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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. Upon examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally, and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, which was conducted 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. What medication could be added to improve his prognosis?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits

      Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.

      Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.

      Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.

      Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.

      Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      91.7
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at the Emergency Department with severe chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is sweating heavily and the pain does not subside with rest or sublingual nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III and avF.

      What is the leading cause of death within the first hour after the onset of symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Correct Answer: Arrhythmia

      Explanation:

      After experiencing an inferior-wall MI, the most common cause of death within the first hour is a lethal arrhythmia, such as ventricular fibrillation. This can be caused by various factors, including ischaemia, toxic metabolites, or autonomic stimulation. If ventricular fibrillation occurs within the first 48 hours, it may be due to transient causes and not affect long-term prognosis. However, if it occurs after 48 hours, it is usually indicative of permanent dysfunction and associated with a worse long-term prognosis. Other complications that may occur after an acute MI include emboli from a left ventricular thrombus, cardiac tamponade, ruptured papillary muscle, and pericarditis. These complications typically occur at different time frames after the acute MI and present with different symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      86.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that has worsened over the past 2 days. She also reported feeling ‘a little run down’ with a sore throat a week ago. She has history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. She reports diffuse chest pain that feels better when she leans forward. On examination, she has a temperature of 37.94 °C and a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg. Her heart rate is 76 bpm. A friction rub is heard on cardiac auscultation, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates ST segment elevation in nearly every lead. Her physical examination and blood tests are otherwise within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of her chest pain?

      Your Answer: Post-myocardial infarction syndrome (Dressler syndrome)

      Correct Answer: Post-viral complication

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis as a Post-Viral Complication: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium, can occur as a post-viral complication. Patients typically experience diffuse chest pain that improves when leaning forward, and a friction rub may be heard on cardiac auscultation. Diffuse ST segment elevations on ECG can be mistaken for myocardial infarction. In this case, the patient reported recent viral symptoms and then developed acute pericardial symptoms.

      While systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can cause pericarditis, other symptoms such as rash, myalgia, or joint pain would be expected, along with a positive anti-nuclear antibodies test. Uraemia can also cause pericarditis, but elevated blood urea nitrogen would be present, and this patient has no history of kidney disease. Dressler syndrome, or post-myocardial infarction pericarditis, can cause diffuse ST elevations, but does not represent transmural infarction. Chest radiation can also cause pericarditis, but this patient has no history of radiation exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      83
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  • Question 4 - A 59-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and prescribed medication to...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and prescribed medication to lower her blood pressure. However, she stopped taking the medication due to reported dizziness. Her blood pressure readings usually run at 150/100 mmHg. She denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, leg swelling, or visual problems. She has a history of occasional migraines but no other medical conditions. She has no known drug allergies. Her vital signs are within normal limits, other than high blood pressure. The S1 and S2 sounds are normal. There is no S3 or S4 sound, murmur, rub, or gallop. The peripheral pulses are normal and symmetric. The serum electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride), creatinine, and urea nitrogen are within normal range. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive medication for this patient?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      The best medication for the patient in the scenario would be indapamide, a thiazide diuretic that blocks the Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubules, increasing calcium reabsorption and reducing the risk of osteoporotic fractures. Common side-effects include hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricaemia, gout, postural hypotension and hypochloraemic alkalosis.

      Prazosin is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia.

      Enalapril is not preferred for patients over 55 years old and can increase osteoporosis risk.

      Propranolol is not a preferred initial treatment for hypertension, and amlodipine can cause ankle swelling and should be avoided in patients with myocardial infarction and symptomatic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      81.8
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  • Question 5 - A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath. The doctor notices that the patient’s jugular veins distend when she inspires, even while sitting upright.

      Which of the following processes could explain this observation?

      Your Answer: The patient has venous insufficiency

      Correct Answer: The patient has constrictive pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship between Neck Veins and Various Medical Conditions

      The appearance of neck veins can provide valuable information about a patient’s health. Here are some examples of how different medical conditions can affect the appearance of neck veins:

      1. Constrictive pericarditis: This condition restricts the heart’s ability to expand, leading to higher pressures within the right heart. This can cause jugular venous distension, which is more pronounced during inspiration (Kussmaul’s sign).

      2. Dehydration: A decrease in intravascular blood volume can cause flattened neck veins.

      3. Venous insufficiency: Incompetent venous valves can lead to venous stasis and pooling of blood in the lower extremities. This can cause syncope due to decreased venous return to the heart.

      4. Budd-Chiari syndrome and hepatic vein thrombosis: These conditions involve blood clots in the hepatic vein or inferior vena cava, which prevent blood from returning to the right heart from the abdomen and lower extremities. This decreases the pressure in the right heart and allows blood to drain more easily from the jugular and neck veins, resulting in flattened neck veins.

      Understanding the relationship between neck veins and various medical conditions can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      508.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an irregularly irregular and tachycardic pulse, and a systolic murmur is heard on auscultation. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and right axis deviation, while an echocardiogram shows an atrial septal defect.
      What is the process of atrial septum formation?

      Your Answer: The septum secundum grows down to the right of the septum primum

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the septum primum grows down from the roof of the primitive atrium and fuses with the endocardial cushions. It initially has a hole called the ostium primum, which closes as the septum grows downwards. However, a second hole called the ostium secundum develops in the septum primum before fusion can occur. The septum secundum then grows downwards and to the right of the septum primum and ostium secundum. The foramen ovale is a passage through the septum secundum that allows blood to shunt from the right to the left atrium in the fetus, bypassing the pulmonary circulation. This defect closes at birth due to a drop in pressure within the pulmonary circulation after the infant takes a breath. If there is overlap between the foramen ovale and ostium secundum or if the ostium primum fails to close, an atrial septal defect results. This defect does not cause cyanosis because oxygenated blood flows from left to right through the defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      64
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A radiologist examined a coronary angiogram of a 75-year-old man with long-standing heart...

    Correct

    • A radiologist examined a coronary angiogram of a 75-year-old man with long-standing heart disease and identified stenosis of the right coronary artery resulting in reduced perfusion of the myocardium of the right atrium. Which structure related to the right atrium is most likely to have been impacted by the decreased blood flow?

      Your Answer: Sinoatrial node

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and their Supply to Cardiac Conduction System

      The heart’s conduction system is responsible for regulating the heartbeat. The following are the coronary arteries that supply blood to the different parts of the cardiac conduction system:

      Sinoatrial Node
      The sinoatrial node, which is the primary pacemaker of the heart, is supplied by the right coronary artery in 60% of cases through a sinoatrial nodal branch.

      Atrioventricular Node
      The atrioventricular node, which is responsible for delaying the electrical impulse before it reaches the ventricles, is supplied by the right coronary artery in 80% of individuals through the atrioventricular nodal branch.

      Atrioventricular Bundle
      The atrioventricular bundle, which conducts the electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles, is supplied by numerous septal arteries that mostly arise from the anterior interventricular artery, a branch of the left coronary artery.

      Left Bundle Branch
      The left bundle branch, which conducts the electrical impulse to the left ventricle, is supplied by numerous subendocardial bundle arteries that originate from the left coronary artery.

      Right Bundle Branch
      The right bundle branch, which conducts the electrical impulse to the right ventricle, is supplied by numerous subendocardial bundle arteries that originate from the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      118.1
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  • Question 8 - A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing chest pain. The patient reports feeling pain in his neck and jaw as well. He has no significant medical history, but he does smoke socially and consumes up to 60 units of alcohol per week. An ECG is performed, revealing widespread ST elevation indicative of an acute coronary syndrome.
      What is the earliest point at which the microscopic changes of acute MI become apparent?

      Your Answer: 12-24 hours after the infarct

      Explanation:

      The Pathological Progression of Myocardial Infarction: A Timeline of Changes

      Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the heart is blocked, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications. The pathological progression of myocardial infarction follows a predictable sequence of events, with macroscopic and microscopic changes occurring over time.

      Immediately after the infarct occurs, there are usually no visible changes to the myocardium. However, within 3-6 hours, maximal inflammatory changes occur, with the most prominent changes occurring between 24-72 hours. During this time, coagulative necrosis and acute inflammatory responses are visible, with marked infiltration by neutrophils.

      Between 3-10 days, the infarcted area begins to develop a hyperaemic border, and the process of organisation and repair begins. Granulation tissue replaces dead muscle, and dying neutrophils are replaced by macrophages. Disintegration and phagocytosis of dead myofibres occur during this time.

      If a patient survives an acute infarction, the infarct heals through the formation of scar tissue. However, scar tissue does not possess the usual contractile properties of normal cardiac muscle, leading to contractile dysfunction or congestive cardiac failure. The entire process from coagulative necrosis to the formation of well-formed scar tissue takes 6-8 weeks.

      In summary, understanding the timeline of changes that occur during myocardial infarction is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. By recognising the macroscopic and microscopic changes that occur over time, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that feels heavy. The pain does not radiate, and there are no other risk factors for atherosclerosis. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are normal, including pulse, temperature, and oxygen saturation. The patient appears sweaty, but cardiovascular and respiratory exams are unremarkable. The patient experiences tenderness over the sternum at the site of the chest pain, and the resting electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient

      Explanation:

      Management of Chest Pain in a Patient with Risk Factors for Cardiac Disease

      Chest pain is a common presenting complaint in primary care and emergency departments. However, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with risk factors for cardiac disease. Here are some management strategies for a patient with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease:

      Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient. A normal troponin assay would make a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome unlikely, but further investigation may be required to determine if the patient has underlying coronary artery disease.

      Do not discharge the patient with a diagnosis of costochondritis based solely on chest wall tenderness. This should only be used in low-risk patients with tenderness that accurately reproduces the pain they have been feeling on minimal palpation.

      Do not discharge the patient if serial resting ECGs are normal. A normal ECG does not rule out an acute cardiac event.

      Admit the patient to the Coronary Care Unit for monitoring and further assessment only if the 12-h troponin comes back elevated.

      Do not discharge the patient and arrange an outpatient exercise tolerance test until further investigation has been done to rule out an acute cardiac event.

      In summary, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease. Further investigation, such as a 12-h troponin assay, may be required before deciding on appropriate management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      222.8
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  • Question 10 - A previously healthy 58-year-old man collapsed while playing with his grandchildren. Although he...

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 58-year-old man collapsed while playing with his grandchildren. Although he quickly regained consciousness and became fully alert, his family called an ambulance. The emergency medical team found no abnormalities on the electrocardiogram. Physical examination was unremarkable. However, the patient was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit of the local hospital. During the evening, the patient was noted to have a fast rhythm with a wide complex on his monitor, followed by hypotension and loss of consciousness.
      After electrical cardioversion with 200 watt-seconds of direct current, which one of the following may possible therapy include?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      The patient in the scenario is experiencing a fast rhythm with wide complexes, which is likely ventricular tachycardia (VT). As the patient is unstable, electrical cardioversion was attempted first, as recommended by the Resuscitation Council Guideline. If cardioversion fails and the patient remains unstable, intravenous amiodarone can be used as a loading dose of 300 mg over 10-20 minutes, followed by an infusion of 900 mg/24 hours. Amiodarone is a class III anti-arrhythmic agent that prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential by blocking potassium efflux. Side-effects associated with amiodarone include deranged thyroid and liver function tests, nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, interstitial lung disease, jaundice, and sleep disorders.

      Epinephrine is used in the treatment of acute anaphylaxis and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It acts on adrenergic receptors, causing bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. Side-effects associated with epinephrine include palpitations, arrhythmias, headache, tremor, and hypertension.

      Intravenous propranolol is a non-selective β-adrenergic receptor blocker that has limited use in treating arrhythmias and thyrotoxic crisis. It is contraindicated in patients with severe hypotension, asthma, COPD, bradycardia, sick sinus rhythm, atrioventricular block, and cardiogenic shock. Side-effects associated with propranolol include insomnia, nightmares, nausea, diarrhea, bronchospasm, exacerbation of Raynaud’s, bradycardia, hypotension, and heart block.

      Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside extracted from the plant genus Digitalis, can be used in the treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias and heart failure. However, it is of no use in this scenario as the patient is experiencing a broad complex tachycardia. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window, and even small changes in dosing can lead to toxicity. Side-effects associated with digoxin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bradycardia, dizziness, yellow vision, and eosinophilia.

      Diltiazem, a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is normally used for hypertension and prophylaxis and treatment of ang

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      93.6
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation. What is the least frequent pathological alteration observed in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Apical–radial pulse deficit

      Correct Answer: Fourth heart sound

      Explanation:

      Effects of Atrial Fibrillation on the Heart

      Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats. This condition can have several effects on the heart, including the following:

      Fourth Heart Sound: In conditions such as hypertensive heart disease, active atrial contraction can cause active filling of a stiff left ventricle, leading to the fourth heart sound. However, this sound cannot be heard in atrial fibrillation.

      Apical-Radial Pulse Deficit: Ineffective left ventricular filling can lead to cardiac ejections that cannot be detected by radial pulse palpation, resulting in the apical-radial pulse deficit.

      Left Atrial Thrombus: Stasis of blood in the left atrial appendage due to ineffective contraction in atrial fibrillation is the main cause of systemic embolisation.

      Reduction of Cardiac Output by 20%: Ineffective atrial contraction reduces left ventricular filling volumes, leading to a reduction in stroke volume and cardiac output by up to 20%.

      Symptomatic Palpitations: Palpitations are the most common symptom reported by patients in atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, atrial fibrillation can have significant effects on the heart and may require medical intervention to manage symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      29.1
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  • Question 12 - A 54-year-old man comes to his doctor for a regular check-up after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man comes to his doctor for a regular check-up after experiencing a heart attack 6 weeks ago. During the examination, he appears unwell, sweaty, and clammy, and mentions feeling constantly feverish. His recent blood work reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and anemia. What is the most probable post-heart attack complication that this man is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Dressler’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Complications Following Myocardial Infarction

      One of the complications that can occur 2-6 weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI) is Dressler’s syndrome. This autoimmune reaction happens as the myocardium heals and can present with pyrexia, pleuritic chest pain, and an elevated ESR. Pulmonary embolism is not suggested by this presentation. Another complication is myomalacia cordis, which occurs 3-14 days post-MI and involves the softening of dead muscles leading to rupture and death. Ventricular aneurysm may also form due to weakened myocardium, resulting in persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Anticoagulation is necessary to prevent thrombus formation within the aneurysm and reduce the risk of stroke. Heart failure is unlikely to cause the above presentation and blood test results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      50.3
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  • Question 13 - A first-year medical student is participating in a bedside teaching session and is...

    Correct

    • A first-year medical student is participating in a bedside teaching session and is instructed to listen to the patient's heart. The student places the stethoscope over the patient's fourth left intercostal space just lateral to the sternum.
      What heart valve's normal sounds would be best detected with the stethoscope positioned as described?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid

      Explanation:

      Auscultation of Heart Valves: Locations and Sounds

      The human heart has four valves that regulate blood flow. These valves can be heard through auscultation, a medical technique that involves listening to the sounds produced by the heart using a stethoscope. Here are the locations and sounds of each valve:

      Tricuspid Valve: This valve is located on the right side of the heart and can be heard at the left sternal border in the fourth intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a low-pitched, rumbling noise.

      Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is located on the left side of the heart and can be heard over the right sternal border at the second intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a high-pitched, clicking noise.

      Pulmonary Valve: This valve is located on the right side of the heart and can be heard over the left sternal border at the second intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a high-pitched, clicking noise.

      Thebesian Valve: The Thebesian valve is located in the coronary sinus and its closure cannot be auscultated.

      Mitral Valve: This valve is located on the left side of the heart and can be heard by listening at the apex, in the left mid-clavicular line in the fifth intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a low-pitched, rumbling noise.

      In summary, auscultation of heart valves is an important diagnostic tool that can help healthcare professionals identify potential heart problems. By knowing the locations and sounds of each valve, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      85.8
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  • Question 14 - A 59-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit from the Coronary...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit from the Coronary Care Ward. He has suffered from an acute myocardial infarction two days earlier. On examination, he is profoundly unwell with a blood pressure of 85/60 mmHg and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. He has crackles throughout his lung fields, with markedly decreased oxygen saturations; he has no audible cardiac murmurs. He is intubated and ventilated, and catheterised.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Troponin T 5.8 ng/ml <0.1 ng/ml
      Urine output 30 ml in the past 3 h
      ECG – consistent with a myocardial infarction 48 h earlier
      Chest X-ray – gross pulmonary oedema
      Which of the following fits best with the clinical picture?

      Your Answer: An intra-aortic balloon pump may be of benefit

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cardiogenic Shock Following Acute Myocardial Infarction

      Cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction is a serious condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment. One potential treatment option is the use of an intra-aortic balloon pump, which can provide ventricular support without compromising blood pressure. High-dose dopamine may also be used to preserve renal function, but intermediate and high doses can have negative effects on renal blood flow. The chance of death in this situation is high, but with appropriate treatment, it can be reduced to less than 10%. Nesiritide, a synthetic natriuretic peptide, is not recommended as it can worsen renal function and increase mortality. Nitrate therapy should also be avoided as it can further reduce renal perfusion and worsen the patient’s condition. Overall, careful consideration of treatment options is necessary to improve outcomes for patients with cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      167
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 1-hour history of chest pain and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 1-hour history of chest pain and is found to have an acute ST elevation inferior myocardial infarct. His blood pressure is 126/78 mmHg and has a pulse of 58 bpm. He is loaded with anti-platelets, and the cardiac monitor shows second-degree heart block (Wenckebach’s phenomenon).
      What would you consider next for this patient?

      Your Answer: Permanent pacemaker

      Correct Answer: Temporary pacing and primary PCI

      Explanation:

      Management of Heart Block in Acute Myocardial Infarction

      Wenckebach’s phenomenon is usually not a cause for concern in patients with normal haemodynamics. However, if it occurs alongside acute myocardial infarction, complete heart block, or symptomatic Mobitz type II block, temporary pacing is necessary. Even with complete heart block, revascularisation can improve conduction if the patient is haemodynamically stable. Beta blockers should be avoided in second- and third-degree heart block as they can worsen the situation. Temporary pacing is required before proceeding to primary percutaneous intervention (PCI). A permanent pacemaker may be necessary for patients with irreversible heart block, but revascularisation should be prioritised as it may improve conduction. The block may be complete or second- or third-degree. If the heart block is reversible, temporary pacing should be followed by an assessment for permanent pacing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      110
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  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of experiencing severe...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of experiencing severe dizziness upon standing quickly. He is currently taking atenolol 100 mg OD for hypertension. Upon measuring his blood pressure while lying down and standing up, the readings are 146/88 mmHg and 108/72 mmHg, respectively. What is the main cause of his postural hypotension?

      Your Answer: Impaired baroreceptor reflex

      Explanation:

      Postural Hypotension

      Postural hypotension is a common condition that affects many people, especially the elderly and those with refractory hypertension. When standing up, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs, causing a temporary drop in blood pressure. Baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus detect this change and trigger a sympathetic response, which includes venoconstriction, an increase in heart rate, and an increase in stroke volume. This response helps to restore cardiac output and blood pressure, usually before any awareness of hypotension. However, a delay in this response can cause dizziness and presyncope.

      In some cases, the reflex response is partially impaired by medications such as beta blockers. This means that increased adrenaline release, decreased pH (via chemoreceptors), or pain (via a sympathetic response) can lead to an increase in blood pressure rather than a decrease. postural hypotension and its underlying mechanisms can help individuals manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Accident and Emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Accident and Emergency department. He is visibly distressed but gives a history of sudden onset central compressive chest pain radiating to his left upper limb. He is also nauseous and very sweaty. He has had previous myocardial infarctions (MI) in the past and claims the pain is identical to those episodes. ECG reveals an anterior ST elevation MI.
      Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Brain neoplasm

      Explanation:

      Relative and Absolute Contraindications to Thrombolysis

      Thrombolysis is a treatment option for patients with ongoing cardiac ischemia and presentation within 12 hours of onset of pain. However, there are both relative and absolute contraindications to this treatment.

      Absolute contraindications include internal or heavy PV bleeding, acute pancreatitis or severe liver disease, esophageal varices, active lung disease with cavitation, recent trauma or surgery within the past 2 weeks, severe hypertension (>200/120 mmHg), suspected aortic dissection, recent hemorrhagic stroke, cerebral neoplasm, and previous allergic reaction.

      Relative contraindications include prolonged CPR, history of CVA, bleeding diathesis, anticoagulation, blood pressure of 180/100 mmHg, peptic ulcer, and pregnancy or recent delivery.

      It is important to consider these contraindications before administering thrombolysis as they can increase the risk of complications. Primary percutaneous coronary intervention is the preferred treatment option, but if not available, thrombolysis can be a viable alternative. The benefit of thrombolysis decreases over time, and a target time of <30 minutes from admission for commencement of thrombolysis is typically recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      106
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb)...

    Correct

    • A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays suddenly pierced his chest. The tip of the barb pierced the right ventricle and the man instinctively removed it in the water. When he was brought onto the boat, there was absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.

      What was the most likely diagnosis for the young marine biologist who was snorkelling among giant stingrays and had the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays pierce his chest, causing the tip of the barb to pierce the right ventricle? Upon being brought onto the boat, the young man exhibited absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with chest trauma

      When evaluating a patient with chest trauma, it is important to consider various potential diagnoses based on the clinical presentation and mechanism of injury. Here are some possible explanations for different symptoms:

      – Cardiac tamponade: If a projectile penetrates the fibrous pericardium, blood can accumulate in the pericardial cavity and compress the heart, leading to decreased cardiac output and potential death.
      – Deep vein thrombosis: This condition involves the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, often in the leg. However, it does not typically cause the symptoms described in this case.
      – Stroke: A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted, usually due to a blockage or rupture of an artery. This is not likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
      – Pulmonary embolism: If a clot from a deep vein thrombosis travels to the lungs and obstructs blood flow, it can cause sudden death. However, given the history of trauma, other possibilities should be considered first.
      – Haemothorax: This refers to the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity around a lung. While it can cause respiratory distress and chest pain, it does not typically affect jugular veins or heart sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight following a road traffic accident. He sustained extensive bruising to his chest from the steering wheel. The nurses are concerned as he has become hypotensive and tachycardic. There is a history of a previous inferior myocardial infarction some 7 years ago, but nil else of note. On examination his BP is 90/50 mmHg, pulse is 95/min and regular. He looks peripherally shut down. There are muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus.
      Investigations – arterial blood gas - reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      pH 7.29 7.35–7.45
      pO2 11.9 kPa 11.2–14.0 kPa
      pCO2 6.1 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
      ECG Widespread anterior T wave inversion
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypotension, Tachycardia, and Muffled Heart Sounds Following a Road Traffic Accident: Cardiac Tamponade, Myocarditis, NSTEMI, Pericarditis, and STEMI

      A 67-year-old man presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and poor peripheral perfusion following a road traffic accident with a steering wheel injury. On examination, muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus are noted, and an ECG shows widespread anterior T-wave inversion. The patient has a history of inferior wall MI seven years ago. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals respiratory acidosis.

      The differential diagnosis includes cardiac tamponade, myocarditis, NSTEMI, pericarditis, and STEMI. While myocarditis can cause similar symptoms and ECG changes, the presence of muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus suggests fluid in the pericardium and cardiac tamponade. NSTEMI and STEMI can also cause acute onset of symptoms and ECG changes, but the absence of ST elevation and the history of trauma make cardiac tamponade more likely. Pericarditis can cause muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus, but the absence of peripheral hypoperfusion and the presence of non-specific ST-T changes on ECG make it less likely.

      In conclusion, the clinical scenario is most consistent with traumatic cardiac tamponade, which requires urgent echocardiography for confirmation and possible guided pericardiocentesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He reports feeling well today but has a history of chronic respiratory tract infections and lung issues. He is immunocompetent.
      During the examination, his temperature and blood pressure are normal. His heart rate is regular and his breathing is effortless. The GP detects a diastolic murmur with a snap that is most audible at the right fifth intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension

      Correct Answer: Primary ciliary dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Chronic Respiratory Infections and a Heart Murmur

      Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia: A Congenital Syndrome of Ciliary Dysfunction

      The patient described in the case likely has primary ciliary dyskinesia, also known as Kartagener’s syndrome, which is a congenital syndrome of ciliary dysfunction. This disorder affects the proper beating of Ciliary, leading to the accumulation of infectious material within the respiratory tree and abnormal cell migration during development, resulting in situs inversus. Additionally, abnormal Ciliary can lead to non-motile sperm and infertility.

      Other Possible Diagnoses

      Although the GP noticed a diastolic murmur suggestive of mitral stenosis, the patient does not have symptoms of congestive heart failure. Asthma could be associated with chronic lung and respiratory tract infections, but it would not explain the heart murmur. Squamous cell lung cancer is less likely in a man who is 40 years old with a normal respiratory examination and would not explain the heart murmur. Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension usually causes progressive breathlessness, a dry cough, and fine inspiratory crepitations on examination, rather than the picture here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with shortness of breath. He describes shortness of breath on exertion and feeling short of breath when he lies flat. He now uses four pillows when sleeping. His past medical history is remarkable for hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and type II diabetes.
      On examination, he has bilateral crepitation, a jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 5 cm and pitting oedema up to his shins. Despite these symptoms, his oxygen saturation is 99% and he is functioning normally at home. He says the symptoms started gradually about 6 months ago and have progressed slowly since.
      Which of the following should the GP do first to confirm the provisional diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      The first-line investigation for heart failure in primary care is checking the levels of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP), according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. BNP levels are widely available, non-invasive, quick, and cost-efficient. A normal BNP level can rule out heart failure, but if it is abnormal, an echocardiogram should be done within 6 weeks if it is raised and within 2 weeks if it is very high. Patients with a history of myocardial infarction should have an echocardiogram straightaway. An echocardiogram is the most definitive test diagnostically, as it can accurately assess various parameters. Troponin T level is used to assess myocardial injury resulting from a myocardial infarction, but it is not relevant in chronic heart failure. Myocardial perfusion scans are useful in the diagnosis of coronary artery disease, but they are not the first-line investigation for heart failure. An ECG may be helpful, but it is not sensitive or specific enough to be used as a conclusive diagnostic tool. A chest X-ray can show features of heart failure, but they are usually found in progressed chronic congestive heart failure, which are unlikely to be present at the very first presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old man is being evaluated in the Cardiac Unit. He has developed...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man is being evaluated in the Cardiac Unit. He has developed a ventricular tachycardia of 160 bpm, appears ill, and has a blood pressure of 70/52 mmHg. What would be the most immediate treatment option?

      Your Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ventricular Arrhythmia: Evaluating the Choices

      When faced with a patient experiencing ventricular arrhythmia, it is important to consider the appropriate treatment options. In the scenario of a broad complex tachycardia with low blood pressure, immediate DC cardioversion is the clear choice. Carotid sinus massage and IV adenosine are not appropriate options as they are used in the diagnosis and termination of SVT. Immediate heparinisation is not the immediate treatment for ventricular arrhythmia. Intravenous lidocaine may be considered if the VT is haemodynamically stable, but in this scenario, it cannot be the correct answer choice. It is important to carefully evaluate the available options and choose the most appropriate treatment for the patient’s specific condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      138.3
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  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old patient comes to her doctor for a routine check-up. During the...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient comes to her doctor for a routine check-up. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured in both arms, and the readings are as follows:
      Right arm 152/100
      Left arm 138/92
      What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Ask the patient to start ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      Proper Management of High Blood Pressure Readings

      In order to properly manage high blood pressure readings, it is important to follow established guidelines. If a patient displays a blood pressure of over 140/90 in one arm, the patient should have ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) in order to confirm the presence or lack of hypertension, in accordance with NICE guidelines.

      It is important to note that a diagnosis of hypertension cannot be made from one blood pressure recording. However, if hypertension is confirmed, based upon the patients’ age, amlodipine would be the antihypertensive of choice.

      When measuring blood pressure in both arms (as it should clinically be done), the higher of the two readings should be taken. Asking the patient to come back in one week to re-record blood pressure sounds reasonable, but it is not in accordance with the NICE guidelines.

      Lastly, it is important to note that considering the patients’ age, ramipril is second line and should not be the first choice for treatment. Proper management of high blood pressure readings is crucial for the overall health and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset palpitation and chest pain that began 1...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset palpitation and chest pain that began 1 hour ago. The palpitation is constant and is not alleviated or aggravated by anything. She is worried that something serious is happening to her. She recently experienced conflict at home with her husband and left home the previous day to stay with her sister. She denies any medication or recreational drug use. Past medical history is unremarkable. Vital signs are within normal limits, except for a heart rate of 180 bpm. Electrocardiography shows narrow QRS complexes that are regularly spaced. There are no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage results in recovery of normal sinus rhythm.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Tachycardia

      Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is a sudden-onset tachycardia with a heart rate of 180 bpm, regularly spaced narrow QRS complexes, and no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage or adenosine administration can diagnose PSVT, which is commonly caused by atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia.

      Sinus tachycardia is characterized by normal P waves preceding each QRS complex. Atrial flutter is less common than atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia and generally does not respond to carotid massage. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregularly spaced QRS complexes and does not respond to carotid massage. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia is associated with wide QRS complexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a persistent cough with yellow...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a persistent cough with yellow sputum, mild breathlessness, and fever for the past three days. He had a heart attack nine months ago and received treatment with a bare metal stent during angioplasty. Due to his penicillin allergy, the doctor prescribed oral clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for a week to treat his chest infection. However, after five days, the patient returns to the doctor with severe muscle pains in his thighs and shoulders, weakness, lethargy, nausea, and dark urine. Which medication has interacted with clarithromycin to cause these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Clarithromycin and its Drug Interactions

      Clarithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial infections. It is effective against many Gram positive and some Gram negative bacteria that cause community acquired pneumonias, atypical pneumonias, upper respiratory tract infections, and skin infections. Unlike other macrolide antibiotics, clarithromycin is highly stable in acidic environments and has fewer gastric side effects. It is also safe to use in patients with penicillin allergies.

      However, clarithromycin can interact with other drugs by inhibiting the hepatic cytochrome P450 enzyme system. This can lead to increased levels of other drugs that are metabolized via this route, such as warfarin, aminophylline, and statin drugs. When taken with statins, clarithromycin can cause muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis, which can lead to renal failure. Elderly patients who take both drugs may experience reduced mobility and require prolonged rehabilitation physiotherapy.

      To avoid these interactions, it is recommended that patients taking simvastatin or another statin drug discontinue its use during the course of clarithromycin treatment and for one week after. Clarithromycin can also potentially interact with clopidogrel, a drug used to prevent stent thrombosis, by reducing its efficacy. However, clarithromycin does not have any recognized interactions with bisoprolol, lisinopril, or aspirin.

      In summary, while clarithromycin is an effective antibiotic, it is important to be aware of its potential drug interactions, particularly with statin drugs and clopidogrel. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      196.7
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman with shortness of breath on exercise comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with shortness of breath on exercise comes to the clinic some 6 months after the birth of her second child. The recent pregnancy and post-partum period were uneventful. Her general practitioner has diagnosed her with asthma and prescribed a salbutamol inhaler. On examination, she looks unwell and is slightly short of breath at rest. Her blood pressure is 150/80 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 24. There is mild bilateral pitting ankle oedema. Auscultation of the chest reveals no wheeze.
      Investigations
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 129 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Electrocardiogram (ECG) Right axis deviation,
      incomplete right bundle branch block
      Pulmonary artery systolic pressure 33 mmHg
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Correct Answer: Primary pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Postpartum Dyspnea: A Review

      Postpartum dyspnea can be a concerning symptom for new mothers. In this case, the patient presents with dyspnea and fatigue several weeks after giving birth. The following differentials should be considered:

      1. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension: This condition can present with right ventricular strain on ECG and elevated pulmonary artery systolic pressure. It is not uncommon for symptoms to develop after childbirth.

      2. Dilated Cardiomyopathy: Patients with dilated cardiomyopathy may present with left bundle branch block and right axis deviation. Symptoms can develop weeks to months after giving birth.

      3. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: While a possible differential, the absence of pleuritic pain and risk factors such as a raised BMI make this less likely.

      4. Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM): HOCM typically presents with exertional syncope or pre-syncope and ECG changes such as left ventricular hypertrophy or asymmetrical septal hypertrophy.

      5. Hypertensive Heart Disease: This condition is characterized by elevated blood pressure during pregnancy, which is not reported in this case. The patient’s symptoms are also not typical of hypertensive heart disease.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation and consideration of these differentials can aid in the diagnosis and management of postpartum dyspnea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      433
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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old male with a nine year history of type 2 diabetes is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male with a nine year history of type 2 diabetes is currently taking metformin 1 g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. He has gained weight over the past year and his HbA1c has worsened from 59 to 64 mmol/mol (20-42). The doctor is considering treating him with either insulin or pioglitazone. The patient is curious about the potential side effects of pioglitazone.

      What is a common side effect of pioglitazone therapy?

      Your Answer: Fluid retention

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Diabetes Medications

      Pioglitazone, a medication used to treat diabetes, can lead to fluid retention in approximately 10% of patients. This side effect can be worsened when taken with other drugs that also cause fluid retention, such as NSAIDs and calcium antagonists. Additionally, weight gain associated with pioglitazone is due to both fat accumulation and fluid retention. It is important to note that pioglitazone is not recommended for patients with cardiac failure.

      Metformin, another commonly prescribed diabetes medication, can cause lactic acidosis as a side effect. This is a known risk and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers.

      Sulphonylureas, a class of medications used to stimulate insulin production, may cause a rash that is sensitive to sunlight.

      Finally, statins and fibrates, medications used to lower cholesterol levels, have been associated with myositis, a condition that causes muscle inflammation and weakness. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - An 82-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness while shopping. Upon examination, she is fully alert and appears to be in good health.
      Her temperature is normal, and her blood glucose level is 5.8 mmol/l. Her cardiovascular system shows an irregular heart rate of 89 beats per minute with low volume, and her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying down and standing up. Her jugular venous pressure is not elevated, and her apex beat is forceful but undisplaced. Heart sounds include a soft S2 and a soft ejection systolic murmur that is loudest in the right second intercostal space, with a possible fourth heart sound heard. Her chest reveals occasional bibasal crackles that clear with coughing, and there is no peripheral edema. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?

      Your Answer: Mixed mitral and aortic valve disease

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Clinical Presentation of Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and potential collapse or blackout if the stenosis is critical. A patient with significant aortic stenosis may exhibit several clinical signs, including a low-volume pulse, narrow pulse pressure, slow-rising carotid pulse, undisplaced sustained/forceful apex beat, soft or absent A2, ejection systolic murmur with a fourth heart sound, and pulmonary edema.

      It is important to note that aortic regurgitation would not cause the same examination findings as aortic stenosis. Aortic regurgitation typically presents with an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse. Similarly, mixed mitral and aortic valve disease would not be evident in this clinical scenario, nor would mitral stenosis or mitral regurgitation. These conditions have distinct clinical presentations and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old man experiences an acute myocardial infarction and subsequently develops a bundle...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man experiences an acute myocardial infarction and subsequently develops a bundle branch block. Which coronary artery is the most probable culprit?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular nodal branch of the right coronary artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      Coronary Artery Branches and Their Functions

      The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries, which branch off the aorta. These arteries are responsible for delivering oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle. Here are some of the main branches of the coronary arteries and their functions:

      1. Left Anterior Descending Artery: This artery supplies the front and left side of the heart, including the interventricular septum. It is one of the most important arteries in the heart.

      2. Acute Marginal Branch of the Right Coronary Artery: This branch supplies the right ventricle of the heart.

      3. Circumflex Branch of the Left Coronary Artery: This artery supplies the left atrium, left ventricle, and the sinoatrial node in some people.

      4. Obtuse Marginal Branch of the Circumflex Artery: This branch supplies the left ventricle.

      5. Atrioventricular Nodal Branch of the Right Coronary Artery: This branch supplies the atrioventricular node. Blockage of this branch can result in heart block.

      Understanding the functions of these coronary artery branches is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      65
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  • Question 30 - What do T waves represent on an ECG? ...

    Correct

    • What do T waves represent on an ECG?

      Your Answer: Ventricular repolarisation

      Explanation:

      The Electrical Activity of the Heart and the ECG

      The ECG (electrocardiogram) is a medical test that records the electrical activity of the heart. This activity is responsible for different parts of the ECG. The first part is the atrial depolarisation, which is represented by the P wave. This wave conducts down the bundle of His to the ventricles, causing the ventricular depolarisation. This is shown on the ECG as the QRS complex. Finally, the ventricular repolarisation is represented by the T wave.

      It is important to note that atrial repolarisation is not visible on the ECG. This is because it is of lower amplitude compared to the QRS complex. the different parts of the ECG and their corresponding electrical activity can help medical professionals diagnose and treat various heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      5.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (16/30) 53%
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