth and development, organ function, and susceptibility to certain diseases. Here are some common genetic disorders and their characteristics:
Turner Syndrome: This disorder occurs in females when one of the X chromosomes is missing. Symptoms include short stature, delayed development of secondary sexual characteristics, and absence of menses. Patients may also have dyspraxia, poor spatial awareness, or mild intellectual impairment. Associated cardiovascular defects may include aortic stenosis, bicuspid aortic valve, or coarctation of the aorta. Patients also have an increased risk of hypothyroidism.
Noonan Syndrome: This disorder presents with a similar phenotype to Turner syndrome, but the X chromosome is not absent. It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant manner and affects both men and women.
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia: This disorder is due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which is needed for cortisol synthesis. Symptoms in girls may include ambiguous genitalia at birth, infertility, hirsutism, oligomenorrhoea, or amenorrhoea with polycystic ovaries and acne. Boys may appear normal but may experience salt-losing crisis early in life.
Congenital Lymphoedema: This disorder, also known as Milroy’s disease, is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. Lymphatic vessels are small or absent, leading to oedema in the feet at birth or soon after. Lymphoedema, mainly of the hands, feet, and neck, is present in about 70% of people with Turner syndrome.
Androgen-Insensitivity Syndrome: This disorder affects XY males who are unresponsive to androgens. They are born looking externally like females with a short blind-ending vagina and no uterus. Testes are in the abdomen or inguinal canal. The condition is X-linked recessive, and complete androgen-insensitivity syndrome is often not diagnosed until puberty.
In conclusion, genetic disorders can have a significant impact on an individual’s health and well-being. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes and quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a painful, swollen, left lower leg. She has recently been started on a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has never smoked. Her mother had a pulmonary embolism in her thirties, while pregnant.
On examination, her body mass index (BMI) is 23 kg/m2.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation
Explanation:Understanding Thrombophilias: Factor V Leiden Mutation and Other Genetic Risk Factors for DVT
Deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious medical condition that can be caused by a variety of risk factors, including heritable thrombophilias. These genetic conditions can be identified in up to 50% of venous thromboemboli cases, and the most common heritable thrombophilia in Caucasians is the Factor V Leiden mutation. This autosomal-dominant condition affects around 5% of the population and increases the risk of thrombosis three to eight times, depending on the individual’s genotype. Other genetic risk factors for DVT include protein C and protein S deficiencies, which are less common than Factor V Leiden mutation. It is important to consider these genetic risk factors when evaluating patients with DVT, especially those with a family history of hormone-associated VTE or without other traditional risk factors for thrombosis. Understanding thrombophilias can help clinicians make informed decisions about treatment and prevention strategies for DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A man of 45 years is concerned about his family history of ischaemic heart disease. His father was a non-smoker and passed away due to a myocardial infarction at the age of 44 years. His paternal grandfather and a paternal uncle both suffered from myocardial infarcts in their forties.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Inherited Cardiovascular Conditions: Understanding the Genetics Behind Familial Hypercholesterolaemia, Haemochromatosis, Factor V Leiden Mutation, Homocystinuria, and Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
Inherited cardiovascular conditions can significantly increase the risk of heart disease and other related health issues. Here are some key genetic factors to consider:
Familial hypercholesterolaemia affects approximately 1 in 500 people and is linked to a higher risk of cardiovascular disease. If a first-degree relative has died before the age of 60, measuring serum cholesterol is recommended.
Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive condition that leads to excess iron accumulation in the liver and other tissues. While it is not associated with increased ischaemic heart disease, it may cause cardiomyopathy.
Factor V Leiden mutation is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and affects clotting factor V. People with this mutation have an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
Homocystinuria is a rare autosomal-recessive inborn error of methionine metabolism. While elevated plasma homocysteine levels are associated with ischaemic heart disease, it is less likely to be responsible for a strong family history compared to familial hypercholesterolaemia. Individuals with homocystinuria may have a marfanoid habitus and downward lens dislocation.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and may cause sudden death at a young age due to arrhythmia or left ventricular outlet obstruction. While heart muscle is abnormal, it is not due to ischaemia. It is important to note that myocardial infarctions are not typically associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with a one-year history of involuntary movements, behavioural changes and mild memory loss. His father died with similar problems at the age of 55.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Huntington’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Chorea Disorders: Huntington’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Disease, Benign Hereditary Chorea, Sydenham’s Chorea, and Wilson’s Disease
Chorea is a neurological disorder characterized by involuntary writhing movements. However, not all chorea disorders are the same. Here are five different chorea disorders and their distinguishing features:
1. Huntington’s Disease: This is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that usually presents in the third or fourth decade of life. In addition to chorea, patients may also experience dystonia, un-coordination, cognitive decline, and behavioral difficulties.
2. Alzheimer’s Disease: Patients with Alzheimer’s usually present after the age of 50 years with slowly progressive dementia. However, chorea is not a feature of this condition.
3. Benign Hereditary Chorea: This is a rare autosomal-dominant condition that begins in early childhood. Unlike Huntington’s disease, the choreiform movements do not progress and are not associated with cognitive and psychiatric problems. Occasionally, developmental abnormalities of thyroid and lung tissue are also present.
4. Sydenham’s Chorea: This autoimmune process is triggered after infection with a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus. It typically occurs between the ages of 5 and 15 years and usually resolves within a few months.
5. Wilson’s Disease: This rare autosomal-recessive disorder of copper metabolism usually presents with liver disease in children or with neuropsychiatric illness in young adults. Neurological features include tremor, choreiform movement, and Parkinsonian features.
Knowing the distinguishing features of these chorea disorders can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which trait is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Genetic Disorders
Neurofibromatosis is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a single gene. Beta thalassaemia, on the other hand, is recessively inherited. If an individual has one copy of the abnormal gene, it is called ‘thalassaemia minor’, while having two copies of the abnormal gene results in ‘thalassaemia major’. Prader-Willi syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that is characterised by insatiable appetite, hyperglycaemia, and short stature. Lastly, Down’s syndrome is also a chromosomal disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy crawled and walked at the normal age but has not yet developed much speech. His ears seem abnormally large and he has a long thin face. He is quite an overactive child.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms
Fragile X Syndrome, ADHD, Down Syndrome, Marfan Syndrome, and Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness are genetic disorders that affect individuals in different ways. Fragile X Syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both boys and girls, causing learning difficulties, delayed development, and other symptoms such as attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, autistic spectrum disorder, and speech problems. ADHD is a combination of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning and/or development. Down Syndrome is characterized by typical facial features, physical abnormalities, and a low IQ due to an additional chromosome 21. Marfan Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting connective tissue, resulting in skeletal, skin, cardiac, aortic, ocular, and dura mater malformations. Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness is most commonly inherited by autosomal-recessive genes, and children have a normal appearance and IQ. Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these genetic disorders is crucial for early diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman has been referred to the outpatient clinic due to declining renal function. After diagnosis, it is determined that she has AD polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). Her family history reveals that her mother died of a stroke at the age of 46, and her father is still alive. She is worried about the likelihood of passing on the disorder to her daughter. What is the chance that her daughter will inherit ADPKD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic condition that usually manifests between the ages of 30-50. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that if one parent has the condition, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their child.
ADPKD is characterized by the development of cysts in the kidneys, which can lead to deteriorating renal function and hypertension. In addition to renal cysts, patients may also have hepatic and berry aneurysms. A maternal history of these conditions may be highly relevant in determining the risk of developing ADPKD.
It is important for individuals with a family history of ADPKD to undergo genetic testing and regular monitoring to detect and manage any potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer and has tested positive for a BRCA1 mutation on genetic screening. Her mother and aunt both received treatment for breast cancer at a young age, indicating a strong family history of the disease.
The woman is worried that she may have passed the gene onto her son and daughter, and is also concerned that her sister may have inherited the gene.
During counselling, what is the most appropriate statement to make regarding the risk of her family members inheriting the BRCA1 gene?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Both children and her sister have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene
Explanation:Breast Cancer Risk Factors
Breast cancer is a disease that affects many women worldwide. There are several factors that can increase a woman’s risk of developing breast cancer. One of the most significant predisposing factors is the presence of BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes, which can increase a woman’s lifetime risk of breast and ovarian cancer by 40%. Other factors include having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer, nulliparity, having a first pregnancy after the age of 30, early menarche, late menopause, combined hormone replacement therapy, combined oral contraceptive use, past breast cancer, not breastfeeding, ionizing radiation exposure, p53 gene mutations, and obesity. Additionally, previous surgery for benign disease may increase the risk of breast cancer due to the possibility of scar tissue hiding a lump. It is important for women to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss them with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man attends his General Practice (GP) Surgery for support following a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. He thinks he may have a hereditary condition, as multiple family members have been diagnosed with cancer. His older brother had colorectal cancer diagnosed at the age of 34, while his father had colorectal cancer diagnosed at the age of 52. His paternal aunt was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at the age of 50.
Which of the following is the most likely condition affecting this family?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lynch syndrome (hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer syndrome (HNPCC))
Explanation:Genetic Syndromes Associated with Increased Cancer Risk
There are several genetic syndromes that increase the risk of developing certain types of cancer. One of the most common is Lynch syndrome, also known as hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer syndrome (HNPCC). This syndrome increases the risk of developing colorectal and endometrial cancers, as well as other types of cancer such as ovarian, stomach, and bladder cancer. Lynch syndrome is caused by mutations in mismatch repair (MMR) genes, and testing for these mutations is recommended for individuals who meet the Amsterdam criteria based on their family history of Lynch-associated cancers.
Li-Fraumeni syndrome (LFS) is a rare inherited syndrome associated with various cancers, such as sarcomas, leukaemia, brain cancers, adrenal cortex cancer, and breast cancers. It is caused by mutations in the TP53 gene and is not associated with colorectal or endometrial cancers.
Cowden syndrome is another inherited syndrome associated with an increased risk of developing various types of cancer, including breast, endometrial, colorectal, thyroid, kidney, and melanoma. It is caused by mutations in the PTEN gene and is less common than Lynch syndrome.
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is a genetic condition that predisposes affected individuals to developing numerous adenomatous bowel polyps, often more than 100 by the age of 35. It is caused by mutations in the APC gene and is associated with cancers of the stomach, small intestine, pancreas, biliary tree, and liver, but not typically endometrial cancer.
Peutz-Jegher syndrome (PJS) is an inherited condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal, pancreatic, stomach, testicular, ovarian, and cervical cancer. It is associated with characteristic skin pigmentation and the development of large, benign polyps in the small and large intestine.
Overall, genetic testing and surveillance are important for individuals with a family history of these syndromes to detect and prevent cancer at an early stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are asked to evaluate a 20-year-old man who has been experiencing recurrent pneumothoraces. He is tall, has pes planus, and exhibits increased arm-span-to-height and upper-to-lower-segment body ratios. What additional feature would be most useful in diagnosing Marfan syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early diastolic murmur
Explanation:Clinical Features of Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the body’s connective tissue. There are two major diagnostic criteria for Marfan syndrome: aortic-root dilatation and ectopia lentis. However, there are also several clinical features that may indicate the presence of the syndrome.
One such feature is an early diastolic murmur, which can be caused by aortic-valve incompetence and may indicate aortic-root dilatation. Another feature is a mid-systolic click, which is most likely the result of a mitral valve prolapse. Arachnodactyly and joint hypermobility are also features of Marfan syndrome, but they are considered minor criteria. A high-arched palate is another clinical feature of the syndrome.
It is important to note that while these features may suggest the presence of Marfan syndrome, a proper diagnosis can only be made through genetic testing and evaluation by a medical professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his ability to form relationships. He reports feeling depressed and struggling to connect with women. During his previous relationship, he sought treatment for erectile dysfunction at the clinic.
Upon physical examination, the patient has small testes and limited secondary sexual hair. He appears thin and has disproportionately long arms and legs in relation to his body.
What is true regarding his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He is at risk of osteoporosis
Explanation:Klinefelter’s Syndrome and its Associated Risks
Klinefelter’s Syndrome is a genetic condition that affects males, resulting in the lack of testosterone production. This deficiency increases the risk of osteoporosis, which can lead to fractures. Unfortunately, due to a lack of early diagnosis, some patients may present with osteoporotic fractures. In addition to osteoporosis, patients with Klinefelter’s Syndrome have an increased risk of testicular carcinoma, autoimmune disorders such as diabetes mellitus and SLE, and male breast cancer.
The mainstay of treatment for Klinefelter’s Syndrome is androgen replacement therapy. For those who want to father offspring, modern techniques such as microsurgical testicular sperm extraction may be used. It is important for individuals with Klinefelter’s Syndrome to be aware of these associated risks and to seek appropriate medical care to manage their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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For which patients with a family history of breast cancer should a referral to secondary care be made for further assessment of their risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 28-year-old woman whose 31-year-old brother has just been diagnosed with breast cancer
Explanation:Referral Criteria for Breast Cancer Screening
Breast cancer is a serious health concern that affects many individuals worldwide. To ensure early detection and prompt treatment, it is important to identify individuals who are at a higher risk of developing breast cancer. The following referral criteria have been established to identify individuals who should be referred to secondary care for breast cancer screening:
– One first degree female relative diagnosed with breast cancer under the age of 40 years
– One first degree male relative diagnosed with breast cancer at any age
– One first degree relative with bilateral breast cancer where the first primary was diagnosed under the age of 50 years
– Two first degree relatives, or one first degree and one second degree relative, diagnosed with breast cancer at any age
– One first degree or second degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer at any age and one first degree or second degree relative diagnosed with ovarian cancer at any age (one of these should be a first degree relative)
– Three first degree or second degree relatives diagnosed with breast cancer at any age.By identifying individuals who meet these criteria, healthcare providers can ensure that they receive appropriate screening and monitoring for breast cancer. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications associated with breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman seeks your advice regarding her risk of passing on Duchenne muscular dystrophy to her future children. Her brother has the condition and genetic testing has confirmed that she is a carrier. She is aware that the disorder is inherited as an X linked recessive trait. Her partner, who is 31 years old, has no significant medical or family history of genetic disease. What guidance do you provide her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daughters of a female carrier have a 50% chance of being a carrier
Explanation:Understanding X Linked Recessive Inheritance
X linked recessive conditions are caused by a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome. This type of inheritance affects males more than females because men only have one gene copy. Females, on the other hand, are typically unaffected but carry the condition.
One of the key characteristics of X linked recessive inheritance is that there is no male-to-male disease transmission. This means that a father must pass his Y chromosome to all his sons, which makes it impossible for a father to pass on the condition to his son. However, daughters of an affected male must all be carriers because the father must pass his X chromosome to all daughters.
If a female is a carrier of an X linked recessive condition, her male offspring have a 50% chance of being affected. Female offspring of a female carrier also have a 50% chance of being carriers. Understanding X linked recessive inheritance is important for genetic counseling and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for treatment of her asthma. She is otherwise well and has no significant previous medical history. During the consultation, it transpires that her sister died of cystic fibrosis and she is worried about having a child affected with the same disease. Her chest X-ray is normal. Her partner has no family history of cystic fibrosis.
Assuming a population carrier frequency of 1 in 25, what is the chance of this patient having an affected child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:Understanding the Probability of Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition that affects many individuals worldwide. The probability of inheriting this condition can be calculated based on the carrier status of the parents. Here are some examples of how to calculate the chance of having an affected child with cystic fibrosis:
1. 1 in 150: If one parent has a 2 in 3 chance of being a carrier and the other has a 1 in 25 chance, the overall chance of having an affected child is 1 in 150.
2. 1 in 10: If one parent has an affected sibling but is not affected themselves (2 in 3 chance of being a carrier), and the other parent has an unknown carrier status, the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 10.
3. 1 in 50: If one parent has a 2 in 3 chance of being a carrier and the other has a 1 in 25 chance, the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 4. Therefore, the overall chance is 2 in 3 x 1 in 25 x 1 in 4, which equals 1 in 50.
4. 1 in 100: If both parents are carriers (2 in 3 chance for one and 1 in 25 chance for the other), the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 4. Therefore, the overall chance is 2 in 3 x 1 in 25 x 1 in 4, which equals 1 in 100.
5. 1 in 200: The chance of being a carrier is not always 1 in 2, as it depends on the individual’s family history. If one parent has an affected relative but is not affected themselves (2 in 3 chance of being a carrier), the chance of having an affected child with a partner who has a 1 in 25 chance of being a carrier is 1 in 200.
Understanding the probability of cystic fibrosis inheritance can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A couple in their 40s who have recently moved to the area and are attending for new patient checks. One of the couple has achondroplasia and they ask you what the chances are of passing this condition on to any future children.
Select the single correct statement.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a 50% risk of a child being affected
Explanation:Understanding Achondroplasia: Causes, Inheritance, and Prognosis
Achondroplasia is a common type of short-limb dwarfism that results from a mutation in a growth-factor receptor gene on chromosome 4. This genetic condition is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, meaning that affected individuals have a 50% chance of passing on the gene to their offspring. However, over 80% of cases arise from new mutations, which means that many affected children are born to non-affected parents.
Antenatal ultrasound can detect achondroplasia during pregnancy, allowing parents to make informed decisions about their child’s care. While the prognosis for affected children is generally good, they may experience complications such as hydrocephalus and spinal stenosis.
It’s important to note that unaffected children have the same risk of inheriting the gene as the general population. By understanding the causes, inheritance, and prognosis of achondroplasia, individuals and families can better navigate this genetic condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 31
Incorrect
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You have a male patient aged 45 who has recently had a myocardial infarction.
He attends for follow up and says he was told in hospital that he has familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH). He says several relatives in previous generations died young of heart problems. He has three children and wants to know what are the risks of their being affected.
FH is inherited as an autosomal dominant, so what is the risk of each of his children being affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Familial Hypercholesterolemia Inheritance
Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) is an inherited condition that affects the body’s ability to remove cholesterol from the blood. It is caused by a mutation in the LDL receptor gene, which is responsible for removing low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol from the bloodstream. Autosomal dominant inheritance means that if one parent has FH, there is a 50% chance that each child will inherit the gene and be affected.
Most people with FH inherit the gene from only one parent, making them heterozygous. This means that they have one normal copy of the LDL receptor gene and one mutated copy. However, in rare cases, individuals can inherit the gene from both parents, making them homozygous. In these cases, symptoms of FH can appear in childhood and can be more severe.
Overall, understanding the inheritance pattern of FH is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. It can help with early diagnosis and treatment, as well as genetic counseling for future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents to his GP with a gradual increase in difficulty walking quickly or climbing stairs, which has been developing over the past few years. He has never been interested in sports due to his inability to keep up with his peers, but has not experienced any issues with daily activities and had a normal childhood development. His male maternal cousin has been using a wheelchair since his late twenties and is currently taking ramipril and bisoprolol.
During the examination, the patient displays a normal gait, with slight wasting in his quadriceps muscles bilaterally.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient's likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Creatine kinase (CK)
Explanation:Investigations for Becker Muscular Dystrophy
Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is a genetic disorder that causes muscular weakness, particularly in the proximal muscles. Symptoms usually appear in childhood, but weakness may not become problematic until the late teens or early twenties. BMD follows an X-linked inheritance pattern and is characterised by a moderate to severe increase in creatine kinase (CK) levels. An X-ray of the hips is not the most appropriate initial investigation, as it would not account for the family history or wasting of the quadriceps. While an electrocardiogram (ECG) is important in confirmed BMD, it is not the most appropriate initial investigation. Genetic testing and muscle biopsy are frequently carried out to confirm a BMD diagnosis, but they are not the most appropriate initial investigations due to their invasive nature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is worried about passing on his genetic condition to his unborn son. Which genetic disorder is most likely to be inherited by a male child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Genetic Inheritance Patterns of Common Conditions
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia is an autosomal-dominant condition, meaning that there is a 50% chance of passing on the condition to both sons and daughters. A person with the condition has one mutant gene and one normal gene or two mutant genes on a pair of autosomal chromosomes.
Cystic Fibrosis is an autosomal-recessive condition, which means that a man with cystic fibrosis could have an affected son if his partner is a carrier. However, men with cystic fibrosis are almost always infertile due to congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens.
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an X-linked condition, which means that none of the sons of an affected man will be affected or be carriers, whereas all his daughters will be carriers and at risk of having affected sons. Affected people usually die in their twenties or thirties.
Haemophilia A is also an X-linked condition, where sons will be unaffected and daughters will be carriers.
Phenylketonuria is autosomal recessive, so the man could have an affected son if his wife is a carrier. However, it is much less common than familial hypercholesterolaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A new elderly patient in the practice has been diagnosed with presbycusis. The patient has no history of hearing loss and no family members with hearing impairments. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An autosomal-recessive-inherited disorder
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Congenital Sensorineural Hearing Loss
Congenital sensorineural hearing loss is a type of hearing loss that is present at birth. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including hereditary factors, infections during pregnancy, and complications during birth. In the United Kingdom, hereditary hearing loss accounts for 1-2 per 1000 babies, with around 80% of genetic hearing loss being non-syndromic and not associated with prenatal or perinatal factors.
There are several possible causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss, including autosomal-recessive-inherited disorders, syndromes, autosomal-dominant-inherited disorders, cytomegalovirus infection, and secretory otitis media.
It is important to understand the different causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition. In some cases, genetic testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the hearing loss. Additionally, early intervention and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for children with congenital sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about screening for haemochromatosis, as his brother was diagnosed with the condition 3 years ago. The patient is asymptomatic and appears to have no signs of haemochromatosis. What is the most suitable test to conduct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HFE gene analysis
Explanation:When screening for haemochromatosis, the general population should undergo a transferrin saturation test, which involves checking the level of iron in the blood compared to the amount of transferrin. However, if the patient has a family member with haemochromatosis, the most appropriate test would be a genetic analysis of the HFE gene. In practice, this would be done in conjunction with iron studies.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A couple in their early 30s comes to talk to you about trying for a baby. They are both concerned about the possibility of passing on genetic disorders to their child. The woman tells you that she was tested previously and found to be a carrier of the cystic fibrosis (CF) gene because her younger brother was diagnosed with CF a few years ago. Her partner has no family history of CF or any other genetic disorder. You agree that a referral to a genetic counsellor should be made and that her partner should be tested to check that he is not a carrier. What advice should you give them?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If the male partner is a carrier of the CF gene then the chance of a child being a carrier is 50%
Explanation:Understanding Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive (AR) condition that affects both males and females equally. In AR conditions, if both parents are carriers, each offspring has a 25% chance of being affected and a 50% chance of being a carrier. If only one parent is a carrier, the child cannot be affected but has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that AR conditions do not skip generations.
Understanding the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis is crucial for individuals who are carriers or have a family history of the condition. Genetic counseling and testing can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and managing the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells you that his wife is concerned about his family history of bowel cancer.
On questioning, Tom denies any history of abdominal discomfort, changes in bowel habit or rectal bleeding. He is generally fit and well, and rarely attends your surgery.
Which one of the following is the single most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take a full family history
Explanation:Understanding Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer
Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. If you or a family member have been diagnosed with HNPCC, it is important to take the necessary precautions to manage the risk.
If you are a reluctant clinic-attendee, it is important to take your concerns seriously. Reassurance should not be given prematurely without knowing the full family history, including the ages of cancer diagnoses. A full family history can help determine if there is evidence of a genetic susceptibility. The modified Amsterdam criteria are widely recognized for assessing this risk.
It is important to understand the clinical presentation of HNPCC and to take proactive measures to manage the risk. By working with healthcare professionals and staying informed, individuals with HNPCC can take steps to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of breathlessness and bradycardia. During the consultation, it is observed that he has bilateral ptosis. He has no contact with his family and has never met his father, but he is aware that his sister has a muscle condition and lost a child in infancy. The patient reports having difficulty releasing someone's hand after shaking it at work.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:Neuromuscular Disorders: Symptoms and Differences
Myotonic Dystrophy: An Overview
Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects the muscles and nervous system. It is characterized by myopathic facies, myotonia in the hands, and cardiac conduction defects. The congenital form of the disease can be fatal.Spinal Muscular Atrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Spinal muscular atrophy is a genetic disorder that causes progressive muscle weakness and atrophy. It primarily affects the spinal nerves and doesn’t typically present with ptosis.Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that presents in early childhood with progressive proximal muscular dystrophy. Ptosis is not a typical sign.Facioscapulohumeral Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is a genetic disorder that causes weakness in the orbicularis oculi muscles, leading to difficulty in keeping eyelids closed. Ptosis is not typically seen at presentation.Becker Muscular Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Becker muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that presents with progressive proximal dystrophy. It usually presents at a younger age than myotonic dystrophy, with patients becoming progressively weaker between the ages of 20 and 60 years. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A couple visit their general practitioner regarding their 38-year-old daughter who has Down's Syndrome. They are concerned that over the past year, their daughter’s social skills have diminished and she has become irritable and un-co-operative. They are especially worried that there may be an underlying medical condition causing these changes.
Which of the following conditions occurs most commonly in adult patients with Down's syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia
Explanation:Health Conditions Associated with Down Syndrome
Down Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 births. Individuals with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain health conditions. Here are some of the most common health conditions associated with Down Syndrome:
Alzheimer’s Dementia: Individuals with Down Syndrome have a significantly higher risk of developing Alzheimer’s Dementia. The onset of clinical features is typically around the age of 55, and dementia is thought to contribute to death in around a third of patients.
Ischaemic Heart Disease: The prevalence of Ischaemic Heart Disease is not increased in individuals with Down Syndrome, and for men, it has been reported to be lower than the general population.
Addison’s Disease: While relatively rare in comparison to Alzheimer’s Dementia, Addison’s Disease is still more prevalent in individuals with Down Syndrome than in the general population.
Carcinoma of the Thyroid: While fewer solid and other haematological malignancies are seen in individuals with Down Syndrome compared to the general population, the incidence of childhood leukaemia is increased.
Coeliac Disease: Coeliac Disease is another autoimmune disease that occurs more commonly in people with Down Syndrome, with a prevalence of around 5%. Some recommend screening for this condition.
In conclusion, individuals with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain health conditions, and it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risks and provide appropriate screening and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A couple in their early 30s come to see you to discuss family planning. They have one child who is 4-years-old and was diagnosed one year ago with cystic fibrosis.
Both the parents are healthy and were previously informed that any future pregnancies would also be at risk of being affected by cystic fibrosis. They have been considering the possibility of having another child but are uncertain about the likelihood of another child being affected.
What is the probability of them having another child with cystic fibrosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition that is inherited when both parents carry the gene. If both parents are carriers, there is a 50% chance that their future child will also be a carrier, a 25% chance of the child being affected by the condition, and a 25% chance of having a normal child who is neither a carrier nor affected.
In cases where both parents have had a previous affected child and are healthy adults, it is important to seek specialist referral for genetic counseling. This will provide accurate information and support to help make informed decisions about the chances of the child being affected or a carrier. Understanding the inheritance of cystic fibrosis is crucial in making informed decisions about family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) requesting a referral to a Fertility Clinic. She has had two first-trimester miscarriages and, six months ago, one second-trimester miscarriage. Karyotyping of the fetus showed no chromosomal abnormalities. Her body mass index (BMI), blood and urine tests in her last pregnancy showed no abnormalities. She has regular periods, no known medical problems, and takes only folic acid and vitamin D regularly. Her mother had two miscarriages, before having a successful pregnancy with no complications, and is now well. Her maternal aunt had two unprovoked deep-vein thrombosis (DVTs) in her thirties.
What is the most likely cause of her recurrent miscarriages?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation
Explanation:Causes of Recurrent Miscarriage: Understanding the Factors Involved
Recurrent miscarriage, defined as the loss of three or more consecutive pregnancies, affects 1% of couples trying to conceive. While up to 50% of cases remain unexplained after investigation, there are several factors that can contribute to this condition.
One of the most common causes of recurrent miscarriage is the Factor V Leiden mutation, which is the most common inherited thrombophilia. This mutation increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) and recurrent miscarriage, particularly in the second trimester. Carriers of this mutation have double the risk of miscarriage compared to those without it. Therefore, all women with second-trimester miscarriages should be screened for inherited thrombophilias, including Factor V Leiden mutation.
Chromosomal abnormality is another potential cause of recurrent miscarriage, affecting 2-5% of couples. This is more common in women over the age of 35 and men over the age of 40. Karyotyping of products of conception should be undertaken from the third (and any subsequent) miscarriages.
Uncontrolled diabetes is also a risk factor for recurrent miscarriage. However, in cases where there is no indication of diabetes, this cause is less likely.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a syndrome that can cause infertility and miscarriage, affecting up to 50% of pregnancies in people with PCOS. However, this is more common in young females with obesity, acne, hirsutism, male-pattern balding, oligomenorrhoea or subfertility.
In conclusion, understanding the potential causes of recurrent miscarriage is crucial in identifying the underlying factors and providing appropriate treatment. While some cases may remain unexplained, screening for inherited thrombophilias and chromosomal abnormalities, as well as considering factors such as diabetes and PCOS, can help in determining the best course of action for couples trying to conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to see you because she is concerned about her family history of breast cancer. She has no symptoms at present.
Which of the following family histories should be referred for additional genetic evaluation to determine their risk of developing breast cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A sister who has been diagnosed with breast cancer at 39
Explanation:Factors to Consider for Referral for Genetic Assessment for Breast Cancer
When deciding whether to refer a patient for genetic assessment for breast cancer, several factors need to be considered. These include the age of the patient, their sex, their relationship to the patient, and whether the relative’s breast cancer was bilateral. Additionally, any history of ovarian cancer in first degree relatives should be noted.
For sex, any patient with a first degree male relative with breast cancer at any age should be referred. Age is also an important factor, with a referral recommended for first degree female relatives diagnosed with breast cancer under 40. If their breast cancer was bilateral, referral may be considered if the first primary relative was diagnosed under the age of 50.
When it comes to the number of cases in relatives, focus on first and second degree relatives. If two first degrees or a first and second degree relative are diagnosed at any age, referral is recommended. Finally, a family history of ovarian cancer should also be taken into account. If a first or second degree relative has been diagnosed with breast cancer and another first degree relative has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer at any age, referral for genetic counselling is warranted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A brief 14-year-old girl visits you with her mother, expressing worries about her Turner's syndrome and any other potential health issues.
Which of the following characteristics are commonly linked to Turner's syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary amenorrhoea
Explanation:Turner Syndrome: Characteristics and Associated Conditions
Turner Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females, caused by the absence of all or part of one of the X chromosomes. Some of the common characteristics of Turner Syndrome include short stature, webbed neck, and a low hairline at the back of the neck. Learning difficulties are not a feature, but delayed bone age and primary amenorrhoea due to gonadal dysgenesis are common. Bicuspid aortic valve and coarctation are associated conditions, rather than cyanotic heart disease. However, clinodactyly is not a feature of Turner Syndrome. It is important to diagnose and manage Turner Syndrome early to prevent complications and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has had mild gynaecomastia since puberty, but he has noticed that it has seemed noticeably larger on the left side in the past four weeks. He has a history of Klinefelter syndrome, hypertension, and eczema.
On examination you note breast tissue behind the nipples on both sides. You cannot feel a discrete separate lump on the left side, but the amount of breast tissue does seem to be greater.
What should your next step be?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to the breast clinic urgently
Explanation:Breast Cancer in Males with Klinefelter Syndrome
Breast cancer in males is rare, but those with Klinefelter syndrome have a significantly higher risk, up to 50 times greater than the rest of the male population. Other risk factors include hyperoestrogenism, high alcohol consumption, and genetic factors such as BRCA2 mutations and Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry.
Men with Klinefelter syndrome are also more likely to develop gynaecomastia, which is usually bilateral and often present during puberty. However, any unilateral gynaecomastia or unilateral change in existing gynaecomastia should be examined for other causes, such as breast cancer.
Checking hormone levels, as well as thyroid, liver, and renal function, is important in new onset gynaecomastia. Referral to a genetics clinic may not be necessary, but input from a geneticist may be useful if the patient is considering having children, as Klinefelter syndrome is associated with an increased risk of autosomal and sex chromosome abnormalities. However, one of the complications of Klinefelter syndrome is severe subfertility, so referral to a fertility clinic may be necessary.
Reassurance in this case would be inappropriate, as it ignores the higher risk of breast cancer in men with Klinefelter syndrome. Therefore, any changes in breast tissue in this group should be dealt with cautiously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man and 29-year-old woman in a relationship are both known to have sickle cell trait. They inquire about the likelihood of sickle cell disease in any offspring they may have.
What is the most probable risk of sickle cell disease in their children?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 4
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance of Sickle Cell Disease
Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects the shape of red blood cells, causing them to become rigid and sickle-shaped. The inheritance of this disease is complex and involves the interaction of two genes, one from each parent. Here is a breakdown of the probabilities of inheritance:
1 in 4 chance of having sickle cell disease: If both parents have sickle cell trait, there is a 1 in 4 chance of their child inheriting two copies of the abnormal gene and developing sickle cell disease.
1 in 2 chance of having sickle cell trait: If one parent has sickle cell trait and the other has normal hemoglobin, there is a 1 in 2 chance of their child inheriting one copy of the abnormal gene and becoming a carrier of sickle cell trait.
3 in 4 chance of inheriting the gene: Regardless of whether the child develops the disease or not, there is a 3 in 4 chance of inheriting at least one copy of the abnormal gene.
No risk for 1 in 4 children: There is a 1 in 4 chance of a child inheriting two copies of the normal hemoglobin gene and having neither the disease nor the trait.
No sex-linked inheritance: Sickle cell disease is not inherited in a sex-linked pattern, meaning both males and females are equally likely to be affected.
Understanding the probabilities of inheritance can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy with chronic cough and failure to thrive has been referred for a sweat test by the paediatricians. His parents come to see you to discuss what is involved in this test and how accurate it is.
Select the single statement that is true regarding this procedure.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: False positives are seen in patients with hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Diagnosis and Testing Methods
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene, which is responsible for regulating sweat, digestive juices, and mucous in the body. CFTR controls the movement of chloride and sodium ions across epithelial membranes, such as those found in the lungs. While most people have two working copies of the CFTR gene, only one is needed to prevent CF due to its recessive nature.
Diagnosing CF involves identifying mutations in the CFTR gene, but this method has not replaced sweat testing as the primary diagnostic tool. Sweat testing involves injecting pilocarpine and collecting sweat to analyze sodium and chloride levels. This test is 98% sensitive, but it may be unreliable in patients under three weeks of age or those with hormonal issues like hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, or adrenal insufficiency.
The Guthrie test is a screening test that can detect immunoreactive trypsinogen, which may be associated with CF, but it is not diagnostic. Further testing is required to confirm a diagnosis.
In summary, understanding the diagnosis and testing methods for CF is crucial in identifying and managing this genetic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman who has not accessed maternity care during pregnancy presents to the Labour Ward in labour. A small-for-gestational-age baby is born with rigidly flexed limbs, low-set ears, a receding chin and rocker-bottom feet.
What is the most probable structural organ defect to be present, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Explanation:The baby in question displays typical characteristics of Edwards syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, including low birth weight, low-set ears, a receding chin, flexed limbs, and feet with a rocker-bottom appearance. Other common features include small facial features, gastrointestinal abnormalities, urogenital abnormalities, and neurological problems. Cardiac abnormalities, such as PDA, septal defects, and polyvalvular disease, are present in up to 90% of cases. The mother’s age is relevant, as the incidence of chromosomal disorders increases with maternal age. Antenatal screening can detect Edwards syndrome, but in this case, the lack of prenatal care means that diagnosis was missed. Pyloric stenosis, congenital cataracts, oesophageal atresia, and polycystic kidneys are all possible but less likely to be present in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of feeling constantly fatigued. She denies any symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision, abdominal pain, or vomiting, and has no known medical conditions. Her mother and maternal aunt were both diagnosed with diabetes around her age and manage it with tablets. On examination, her BMI is 23 kg/m2, and urinalysis is unremarkable. Blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 50 mmol/mol (normal range: 20-42 mmol/mol). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)
Explanation:Diagnosing Hyperglycaemia: Understanding the Different Types of Diabetes
Hyperglycaemia, or high blood sugar, can be caused by various types of diabetes. One uncommon form is maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), which typically occurs before the age of 25 and is characterised by a slow onset of symptoms, absence of obesity and ketosis, and autosomal-dominant inheritance with multiple possible genetic mutations responsible.
To rule out other types of diabetes, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Gestational diabetes, which occurs during pregnancy, is unlikely in this case as the patient is not known to be pregnant and typically affects those with a BMI of 30 or more. Steroid-induced diabetes, which can occur with prolonged steroid use for medical conditions such as Addison’s disease or asthma, is also unlikely as the patient has no pre-existing medical conditions for which she would be prescribed steroids.
Type I diabetes mellitus (TIDM) commonly occurs in young, slim individuals with a family history of TIDM or other autoimmune conditions and is treated with insulin. However, in this case, the patient has very few symptoms of diabetes, a normal urinalysis, and a family history of diabetes treated with tablets rather than insulin. Type II diabetes mellitus (TIIDM), which commonly occurs in older individuals who are overweight but is increasingly more common in younger individuals due to childhood obesity, is also less likely as the patient is young, has a normal BMI, and has a family history of diabetes treated with tablets at a young age.
In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, the most likely diagnosis is MODY. Understanding the different types of diabetes and their characteristic features can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of hyperglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has Huntington's disease.
He asks you how this is inherited.
Which one of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Understanding Huntington’s Disease
Autosomal dominant inheritance is a genetic pattern in which an affected individual has one copy of a mutant gene and one normal gene on a pair of autosomal chromosomes. This means that individuals with autosomal dominant diseases, such as Huntington’s disease, have a 50:50 chance of passing the mutant gene and the disorder on to each of their children.
Unlike autosomal recessive diseases, which require an individual to have two copies of the mutant gene, autosomal dominant diseases only require one copy for the disorder to manifest. Other examples of autosomal dominant diseases include neurofibromatosis and polycystic kidney disease. Understanding the inheritance pattern of these diseases can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents with a blood pressure of 180/130 mmHg. On examination, she has café au lait patches and some axillary freckling. She required surgery for scoliosis as a child.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
Explanation:Genetic Conditions and Their Diagnostic Features
Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is an autosomal-dominant condition characterized by numerous café au lait spots and skin tumors. Hypertension can also be caused by this condition, along with other complications such as optic glioma, vertebral dysplasia, and intracranial tumors. Marfan syndrome, on the other hand, is not associated with café au lait macules or hypertension, but scoliosis is a common feature. Cushing’s disease can cause increased skin pigmentation but not café au lait macules, and it is a cause of secondary hypertension. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can also cause hypertension and is associated with dark skin spots in LEOPARD syndrome. Tuberous sclerosis is characterized by oval or leaf-shaped white macules, facial angiofibromas, and shagreen patches, along with other features such as epilepsy and learning disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to see you to discuss his father’s recent diagnosis of Huntington’s disease. He is particularly concerned about the possibility that he could develop the disease himself, and that he could pass it on to his children.
Select the single correct statement concerning Huntington's disease.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The condition is an autosomal dominant trait, giving a 50% risk of passing the disease on to children
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease: A Progressive Neurodegenerative Disorder
Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a gene on chromosome 4. It can present at any age from 20 years to old age and is associated with cell loss in the basal ganglia and cortex. The disease is characterized by a distinct phenotype, including chorea and dystonia, incoordination, cognitive decline, and behavioral problems, ultimately leading to death.
There is often a prodromal phase of mild psychotic and behavioral symptoms that can last up to 10 years before the development of chorea. Unfortunately, drug therapy has no effect on the progression of disability, and while hyperkinesia and psychiatric symptoms may respond to pharmacotherapy, neuropsychological deficits and dementia remain untreatable.
Management of Huntington’s disease is supportive, and a predictive diagnosis is possible in offspring of affected individuals if they wish it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman’s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She wants to know how likely it is that she will inherit the condition.
What is the correct mode of inheritance for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal-dominant
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of this disease in order to assess the risk of developing it.
Huntington’s disease is an autosomal-dominant trait, which means that a person only needs one copy of the affected gene to develop the disorder. This also means that if a parent has the disease, their child has a 50% chance of inheriting it.
It is important to note that Huntington’s disease does run in families and is caused by a defect in a single gene (huntingtin) on chromosome 4. However, it doesn’t follow an X-linked dominant pattern of inheritance, as both men and women are equally affected.
In summary, understanding the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and potential risk for developing the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 53
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 20-year-old man with cystic fibrosis.
What is the appropriate mode of inheritance for this disorder? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. To understand the likelihood of inheriting cystic fibrosis, it is important to know its mode of inheritance. Cystic fibrosis follows an autosomal-recessive pattern, which means that a person needs to inherit two affected genes to display the traits. If a person has one affected and one unaffected gene, they are a carrier and do not show the cystic fibrosis phenotype. It is not an X-linked dominant or recessive condition, and it is not caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Knowing the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis can help individuals and families make informed decisions about genetic testing and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is worried about the risk of her future children inheriting Edwards syndrome after learning that her cousin's baby has been diagnosed prenatally with the condition. She asks you about the inheritance pattern of Edwards syndrome. What is your response?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chromosomal abnormality
Explanation:Understanding Genetic Disorders and Congenital Abnormalities
Genetic disorders and congenital abnormalities can result from various factors, including chromosomal abnormalities, single gene defects, and environmental factors. Chromosomal abnormalities occur when there are mutations that change the structure or number of chromosomes, such as in Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18). Single gene defects are usually inherited and can be autosomal-recessive (e.g. cystic fibrosis), autosomal-dominant (e.g. Huntington disease), or sex-linked (e.g. Duchenne muscular dystrophy). Environmental factors, such as excessive alcohol consumption or a deficiency of folic acid, can also cause congenital abnormalities. Understanding the different types of genetic disorders and congenital abnormalities can help in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 55
Incorrect
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You have a White patient with cystic fibrosis. His 25-year-old brother, who doesn't have cystic fibrosis, comes to ask you about the chances of his future children having cystic fibrosis. They have the same parents.
What is the best advice you can provide them concerning genetic inheritance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her White partner has a 1 in 25 chance of being a cystic fibrosis carrier
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It is more common in people of White ethnicity, with a carrier frequency of 1 in 25. The most common mutation is DeltaF508, which can be screened for genetically. A clinical diagnosis of cystic fibrosis can only be made in someone who is homozygous. If one parent is a carrier, there is a 1 in 4 chance that their child will have the disease, a 2 in 4 chance of being a carrier, and a 1 in 4 chance of not being a carrier. Without further testing, it cannot be determined if someone is a carrier or not, but in this case, the woman has a 2 in 3 chance of being a carrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with hypothyroidism. On further questioning, it transpires she has primary amenorrhoea. She is also of relatively short stature compared with her sisters.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders: A Comparison of Turner Syndrome, Down’s Syndrome, Achondroplasia, Noonan Syndrome, and XXX Syndrome
Turner Syndrome (XO) is a genetic disorder that is characterized by short stature, primary amenorrhea, and an increased prevalence of immune disorders such as thyroiditis, coeliac disease, and inflammatory bowel disease. Other features include cardiac defects, congenital lymphedema, and dysmorphic features such as neck webbing, widely spaced nipples, and cubitus valgus. Intelligence is usually normal.
Down’s Syndrome, on the other hand, is diagnosed in infancy and has its own characteristic dysmorphic features. It can be associated with short stature and hypothyroidism, but primary amenorrhea is not typically a feature. Intelligence is low.
Achondroplasia is inherited as autosomal dominant and is characterized by short stature with short limbs. However, it doesn’t affect intelligence and the incidence of hypothyroidism and menstrual problems is not increased.
Noonan Syndrome is also inherited as autosomal dominant but with variable penetrance. It may affect either sex and is characterized by short stature, neck webbing, cubitus valgus, and autoimmune thyroiditis. However, it is not associated with menstrual abnormalities. Mild learning disability usually occurs, and the diagnosis is usually made earlier in life.
Finally, XXX Syndrome is due to non-disjunction and is characterized by variable clinical features with no distinguishing phenotype. Women with triple X syndrome tend to be tall and have normal sexual development, but intelligence may or may not be normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin is planning to conceive and is concerned about being a carrier for sickle cell disease. What is the most suitable test to determine her status? Select ONE choice only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Testing for Sickle Cell Trait and Disease during Pregnancy
Sickle cell trait is a genetic condition where a person has one abnormal allele of the haemoglobin-beta gene but doesn’t show symptoms of sickle cell disease. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is used to differentiate individuals who are homozygous for HbS from those who are heterozygous. Chorionic villus sampling is used during pregnancy to determine if a fetus is affected by sickle cell disease. Chromosome karyotyping is used to test for chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome. Routine full blood count typically gives no indication of carrier status. In high-risk areas, pregnant women are screened routinely using haemoglobin electrophoresis for the sickle cell trait. If they test positive, their partner will also be offered the test. In parts of the United Kingdom where sickle cell anaemia is uncommon, a screening questionnaire that focuses on family origin is used as an initial screening device to assess the risk of sickle cell disorders in pregnant women.
Testing for Sickle Cell Trait and Disease during Pregnancy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 58
Incorrect
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You are asked to carry out a DNA paternity test on a patient whose absent father is refusing to pay maintenance. The father has arranged his own test, even though the patient is a minor.
Which of the following is TRUE regards this process?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buccal swabs should be taken from both the mother and child
Explanation:Understanding Paternity Testing: What You Need to Know
Paternity testing is a process that can determine whether a man is the biological father of a child. This is done by analyzing DNA samples from the man, the child, and ideally, the mother. Buccal swabs are the preferred method for collecting DNA samples, and testing is not available on the NHS. The consent of both parents is required for testing, and some companies offer motherless testing, which is less accurate. Blood grouping can sometimes exclude paternity, but it cannot be used to confirm it. It is important to understand the basics of paternity testing before pursuing it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of progressive limb weakness that has been developing over the past two years. During the examination, it is observed that he walks with a normal gait, but there is wasting of the quadricep muscles bilaterally. Although his parents are healthy, his maternal uncle required a wheelchair from his twenties. What is the most probable complication linked with this disorder? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Understanding the Complications of Becker Muscular Dystrophy
Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is a genetic disorder that causes progressive muscle wasting and weakness. It typically presents with proximal muscle weakness and wasting, which can lead to the loss of independent walking between the ages of 20 and 60. BMD is inherited in an X-linked pattern, and a family history of the disease can help with diagnosis.
One of the most common complications of BMD is dilated cardiomyopathy, which occurs in 60-75% of those affected. This condition can be asymptomatic or cause dyspnea and fatigue, and it is the most common cause of death in BMD patients. Regular cardiac monitoring with an ECG and ECHO is recommended from diagnosis or ten years of age.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is another genetic cardiovascular disease that can be inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. While most people with this condition are asymptomatic, some may present with dyspnea, chest pain, palpitations, or syncope.
Malignant hyperthermia is a rare but serious complication that can occur in BMD patients during general anesthesia. There is a link between the high creatine kinase levels present in muscular dystrophies and the progression to malignant hyperthermia following the stress of anesthesia.
Thyrotoxicosis is not associated with BMD, but it can cause myopathy and weakness. However, it would not normally cause wasting of the quadriceps, and it would not account for a family history of a wheelchair-bound uncle.
Urinary incontinence is also not associated with BMD. It is more commonly associated with multiple sclerosis, which can present with weakness. However, a diagnosis of MS would require evidence of another lesion disseminated in both time and space, making it less likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has a serum cholesterol of 6.5 mmol/l on routine testing. His low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 3.8 mmol/l. His triglyceride level is within the normal range.
What is the most likely mode of inheritance of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polygenic inheritance
Explanation:Types of Inheritance in Hypercholesterolaemia
Hypercholesterolaemia, or high cholesterol, can be inherited through different types of genetic inheritance. Polygenic inheritance is the most common cause of elevated serum cholesterol concentrations, involving several genes and worsened by environmental factors. Autosomal dominant familial hypercholesterolaemia is the most common type, with high LDL levels and an increased risk for coronary heart disease. Autosomal recessive familial hypercholesterolaemia is rare and has a similar phenotype to homozygous autosomal-dominant disease. Environmental factors such as diet, obesity, and a sedentary lifestyle can also contribute to high cholesterol levels. However, hypercholesterolaemia is not inherited in an X-linked manner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner, worried about his lack of normal development. He has not observed any growth of pubic or axillary hair or testicular growth.
During the examination, the boy is found to have a short stature, a broad chest, a short, webbed neck, and no palpable testes.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Noonan syndrome
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this case is Noonan syndrome, a genetic disorder inherited in an autosomal-dominant manner and occurring in 1 in 1000 to 1 in 2500 children. It is characterized by multiple congenital abnormalities, including short stature, a high forehead, a webbed neck, a broad chest, and cryptorchidism. Bardet-Biedl syndrome (BBS) is an autosomal-recessive multisystemic genetic disorder that is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality that causes delayed puberty and infertility, but it is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a genetic disorder characterized by developmental delay, obesity, hyperphagia, and cryptorchidism or hypogonadism, but it is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects phenotypic females and is characterized by short stature, a broad chest, widely spaced, hypoplastic or inverted nipples, a short, webbed neck, and short fourth and fifth metacarpals. While the physical attributes of Turner and Noonan syndrome are similar, Turner syndrome doesn’t fit with this case as the patient is phenotypically male.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes in for a health check as he is concerned about his risk of heart disease. What characteristic would most indicate a possible diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: His total cholesterol concentration is 7.9 mmol/l
Explanation:Understanding Familial Hypercholesterolemia and Family History
Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol in the blood, leading to an increased risk of premature coronary heart disease. Here are some key points to consider when assessing a patient’s risk for FH based on their family history:
– Raised total cholesterol concentration: A total cholesterol concentration of over 7.5 mmol/l in an adult should raise suspicion of FH, especially if there is a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease in a first-degree relative. Physical signs such as tendon xanthomas may also be present.
– First-degree relatives with premature coronary heart disease: If a patient’s parent, sibling, or child has had coronary heart disease before the age of 60, this should also raise suspicion of FH.
– Triglyceride concentration: While normal fasting triglyceride levels should be below 1.7 mmol/l, levels may be relatively normal in FH.
– Screening of other first-degree relatives: If a patient’s uncle or other non-first-degree relative has had coronary heart disease, it may not be cause for concern on its own. However, the patient’s own first-degree relatives should be screened for FH.
– Vague family history: A vague history of heart trouble in cousins is not specific enough to assess the risk of FH.It is important to identify patients with FH early on so that they can receive appropriate treatment and management to reduce their risk of coronary heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A five-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner Surgery by her mother who is 32-years-old for a routine check. She was born at 37 weeks’ gestation and weighed 1.7 kg.
On examination, the child’s head circumference is on the 3rd centile, there is a cleft palate, low-set ears and rocker-bottom feet.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the likelihood of the mother having another child with the same condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1%
Explanation:Understanding the Probability of Inheriting Genetic Conditions
Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a genetic condition that is usually inherited randomly and has a prevalence of around 1 in 6000 births in the UK. The condition is characterized by various physical abnormalities, including microcephaly, micrognathia, cleft palate, low-set, deformed ears, and rocker-bottom feet. The risk of trisomy 18 increases with maternal age, with the biggest increase after age 35.
If a couple has had one affected pregnancy, they are slightly more likely to have another affected pregnancy than the general population. In such cases, screening for a balanced translocation is recommended, which would further increase the risk.
The probability of inheriting a genetic condition depends on the type of inheritance pattern. For autosomal-recessive conditions, such as cystic fibrosis, if both parents are affected, there is a 25% chance of having an affected child. For autosomal-dominant conditions, such as Huntington’s disease, there is a 50% chance of inheriting the faulty gene, which will always be expressed if present.
However, in pre-implantation screening of embryos, genetic certainty of a condition being either present or absent can be achieved, resulting in a probability of 100%. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern and seek genetic counseling to assess the risk of passing on genetic conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man and his wife come in with concerns about infertility. The man is tall and has bilateral gynaecomastia. Upon examination of the testes, bilateral small firm testes are found. Klinefelter syndrome is suspected.
What is the most suitable test for diagnosing the underlying condition in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Klinefelter Syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects males and is characterized by an extra X chromosome, resulting in a genotype of XXY. Diagnosis is often made in late puberty or early adulthood due to delayed sexual development or infertility. Here are some diagnostic tests used to identify Klinefelter syndrome:
Genetic Test: The only specific test for Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic test for the XXY genotype.
Serum Gonadotrophins: Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) levels will be elevated, particularly FSH, due to low testosterone. However, this test is not specific.
CT Scan of the Pituitary Gland: A CT scan of the pituitary gland is usually performed if a pituitary tumor is suspected. In Klinefelter syndrome, the scans will be normal. An MRI scan is more commonly used.
Serum Testosterone: Serum testosterone level will be low or low-normal in a person with Klinefelter syndrome at this age. However, this test is not specific for the condition.
Semen Analysis: Oligozoospermia or azoospermia are the usual findings in men with Klinefelter syndrome. However, some with XY/XXY mosaics may father children. This test is supportive of the diagnosis but not specific enough.
In conclusion, a combination of these tests can help diagnose Klinefelter syndrome, but genetic testing is the most specific and reliable method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes in for haemochromatosis screening. He has no symptoms, but his 65-year-old father was recently diagnosed with the condition.
Which screening test would be most appropriate to offer this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HFE genetic testing
Explanation:To screen for haemochromatosis in the general population, a transferrin saturation test is recommended if ferritin levels are elevated. However, for family members of those with haemochromatosis, genetic testing for the HFE gene is the preferred screening method. In this patient’s case, genetic screening is necessary to determine the likelihood and severity of developing haemochromatosis. While ferritin levels should also be checked, they may not be elevated at this stage. Serum iron levels are not a reliable indicator of iron disorders and cannot be used to diagnose or rule out any disease on their own. A liver biopsy is a definitive diagnostic test, but a less invasive screening test is needed first to determine if it is necessary.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 66
Incorrect
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It has been suggested that cystic fibrosis (CF) (autosomal recessive) has a high prevalence in some populations because heterozygotes are resistant to the effects of chloride-secreting diarrhoea.
This is best described as an example of which of the following?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Natural selection
Explanation:Key Concepts in Genetics
Natural selection is a process where organisms with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on those traits to future generations. In the case of cystic fibrosis, it appears that being heterozygous for the gene may offer protection against certain illnesses.
Gene flow, or genetic migration, occurs when alleles or genes are transferred from one population to another. This often happens when populations migrate and interbreed, leading to a mixing of genetic traits.
Genetic drift refers to the random fluctuations in gene frequencies that occur over time in a population. This can happen due to chance events, such as a small group of individuals breaking off from a larger population and starting a new colony.
Linkage disequilibrium is the non-random occurrence of certain combinations of alleles in a population. This can happen when certain genes are physically close together on a chromosome and are therefore more likely to be inherited together.
Mutation is a change in the genetic sequence of an organism. These changes can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral, and can occur spontaneously or as a result of environmental factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man was referred for investigation of iron deficiency anaemia.
His mother died aged 28 years from colonic carcinoma complicating Peutz-Jegher syndrome.
Which is the most likely mode of inheritance of Peutz-Jegher syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Increased Cancer Risk
Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterized by the presence of perioral pigmentation and numerous hamartomas in the bowel. While it was previously believed that these hamartomas did not increase the risk of cancer, recent studies have shown that individuals with Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome are at an increased risk for developing various types of cancer, including gastrointestinal, breast, and ovarian cancer. Therefore, it is important for individuals with this syndrome to undergo regular cancer screenings and surveillance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 68
Incorrect
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What is commonly linked to delayed puberty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital absence of the uterus
Explanation:Causes of Delayed Puberty
Delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors, including normal variation and systemic diseases such as malnutrition, cystic fibrosis, renal failure, heart disease, and malabsorption. Pituitary dwarfism, thyroid deficiency, Turner’s syndrome, primary testicular failure, and androgen receptor defects can also contribute to delayed puberty. Additionally, anorexia nervosa, emotional deprivation, and excessive exercise can delay the onset of puberty. It is important to note that young people with Down’s syndrome typically reach puberty at the same age as their peers, while Triple X syndrome doesn’t cause delayed puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents at six months’ gestation. She was adopted but reports that her biological family is known to have ‘health problems’ and has heard the term ‘polygenic inheritance’ mentioned. She is concerned about passing any conditions on to her child and asks for more information about inheritance patterns.
Which of the following conditions demonstrates a polygenic mode of inheritance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder
Explanation:Inheritance Patterns of Various Disorders
Many disorders have a familial tendency that cannot be explained by Mendelian inheritance patterns. Polygenic inheritance, also known as quantitative inheritance, is when a single phenotype is controlled by multiple genes. This type of inheritance can result in a range of phenotypes depending on the number of genes involved and their interactions. Examples of disorders with polygenic inheritance include congenital malformations and acquired diseases such as asthma, hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and bipolar disorder.
Cystic fibrosis is inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern, meaning that two copies of the abnormal gene are necessary for the condition to appear. Fragile X syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by a dominant X-linked gene, but it’s penetrance is only 50% in females. Friedreich’s ataxia is inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern and is characterized by progressive ataxia, dysarthria, decreased proprioception/vibration sense, muscle weakness, and late-onset cardiomyopathy. The average life expectancy for individuals with Friedreich’s ataxia is 40-50 years. Finally, Huntington’s disease is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern, meaning that only one copy of the gene is necessary to produce the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 70
Incorrect
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In which scenario would the heritability score be expected to be the least?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Heritability Scores of Different Disorders
Mumps, a contagious viral infection, has the lowest heritability score among the disorders mentioned. This means that the risk of developing mumps is primarily due to exposure to the infective agent rather than genetic factors. On the other hand, the other disorders listed have a genetic component in their development. For instance, cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in a specific gene and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Understanding the heritability scores of different disorders can help in identifying the underlying causes and developing appropriate treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic and wants to discuss the possibility of her child having genetic abnormalities. Her father has sickle cell anemia, which is inherited as an autosomal recessive disease. She and her partner have no symptoms of the disease. She knows from her last ultrasound that she is having a girl.
What is the likelihood that her daughter will have sickle cell anemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 2
Explanation:Probability of Inheriting X-Linked Recessive Conditions
When a parent carries a recessive gene for an X-linked condition, their child’s chances of inheriting the condition depend on their gender. If the child is a boy, he will inherit an X chromosome from his mother and a Y chromosome from his father. If the mother is a carrier of the recessive gene, there is a 50% chance that she will pass it on to her son, resulting in a 1 in 2 chance of the son inheriting the X-linked condition.
If both parents are carriers of an autosomal recessive condition, their child has a 1 in 4 chance of inheriting the condition. However, if the condition is X-linked, the chances of inheritance differ based on the child’s gender.
For a girl, there is a 50% chance that she will inherit the recessive gene from her carrier mother, making her a carrier as well. But for a boy, the chances of inheriting the X-linked condition are higher. If the mother is a carrier, the son has a 1 in 2 chance of inheriting the recessive gene and developing the condition. Therefore, the probability of a boy inheriting an X-linked recessive condition from a carrier mother is 1 in 2 or 1 in 16 if both parents are carriers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 72
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a fundamental aspect of clinical governance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Health promotion
Explanation:Although health promotion is crucial, it falls outside the scope of clinical governance.
Understanding Clinical Governance
Clinical governance is a system that holds NHS organizations accountable for improving the quality of their services and ensuring high standards of care. It creates an environment that fosters clinical excellence and continuous improvement. This system is made up of several components, including education and training, clinical audit, clinical effectiveness, research and development, risk management, and openness. Each of these elements plays a crucial role in ensuring that healthcare providers deliver the best possible care to patients. By implementing clinical governance, NHS organizations can identify areas for improvement, measure their progress, and make changes that benefit patients and staff alike. With a focus on quality and safety, clinical governance is an essential part of modern healthcare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A woman presents to surgery. Her 50-year-old mother has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer. She is concerned about her own risk and wonders if she needs 'genetic tests'. There is no other history of breast cancer in the family. When should she be referred to secondary care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jewish ancestry
Explanation:Familial breast cancer is linked to ovarian cancer, not endometrial cancer.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to see you as her parents think she is very short for her age and is the smallest in her class at school. She is talkative and is of normal intelligence and intellectual development.
Physical examination reveals a lack of pubertal development and on further questioning she has not started to menstruate. You note the presence of cubitus valgus and neck webbing.
What investigation will confirm the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Karyotype
Explanation:Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females, with an incidence of approximately 1 in 2500 live births. It is characterized by a missing or incomplete X chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 45 XO. The clinical features of Turner’s syndrome can vary, but common signs include short stature, delayed pubertal development, and primary amenorrhea.
Other physical features that may be present include abnormal nails, neonatal lymphedema, webbing of the neck, widely spaced nipples with a shield chest, and a wide carrying angle. These features can be subtle or absent, making it important to request a karyotype in females with short stature and delayed puberty.
Early identification of Turner’s syndrome is crucial, as it allows for early treatment with growth hormone to enhance final height. Additionally, those affected are at increased risk of cardiac and renal abnormalities, particularly coarctation of the aorta. By understanding the clinical features and importance of early diagnosis, healthcare providers can provide appropriate care and support for individuals with Turner’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, her height is 145 cm and weight 45 kg.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Distinguishing Turner Syndrome from Other Conditions: A Guide
Turner Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when a girl has a missing or incomplete X chromosome. Symptoms include short stature and primary amenorrhea, although mosaic forms may not have all the features. Other potential health risks include congenital heart defects, autoimmune/thyroid disease, hearing loss, and obesity. Intelligence is typically normal.
It’s important to distinguish Turner Syndrome from other conditions with similar symptoms. Cystic fibrosis may present with chest infections and slowed growth, but not primary amenorrhea. Anorexia nervosa typically involves secondary amenorrhea and a BMI below 17.5 kg/m2. Crohn’s disease may cause abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding, but not primary amenorrhea. Polycystic ovarian syndrome involves oligomenorrhea and overweight status, but not short stature. By understanding the unique characteristics of each condition, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 76
Incorrect
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What is considered a second degree relative according to the latest guidance on referral for genetic counselling for inherited conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Half sibling
Explanation:Understanding the Degree of Relationship in Medicine
In medicine, it is crucial to comprehend the degree of relationship to interpret referral guidelines for various conditions. With the advancement of genetic predisposition knowledge and the emergence of robust referral guidelines, this area of medicine is becoming increasingly important. The NHS National Genetics and Genomics Education Centre defines a person’s first degree relative as a parent, sibling, or child, sharing about half of their genes with the person. A second degree relative includes an uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, grandparent, grandchild, or half-sibling, sharing about one quarter of their genes with the person. Lastly, a third degree relative is a first cousin, great-grandparent, or great-grandchild, sharing about one eighth of their genes with the person. Understanding the degree of relationship is essential in determining the likelihood of genetic predisposition and the appropriate referral guidelines for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has two sons, the youngest of whom has Down syndrome. During a consultation for a different issue, she brings up that her eldest son is considering having children and she is concerned about the possibility of passing on Down syndrome. What is the most frequent genotypic abnormality observed in Down syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extra chromosome
Explanation:Understanding the Genetic Basis of Down Syndrome
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 births. The majority of cases (over 90%) are caused by trisomy 21, which occurs when there is an extra copy of chromosome 21. This is due to a mistake in cell division during the formation of the egg or sperm cell that leads to the zygote having three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two.
Contrary to popular belief, Down syndrome is not caused by an abnormal gene. Rather, it is a chromosomal disorder that is not inherited in the traditional sense. However, in rare cases (about 3.5%), Down syndrome can be caused by a translocation of chromosome 21, where a piece of the chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome. This can be inherited from a parent who is a balanced translocation carrier, meaning they have no extra chromosome 21 themselves but have a piece of it attached to another chromosome.
Another rare form of Down syndrome is mosaic trisomy 21, which occurs when nondisjunction (the failure of chromosomes to separate properly) happens after fertilization during early cell division. This results in some cells having the normal number of chromosomes while others have an extra chromosome 21. People with mosaic Down syndrome may have milder disabilities and less obvious physical features.
Understanding the genetic basis of Down syndrome is important for families and healthcare providers to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 78
Incorrect
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What genetic condition would affect the age at which breast cancer screening should begin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: BRCA
Explanation:Genetic Mutations and Cancer Risk
Genetic mutations can increase an individual’s risk of developing cancer. However, not all mutations increase the risk of breast cancer. Only the BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. Women who carry these mutations should not follow the usual screening program. Instead, they should have yearly MRI scans starting at age 30.
Other genetic conditions also predispose individuals to different types of cancer. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) increases the risk of early onset bowel cancer. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) puts people at risk of parathyroid cancer, carcinoid, insulinoma, gastrinomas, angiofibromas, pituitary tumors, collagenomas, and lipomas. Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome increases the risk of renal cell carcinoma, phaeochromocytoma, and retinal and CNS haemangioblastomas, as well as other rarer forms of cancer. Blount syndrome is a disorder of the tibial growth plate leading to bowing.
If women think they have a high risk of breast cancer due to family history but do not know if they carry BRCA or TP53 gene, they can be referred to a specialist breast clinic to have their risk assessed. It is important to be aware of these genetic mutations and conditions to take appropriate measures to reduce the risk of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A young woman with haemophilia conceives with her husband and attends requesting information. Her husband has no family history of the disease (i.e. he is genetically normal in this context).
She asks about the chances of her offspring being affected by haemophilia.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A son will not be affected
Explanation:Understanding Haemophilia Inheritance
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. This means that the gene responsible for haemophilia is located on the X-chromosome. As a result, females who inherit one copy of the gene will be carriers of the disorder, but will not be affected by it as they have a normal X-chromosome that can compensate for the faulty one.
On the other hand, males who inherit the faulty X-chromosome from their mother will develop haemophilia as they do not have a second X-chromosome to compensate for the faulty one. However, males who inherit a normal X-chromosome from their mother will not develop haemophilia.
It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of haemophilia as it can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing. By knowing the risk of passing on the disorder to their children, individuals can take steps to prevent or manage the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Which chromosomal disorder can result in females being affected by X-linked recessive conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Edwards' syndrome
Explanation:Understanding X Linked Recessive Disorders
Females are typically not symptomatic of X linked recessive disorders, but they can be carriers. This is because they have two X chromosomes, and the healthy X chromosome can compensate for the mutated one. However, if a female has Turner’s syndrome, which is characterized by a single X chromosome, she can be affected by X linked disorders if she inherits a mutation on that chromosome.
It is important to understand the underlying genetic problem that causes various diagnoses. Down’s syndrome is caused by trisomy 21, Edwards’ syndrome by trisomy 18, and Patau’s syndrome by trisomy 13. Klinefelter’s syndrome, which is characterized by an extra X chromosome, only occurs in males and can be ruled out for females. Knowing these genetic factors can aid in understanding the inheritance and manifestation of these disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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