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Question 1
Correct
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Sarah is a 9-year-old girl with sickle cell disease who presents with mild pain in her lower back that has been present for 2 days. Her vital signs include a blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg, heart rate of 108 bpm, respiratory rate of 32/min, and a temperature of 38.1 degrees Celsius. Upon examination, there is no obvious source of infection and her overall physical exam is normal. Sarah is experiencing mild pain and is currently taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. What is the appropriate course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Admit urgently
Explanation:The patient needs to be urgently admitted due to their sickle cell disease. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge summaries, all individuals with clinical features of a sickle cell crisis should be admitted to the hospital, except for a well adult with mild or moderate pain and a temperature of 38°C or less, or a well child with mild or moderate pain and no increased temperature. This is because a fever with no identified source associated with a sickle cell crisis requires bloods and cultures to be taken to identify the possible source of infection and provide early treatment, as there is a higher risk of severe infections due to hyposplenism. Children with sickle cell disease should also be admitted if they present with a fever but are otherwise generally well, have a temperature over 38°C, have chest symptoms, or have a low threshold for admission. It is important to ensure that individuals with chest symptoms and their families understand the importance of seeking urgent medical advice if their clinical state deteriorates, especially if breathing becomes faster or more laboured. Whenever possible, the person should be admitted to the specialist centre that has their records.
Managing Sickle-Cell Crises
Sickle-cell crises can be managed through various interventions. General management includes providing analgesia, rehydration, and oxygen. Antibiotics may also be considered if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusion may be necessary for severe or symptomatic anemia, pregnancy, or pre-operative cases. However, it is important not to rapidly reduce the percentage of Hb S containing cells.
In cases of acute vaso-occlusive crisis, such as stroke, acute chest syndrome, multiorgan failure, or splenic sequestration crisis, exchange transfusion may be necessary. This involves rapidly reducing the percentage of Hb S containing cells. It is important to note that the management of sickle-cell crises should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. Proper management can help alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 49 year old teacher comes to you with a recent onset of nosebleeds and bleeding gums. You order immediate blood tests and the results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 85 g/L
White blood cells 2.5 x 10^9/L
Platelets 17 x 10^9/L
Abnormal clotting
Blood smear shows bilobed large mononuclear cells
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:The image depicts bone marrow failure caused by acute myeloid leukemia, which occurs when abnormal white blood cells accumulate in the bone marrow, replacing normal blood cells. This type of leukemia is more common in individuals over the age of 45, whereas acute lymphoblastic leukemia is mostly seen in children. Unlike lymphoma, which typically presents with enlarged lymph nodes, acute myeloid leukemia can lead to bone marrow failure. Von Willebrand’s disease may cause severe cases of epistaxis and bleeding gums, but abnormalities in blood test results are rare.
Acute myeloid leukaemia is a prevalent form of acute leukaemia in adults that can occur as a primary disease or as a result of a myeloproliferative disorder. The condition is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can lead to anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, splenomegaly, and bone pain. Poor prognostic features include being over 60 years old, having more than 20% blasts after the first course of chemotherapy, and deletions of chromosome 5 or 7.
Acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is a subtype of acute myeloid leukaemia that is associated with t(15;17) and the fusion of PML and RAR-alpha genes. This type of leukaemia typically presents at a younger age than other types of AML, with an average age of 25 years old. Auer rods, which are visible with myeloperoxidase stain, are often present, and patients may experience DIC or thrombocytopenia at presentation. However, the prognosis for acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is generally good.
The French-American-British (FAB) classification system categorizes acute myeloid leukaemia into seven subtypes based on the degree of maturation of the cells: MO (undifferentiated), M1 (without maturation), M2 (with granulocytic maturation), M3 (acute promyelocytic), M4 (granulocytic and monocytic maturation), M5 (monocytic), M6 (erythroleukaemia), and M7 (megakaryoblastic).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old Nigerian boy is brought in by his parents. They have recently joined the practice and were seen last week by a colleague for the first time.
The boy has been experiencing recurrent bouts of abdominal pain. On examination the child is mildly jaundiced and has a palpable spleen.
You review his past medical history and the parents tell you that he has also suffered with painful swellings affecting his fingers and toes.
The recent blood tests show:
Hb 64 g/L (130-180)
WBC 8.4 ×109/L (4-11)
MCV 108 fL (80-96)
Platelets 380 ×109/L (150-400)
Bilirubin 74 -
What investigation will confirm the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Correct Answer: Iron studies
Explanation:Understanding Sickle Cell Disease
Sickle cell disease is a genetic condition that affects the shape of red blood cells, causing them to become sickle-shaped and less flexible. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including moderate anaemia due to chronic haemolysis, jaundice, and splenomegaly in younger children. Vaso-occlusive episodes can affect all organs, causing pain and swelling in the hands and feet, abdominal pain, bone pain, and even pulmonary and cerebral infarction.
To confirm a diagnosis of sickle cell disease, doctors will typically perform a hemoglobin electrophoresis test. Other tests, such as anti-TTG antibodies for coeliac disease or bone marrow biopsy and immunophenotyping for leukaemic processes, may be used to rule out other conditions.
It’s important for individuals with sickle cell disease to receive ongoing medical care and management to prevent complications and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is brought to surgery with confusion and pallor. His son reports that he has been getting more confused and tired for the past two months. Blood tests are reported as follows:
Hb 9.2 g/dl
MCV 120 fl
Plt 152 * 109/l
WBC 4.8 * 109/l
In light of the macrocytic anaemia some further tests are ordered:
Intrinsic factor antibodies Negative
Vitamin B12 90 ng/l (200-900 ng/l)
Folic acid 1.3 nmol/l (> 3.0 nmol/l)
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Oral folic acid + start Intramuscular vitamin B12 when folic acid levels are normal
Correct Answer: Intramuscular vitamin B12 + start oral folic acid when vitamin B12 levels are normal
Explanation:To prevent subacute combined degeneration of the cord, it is crucial to address the B12 deficiency before treating the folic acid deficiency in a patient who is deficient in both. Additionally, referral to secondary care may be necessary to determine the root cause of the deficiency.
Understanding Macrocytic Anaemia
Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia that can be classified into two categories: megaloblastic and normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells in the bone marrow. This type of anaemia can also be caused by certain medications, alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism, pregnancy, and myelodysplasia.
On the other hand, normoblastic anaemia is caused by an increase in the number of immature red blood cells, known as reticulocytes, in the bone marrow. This can occur as a result of certain medications, such as methotrexate, or in response to other underlying medical conditions.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytic anaemia in order to provide appropriate treatment. This may involve addressing any nutritional deficiencies, managing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications. With proper management, most cases of macrocytic anaemia can be successfully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year old lady in her first pregnancy presents to you for evaluation. She is of Pakistani origin and has no notable medical history. She reports taking iron supplements regularly since her midwife diagnosed her with anemia, but her blood count has not improved. Her recent lab results reveal an Hb of 96 g/L, MCV of 67.4 fL, and normal serum iron and ferritin levels. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemoglobinopathy
Explanation:Thalassaemia Minor: A Mild Anaemia with Low MCV
This lady is experiencing a mild, well-tolerated anaemia with a very low mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Despite having normal iron and ferritin levels, her Pakistani background suggests a possible haemoglobinopathy, specifically thalassaemia minor. This condition is characterized by an MCV less than 75 fL and may worsen during pregnancy.
To confirm the diagnosis, a haemoglobin electrophoresis test can be performed, which will reveal an increased HbA2. Other potential causes of anaemia, such as anaemia of chronic disease, hypothyroidism, occult gastrointestinal blood loss, and osteomalacia, have been ruled out based on the patient’s history and test results.
In summary, thalassaemia minor is a mild form of anaemia that can be easily diagnosed through haemoglobin electrophoresis. While it may not require treatment, it is important to monitor the condition, especially during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been visiting the clinic multiple times in the past six months due to a persistent skin rash. She is referred to a Dermatologist, who diagnoses mycosis fungoides after conducting a biopsy of the affected area.
What is the most probable skin symptom that the patient is experiencing during the initial stages of the disease?Your Answer: Generalised lymphadenopathy
Correct Answer: Chronic patches of dermatitis
Explanation:Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma is a group of lymphoproliferative disorders that involve neoplastic T lymphocytes localizing to the skin. The most common form is mycosis fungoides, which presents as patches, plaques, or tumors on the skin. The disease can progress slowly over years or decades, mimicking benign dermatoses in its early stages. Patches may appear as erythematous pink-brown flat areas with atrophy and fine scaling, and may be non-diagnostic on biopsy. As the disease progresses, patches may become infiltrative and evolve into palpable plaques, and eventually into tumors. Sézary syndrome is a variant of T-cell lymphoma that affects the skin of the entire body, causing erythroderma. This variant has a poor prognosis, with a median survival of two to four years. Late-stage mycosis fungoides may present with ulcerated tumors and lymph node infiltration, and can spread to affect distant organs. Psoriatic-like plaques are a less likely presentation in the early stages of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient comes to your clinic with a complaint of feeling constantly tired. After conducting screening blood tests, the results indicate that the patient may have an issue with alcohol consumption. What specific biochemical characteristic is linked to excessive alcohol intake?
Your Answer: Low platelet count
Explanation:Indicators of Excessive Alcohol Consumption
Excessive alcohol consumption can be indicated by a combination of elevated MCV, elevated gamma GT, low platelet count, and low folate levels. These indicators are commonly seen in patients with alcoholic hepatitis, which is characterized by raised intracellular enzymes. It is important to monitor these indicators in patients who consume alcohol excessively as it can lead to serious health complications. By identifying these indicators early on, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions and support to help patients reduce their alcohol consumption and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Patients over the age of 40 with sickle cell disease are at highest risk for which of the following?
Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Chronic renal failure
Explanation:Sickle Cell Disease and Renal Complications
Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects the shape of red blood cells, leading to various complications. One of the most significant complications is chronic renal failure, which can occur in up to 5% of patients, especially those over 40 years old. Regular monitoring of renal function is essential, as falling hemoglobin levels can indicate lowered erythropoietin levels.
In sickle cell disease, serum creatinine levels tend to be lower than normal, and levels within the accepted normal range should not be interpreted as indicating normal renal function. Levels of 60-70 μmol/l may reflect significant renal damage.
Renal medullary carcinoma is a rare but aggressive malignancy that can occur in patients with sickle cell trait or disease. Patients presenting with hematuria should be evaluated to exclude this complication.
While haematuria is common in sickle cell disease, other causes should be excluded, such as urinary tract infections, which are more commonly asymptomatic bacteriuria. Simple renal cysts may also occur more frequently and at a younger age in patients with sickle cell disease, although the reason is not known.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl develops widespread purpuric spots and is presented to the General Practitioner by her parents. She has recently been unwell with a sore throat, which resolved without antibiotics. She is otherwise well but is found to have a platelet count of 20 × 109/l (normal range 150–400 × 109/l). The rest of her full blood count is normal, as is her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Monitor symptoms and avoid contact sports
Explanation:Management of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a self-limiting disorder that commonly occurs in children following an infection or immunization. Treatment is based on clinical symptoms rather than platelet count alone. In children with severe thrombocytopenia, who are often asymptomatic, avoiding antiplatelets and non-contact sports and reporting any change in symptoms urgently is recommended. Splenectomy is rarely indicated and only used in life-threatening bleeding or severe symptoms present for 12-24 months. High-dose dexamethasone is a second-line treatment used when first-line treatments, such as prednisolone, have failed. Platelet transfusions are rarely used in emergency management. Prednisolone is the first-line management if significant symptoms or a clinical need to raise the platelet count are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Correct
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A patient in his 30s with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency seeks advice on malaria prophylaxis for his upcoming 12-month travel abroad. What is the most crucial medication he should steer clear of?
Your Answer: Primaquine
Explanation:Individuals with G6PD deficiency may experience haemolytic anaemia as a result of taking malaria prophylaxis, such as primaquine.
Understanding G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.
Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits his GP after receiving abnormal liver function test results from a private medical screening. Despite consuming approximately 40 units of alcohol per week, he is asymptomatic and in good health. The following results were obtained:
- Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
- ALP: 100 u/l
- ALT: 67 u/l
- γGT: 110 u/l
- Albumin: 40 g/l
All other blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, and fasting glucose, were normal. A liver screen was arranged, which revealed the following:
- Hepatitis B: Negative
- Hepatitis C: Negative
- Serum ferritin: 550 microg/L (normal range: 25-300 microg/L)
- Immunoglobulins: Normal
- Ultrasound liver: Fatty changes
- Transferrin saturation: 41% (normal range: <50%)
What is the most likely underlying cause of the elevated ferritin?Your Answer: Hereditary haemochromatosis
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:The elevated ferritin level can be attributed to the patient’s excessive alcohol consumption, as the typical transferrin saturation rules out iron overload as a potential cause.
Understanding Ferritin Levels in the Body
Ferritin is a protein found inside cells that binds to iron and stores it for later use. When ferritin levels are increased, it is usually defined as being above 300 µg/L in men and postmenopausal women, and above 200 µg/L in premenopausal women. However, it is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase protein, meaning that it can be synthesized in larger quantities during times of inflammation. This can lead to falsely elevated results, which must be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical picture and other blood test results.
There are two main categories of causes for increased ferritin levels: those without iron overload (which account for around 90% of patients) and those with iron overload (which account for around 10% of patients). Causes of increased ferritin levels without iron overload include inflammation, alcohol excess, liver disease, chronic kidney disease, and malignancy. Causes of increased ferritin levels with iron overload include primary iron overload (hereditary hemochromatosis) and secondary iron overload (which can occur after repeated transfusions).
On the other hand, reduced ferritin levels can be an indication of iron deficiency anemia. Since iron and ferritin are bound together, a decrease in ferritin levels can suggest a decrease in iron levels as well. Measuring serum ferritin levels can be helpful in determining whether a low hemoglobin level and microcytosis are truly caused by an iron deficiency state. It is important to note that the best test for determining iron overload is transferrin saturation, with normal values being less than 45% in females and less than 50% in males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child is brought to your clinic by their parents due to concerns about bruising and nosebleeds. The child's medical history shows only a previous case of croup as a toddler. The parents report a cold one week prior to the current symptoms. On examination, the child appears healthy and active, but there is significant bruising and purpura on the trunk and legs. There is no enlargement of lymph nodes or liver and spleen, and a dipstick test of urine is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Correct Answer: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children
This child is experiencing immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura, which is the most common cause of low platelets in children. It occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction and typically affects children between 2 and 10 years old, usually after a viral infection. Symptoms include purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. While intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it can be serious. However, in most cases, ITP is self-limiting and acute.
While abnormal bruising can also be a symptom of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), the child’s history and clinical features are more consistent with ITP. ALL typically presents with malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, none of which are present in this case.
Other conditions that can cause purpura include haemolytic uraemic syndrome, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and meningococcal septicaemia. However, these conditions have distinct symptoms and presentations that differ from ITP.
In summary, immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura is a common cause of low platelets in children, typically occurring after a viral infection. While it can cause purpura and bruising, it is usually self-limiting and acute. Other conditions that can cause purpura have distinct symptoms and presentations that differ from ITP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a week-long history of fever, malaise, sore throat, and swollen glands. During the examination, you observe that he is pale, has a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, and a temperature of 38ºC. You notice redness and inflammation in his throat, with bilateral tonsillar enlargement, tender palpable cervical lymphadenopathy, and no exudate. You suspect glandular fever and order a Monospot test and full blood count. What results in the full blood count would indicate the presence of glandular fever?
Your Answer: Lymphocytosis
Explanation:Elevated levels of eosinophils or neutrophils can indicate different conditions. Eosinophilia, which is an increase in eosinophils, can be a sign of parasitic infection, an allergic reaction, or a reaction to certain medications. On the other hand, neutrophilia, which is an increase in neutrophils, can indicate acute inflammation or a bacterial infection.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue and weakness:
Hb 110 g/L (130-180)
RBC 3.8 ×1012/L (4.5-5.5)
Haematocrit 0.35 (0.40-0.52)
MCV 92 fL (80-100)
MCH 30 pg (27-32)
Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-450)
WBC 4.5 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 2.5 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
Lymphocytes 1.5 ×109/L (1.0-4.0)
Monocytes 0.3 ×109/L (0.2-1.0)
Eosinophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.4)
Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.1)
He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband has been feeling very tired and weak lately. Examination reveals no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient
This patient is exhibiting signs of a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture, except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. Macrocytosis caused by folate or B12 deficiency would typically result in anemia alongside the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss contradicts this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a red and sticky right eye that started yesterday. She mentions experiencing mild discomfort but is generally feeling fine. Upon examination, you observe swollen conjunctiva with redness in the eyelid and yellow-green discharge. Her visual acuity is normal. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking paracetamol, codeine, methotrexate, and folic acid. You suspect that she has bacterial conjunctivitis.
Which of the following topical eye drops should be avoided in this scenario?Your Answer: Gentamicin
Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol
Explanation:Patients who are taking bone marrow suppression drugs, particularly methotrexate, should not use chloramphenicol eye drops.
Chloramphenicol is the appropriate choice, as it can exacerbate the effects of methotrexate on bone marrow suppression.
Cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, gentamicin, and levofloxacin are not associated with bone marrow suppression.
Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.
The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 14-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and the extensor surface of his lower limbs. He has dipstick haematuria.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Understanding Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: A Vasculitic Disorder
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a vasculitic disorder that is characterized by the presence of purpura and dipstick haematuria. Unlike other conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia, HSP doesn’t affect platelet count. The condition typically presents with an erythematous macular rash that evolves into purpura, and is most commonly seen in children aged 4-6 years. Joint and abdominal pain may also be present, along with gastrointestinal bleeding. Renal involvement is seen in about 40% of cases, but end-stage renal disease is rare. HSP is usually self-limiting.
Other conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia, haemophilia A, leukaemia, and thalassaemia trait may present with similar symptoms, but can be ruled out based on the specific features of each condition. Understanding the unique characteristics of HSP is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease becomes more breathless and looks anaemic.
Test Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 130-170 g/l
Reticulocyte count 0.85% 0.5%-1.5%
Mean cell volume (MCV) 120.6 fl 82-102 fl
Vitamin B12 90.0 ng/l 130-700 ng/l
Intrinsic factor antibodies Positive
He is commenced on injections of hydroxocobalamin with blood tests to be repeated in seven days.
What is the most likely change at 1 week which would suggest that the patient is responding to treatment?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12 level increases
Correct Answer: A rise in the reticulocyte count
Explanation:Monitoring Response to Vitamin B12 Treatment in Pernicious Anaemia
Pernicious anaemia is a condition caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which can lead to a range of symptoms including fatigue, weakness, and neurological problems. Treatment involves intramuscular injections of hydroxocobalamin, with the frequency and duration of treatment depending on the severity of the deficiency.
To monitor the response to treatment, several indicators can be measured. A rise in the reticulocyte count and haemoglobin level within 7-10 days indicates a positive effect. The mean cell volume (MCV) may initially increase due to the increased reticulocyte count, but should return to normal within 25-78 days. Intrinsic factor antibodies may remain present despite treatment. Measuring cobalamin levels is not always necessary, but can be done 1-2 months after starting treatment if there is no response.
Overall, monitoring these indicators can help confirm a diagnosis of pernicious anaemia and ensure that treatment is effective in addressing the deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is undergoing treatment for ulcerative colitis and experiences pancytopenia. What is the probable reason for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Drugs and Pancytopenia in Ulcerative Colitis: Understanding the Risks
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for the condition, various drugs can help manage symptoms and induce remission. However, some of these drugs can also cause bone marrow suppression, leading to a condition called pancytopenia.
Azathioprine, methotrexate, ciclosporin, infliximab, and mesalazine are some of the drugs commonly used in ulcerative colitis that can cause bone marrow suppression. Patients taking these drugs should be monitored regularly for symptoms of bleeding or infection, and blood counts should be undertaken.
Anti-diarrhoeal drugs like codeine phosphate, co-phenotrope, and loperamide may help control symptoms, but they do not cause pancytopenia. Mebeverine may provide symptomatic relief from colic, but it doesn’t cause pancytopenia either.
While metronidazole may be helpful in people with Crohn’s disease, it is generally not considered useful for those with ulcerative colitis. Pancytopenia has been reported with metronidazole. Prednisolone, on the other hand, can be used to induce remission in ulcerative colitis without causing pancytopenia.
It is essential to note that other drugs, such as chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, septrin, gold, penicillamine, indometacin, diclofenac, naproxen, piroxicam, phenytoin, carbamazepine, carbimazole, thiouracil, dosulepin, phenothiazines, chlorpropamide, and chloroquine, have also been reported to cause pancytopenia. Therefore, patients with ulcerative colitis should be aware of the risks associated with these drugs and report any symptoms immediately to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia?
Your Answer: Abciximab
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia
Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl was admitted to hospital the previous day following a 3-day history of a diarrhoeal illness, which had then developed into bloody diarrhoea. The mother telephones the clinic to say she is very ill and has developed blood spots in the skin and had nosebleeds. She says they are also worried about her kidneys.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: von Willebrand disease
Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Explanation:Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Guide for General Practitioners
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a serious condition that can occur in response to another illness or trauma. In DIC, the coagulation mechanism is activated inappropriately and in a diffuse way, leading to thrombosis or, more commonly, haemorrhage due to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. DIC is often fatal and associated with organ failure, with bleeding from at least three unrelated sites being typical in the acute form.
DIC can be triggered by a variety of factors, including infections such as gastroenteritis (e.g. Escherichia coli O157), malignancy (especially leukaemia), and septicaemia (e.g. meningococcal septicaemia). While bleeding is a feature in two-thirds of cases, renal involvement occurs in a quarter of cases, and limb ischaemia can lead to loss of digits or limbs.
As a general practitioner, it is important to have some knowledge of DIC to respond to any questions that may arise. When presented with a patient with severe and widespread bleeding with kidney injury, DIC is more likely to be the cause than other conditions such as acute leukaemia, haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, or meningococcal septicaemia.
By understanding DIC and its potential triggers and symptoms, general practitioners can better support their patients and provide appropriate referrals for further treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old lady with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis is seen with anaemia.
She originally presented three to four months ago with arthralgia affecting her hands and feet and was referred to secondary care for disease management.
She has recently been started on methotrexate once weekly to try and control her symptoms. She also continues to take oral steroids which are being tapered off since the initiation of DMARD therapy. Her current prednisolone dose is 5 mg daily. Her other medications consist of folic acid 5 mg weekly and PRN ibuprofen 400 mg.
She had a full blood count performed recently which revealed:
Haemoglobin 98 g/L (115-155)
MCV 74.4 fL (76-96)
Red cell count 4.2 ×1012/L -
Further tests were then arranged which revealed:
Ferritin 22 μg/L (15-300)
Which of the following tests is most useful in identifying the underlying cause of this patient's anaemia?Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Correct Answer: Serum iron and total iron binding capacity measurement
Explanation:Diagnosis of Microcytic Anaemia in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis
In a patient with rheumatoid arthritis presenting with microcytic anaemia, the possibility of anaemia of chronic disease should be considered. However, further tests should be done as a reversible or treatable factor may be found. B12 deficiency and haemolytic anaemia can be ruled out as they cause elevated MCV measurements. Microcytic anaemia should prompt consideration of iron deficiency, and thalassaemia trait should also be borne in mind if indicated clinically. Iron/TIBC measurement is the most likely test to diagnose microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency. However, the normal ferritin should be interpreted with caution as it may be elevated due to underlying inflammation or infection. In this case, iron/total iron binding capacity may be more useful markers of iron deficiency. It is also worth mentioning that DMARDs such as methotrexate can cause anaemia, but this is typically macrocytic and not the case in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Correct
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A teenager is noticed to have palpable purpura on the elbows.
Which one of the following is most compatible with a diagnosis of Henoch-Schönlein syndrome?Your Answer: Petechiae
Explanation:Clinical Manifestations of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura
Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) is a type of vasculitis that affects small blood vessels in the body. Its clinical manifestations include subcutaneous oedema of the feet, hands, scalp, and ears, as well as scrotal oedema. Pitting oedema up to the knees may indicate cardiac failure or nephrotic syndrome. Gastrointestinal bleeding may lead to bloody stools, while haematuria and proteinuria may occur. Abdominal pain, intussusception, and arthritis are also common features. Petechiae, purpura, and papules are commonly present in the thighs and buttocks. Notably, thrombocytopenia, haemolysis, and splenomegaly are absent, and clotting is normal. Understanding the clinical manifestations of HSP is crucial for its timely diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with excessive bleeding during a routine dental extraction. Upon examination, petechial skin haemorrhages are observed. Blood tests reveal:
- Hb: 12.3 g/dl
- Plt: 255 * 109/l
- WBC: 7.9 * 109/l
- PT: 13.3 secs
- APTT: 39 secs
- Factor VIII activity: 87%
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemophilia A
Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease
Explanation:Von Willebrand’s disease is the most probable diagnosis due to the presence of a petechial skin rash, along with a slightly increased APTT and decreased factor VIII activity.
Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease
Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.
The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Correct
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A woman with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia underwent splenectomy because she did not respond to immunosuppression and chemotherapy.
What is the most likely long-term risk factor after splenectomy?Your Answer: Infections
Explanation:The Risks and Benefits of Splenectomy
Splenectomy, or the surgical removal of the spleen, is a common procedure for various medical conditions. However, it is not without risks. One of the most significant risks is overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), which can be fatal. Patients who have had a splenectomy are at a lifetime risk of 5% for OPSI, with the most common causative organism being the pneumococcus. Therefore, it is crucial for these patients to receive vaccinations and prophylactic antibiotics.
While splenectomy is not typically performed for cancer or liver fibrosis, it may be beneficial for certain haematological disorders such as autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and hereditary spherocytosis. In rare cases, splenectomy may also be indicated for patients with Hodgkin’s disease who are refractory to medical therapy.
Overall, the decision to undergo splenectomy should be carefully considered, weighing the potential benefits against the risks. Close monitoring and appropriate preventative measures should be taken to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness of breath, and purulent sputum for the past week. He has a medical history of G6PD deficiency, COPD, and gallstones. The lab report shows that his sputum sample is positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. What class of medications could potentially cause a severe adverse reaction in this patient?
Your Answer: Macrolides
Correct Answer: Sulpha-containing drugs
Explanation:Sulphur-containing drugs such as sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, and sulfonylureas can cause haemolysis in individuals with G6PD deficiency. On the other hand, penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, and tetracyclines are considered safe for use in individuals with G6PD deficiency.
Understanding G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.
Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Correct
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John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert has recently been diagnosed with hereditary haemochromatosis. He is concerned that he might also have the condition and wants to undergo a blood test to confirm.
Initially, you order an iron study profile that includes ferritin, transferrin saturation, and total iron binding capacity (TIBC).
Which of the following blood test outcomes is most probable to suggest that John has the same ailment as Robert?Your Answer: Raised transferrin saturation, raised ferritin, low TIBC
Explanation:To diagnose haemochromatosis, it is important to assess the patient’s risk factors and perform tests to determine their susceptibility. This includes evaluating their family history, age, and gender. Additionally, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be measured, and HFE mutation analysis may be recommended after genetic counselling.
In haemochromatosis, transferrin saturation and ferritin levels are typically elevated, while TIBC is low. Serum ferritin is a highly sensitive test for iron overload in this condition, and normal levels essentially rule out iron overload. However, it has low specificity, as elevated levels can also be caused by other conditions such as diabetes, alcohol consumption, and liver damage.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl from a Turkish family is brought to the local paediatric unit by her GP due to recurrent fatigue and paleness. The parents report no other symptoms such as fever, pain, or poor appetite. She had received treatment with a course of amoxicillin for a throat infection three weeks ago. Upon admission, her blood tests reveal:
Hb 5.5 g/dl
WBC 11.2 *109/l
Platelets 320 *109/l
Reticulocytes 4%
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Explanation:Patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency may experience haemolysis as a result of taking ciprofloxacin.
Understanding G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.
Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits the Practice Nurse for his international normalised ratio (INR) test. He is anticoagulated for atrial fibrillation and his INR has historically been unstable (recommended range 2–3). His last INR, 14 days ago, was 2.5. He is taking 4 mg of warfarin daily. The point-of-care INR reads 5.8. He has no active bleeding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Reduce warfarin dose to 3 mg daily and repeat in seven days
Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin for 48 hours, then restart at 4 mg daily
Explanation:Managing High INR Levels in Patients on Warfarin: Choosing the Right Course of Action
When a patient on warfarin presents with a high international normalised ratio (INR), prompt management is crucial to prevent haemorrhage. The appropriate course of action depends on the severity of the INR elevation and whether the patient is bleeding.
If the patient has no active bleeding and their INR is between 5-8, warfarin should be withheld for 24-48 hours and restarted at a reduced dose. The INR should be rechecked 2-3 days later, and the cause investigated.
If the patient is bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous vitamin K administered. It can be restarted once the INR is below 5.
For an INR greater than 8 in a patient with no bleeding, the correct management is to stop warfarin, give vitamin K orally, and repeat the INR in 24 hours.
Dose reduction alone is not sufficient for an INR greater than 5, and warfarin should also be withheld for 1-2 days, with rechecking sooner (3-4 days).
While a confirmatory laboratory sample may be reasonable, it should not delay action being taken. Point-of-care testing is comparable in accuracy to laboratory samples, and management should reflect this.
In summary, managing high INR levels in patients on warfarin requires careful consideration of the severity of the INR elevation and whether the patient is bleeding. Prompt action and appropriate monitoring can prevent haemorrhage and ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What advice would you give to the travel companion of a patient who has been diagnosed and treated for malaria?
Your Answer: A negative malaria antigen test can rule out malaria
Correct Answer: Travellers visiting friends and family are more at risk of malaria than tourists
Explanation:Malaria Risk and Prevention
Travellers visiting friends and family are at a higher risk of contracting malaria compared to tourists due to their likelihood of visiting rural areas. To accurately diagnose malaria, repeat blood films should be taken after 12-24 hours and again at 24 hours. The gold standard for diagnosis is the thick and thin blood films, while the antigen test is less sensitive. It is important to note that even with full adherence to prophylaxis, it is still possible to develop malaria. While most cases of P.falciparum present within 6 months of exposure, infection with other species can present months or even years after exposure due to reactivation of the dormant liver stage. By taking preventative measures and seeking prompt medical attention, the risk of contracting and spreading malaria can be greatly reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with a sore throat. She visits her general practitioner who conducts a full blood count and finds the following results:
Haemoglobin
125 g/l (normal 115–155 g/l)
White blood cell count (WCC)
19 × 109/l (normal 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
Neutrophil
14 × 109/l (normal 2.5–7.5 × 109/l)
Platelets
498 × 109/l (normal 150–400 × 109/l)
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Acute bacterial infection
Explanation:Understanding Neutrophilia: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Neutrophilia, an increase in absolute neutrophil count, can be acute or chronic and is often seen as an accompanying feature of various medical conditions. Acute bacterial infections, inflammatory response to shock, gout, vasculitis, and malignancies are some of the common causes of neutrophilia. Additionally, certain drugs, activities, pregnancy, myeloproliferative states, and splenectomy can also increase the neutrophil count.
However, it is important to note that neutrophilia alone cannot provide a definitive diagnosis. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and other laboratory tests is necessary to determine the underlying cause. For instance, in the case of a sore throat, acute bacterial infection is a likely cause of neutrophilia.
On the other hand, conditions such as cytomegalovirus infection, chronic myeloid leukaemia, pregnancy, and tuberculosis are unlikely to cause neutrophilia as a primary symptom. Instead, they may present with other characteristic features such as atypical lymphocytosis, raised WCC with granulocytes, elevated IgM antibodies, or normocytic anaemia and lymphopenia.
In summary, understanding the various causes and differential diagnosis of neutrophilia is crucial in providing accurate and timely medical care to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman complains of heavy menstrual bleeding and a constant sore throat. Upon examination, she is found to have pancytopenia. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Causes of Pancytopenia Due to Drug Intake
Pancytopenia is a medical condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the blood. It can be caused by various factors, including drug intake. Some drugs can lead to pancytopenia by suppressing the bone marrow’s ability to produce blood cells.
Cytotoxic drugs, antibiotics such as trimethoprim and chloramphenicol, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like gold and penicillamine are some of the drugs that can cause pancytopenia. Carbimazole, an anti-thyroid drug, can also lead to this condition. Additionally, anti-epileptic drugs like carbamazepine and sulphonylureas such as tolbutamide have been known to cause pancytopenia.
It is important to monitor blood counts regularly when taking these drugs to detect any potential side effects. If pancytopenia is suspected, the drug should be discontinued immediately, and appropriate treatment should be initiated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman from Kenya informs you that she has been diagnosed with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. She underwent testing due to a family history of the condition.
What is the most probable characteristic that this patient possesses? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: History of neonatal jaundice
Correct Answer: No symptoms at all
Explanation:Understanding G6PD Deficiency: Symptoms and Characteristics
G6PD deficiency is a common enzyme-deficiency disease that affects 400 million people worldwide. It is inherited as an X-linked disorder and has more than 300 reported variants. The disease protects against malaria, which may explain its high gene frequency. The enzyme is crucial in red blood cell metabolism, and G6PD enzyme activity is the definitive test for diagnosis.
Most individuals with G6PD deficiency are asymptomatic, but symptomatic patients are almost exclusively male due to the X-linked pattern of inheritance. Female carriers may also be affected, as inactivation of an X chromosome in certain cells creates a population of G6PD-deficient red blood cells co-existing with normal red cells.
While neonatal jaundice is not a symptom of G6PD deficiency, it may occur in some cases. It usually appears within 24 hours of birth and may require exchange transfusions. Abdominal pain is not a typical symptom, but back pain, abdominal pain, and jaundice may occur during a haemolytic crisis. Gallstones are more common in individuals with G6PD deficiency, and splenomegaly may be present in severe cases of haemolysis.
Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of G6PD deficiency is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A teenager with enlarged lymph nodes is a common situation faced by doctors. Which of the following descriptions of palpable lymph nodes is most suggestive of the cause being a simple adolescent viral infection?
Your Answer: Generalised lymphadenopathy
Correct Answer: Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes
Explanation:Understanding Lymphadenopathy in Children: Characteristics to Look Out For
Lymphadenopathy is a common condition in children, often caused by viral infections. However, it is important to be aware of certain characteristics that may indicate more serious underlying pathology.
Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes are typical of hyperplastic lymph nodes in response to viral infections. Generalised lymphadenopathy, on the other hand, should raise concern for significant pathology such as haematological malignancies or HIV.
While lymph nodes up to 1.5 cm in the inguinal region and 2 cm in the cervical region are often normal in children, lymphadenopathy larger than this increases the risk of malignancy.
Localised unilateral lymphadenopathy is usually caused by local infections and is associated with painful, tender lymph nodes. In contrast, lymphadenopathy associated with malignancy is typically firm or rubbery, discrete, non-tender, and fixed to the skin or underlying structures.
By understanding these characteristics, healthcare professionals can better identify and manage lymphadenopathy in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a routine medical check-up. He is in good health but has a history of sickle cell disease. According to his immunisation record, he received the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine five years ago.
What is the recommended frequency for administering this vaccine to him?Your Answer: Every 5 years
Explanation:Individuals with sickle cell disease should be administered the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years to prevent pneumococcal infections, as they are at a heightened risk due to the hypofunction of their spleen caused by recurrent splenic infarction. Children should receive their first vaccine at 2 years of age, followed by subsequent doses every 5 years.
Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.
In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 35
Correct
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What is the correct statement regarding folic acid deficiency?
Your Answer: It is responsible for neural tube defect in the fetus
Explanation:Understanding Folic Acid Deficiency and Supplementation
Folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in fetal development and overall health. Inadequate intake of folic acid can lead to various health problems, including neural tube defects in the fetus. Pregnant women are particularly at risk and are advised to take folic acid supplements to meet their increased requirements.
Contrary to popular belief, intestinal bacterial overgrowth is not a common cause of folic acid deficiency. Instead, reduced intake is the primary cause, and deficiency can develop rapidly within four months in people with an inadequate diet. It is important to note that folic acid deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia, but it doesn’t typically result in neurological symptoms like vitamin B12 deficiency.
Methotrexate, a drug used to treat various conditions, can impair folate utilization and cause megaloblastic anemia. Concomitant folic acid supplementation can reduce the overall toxicity of the drug without affecting its efficacy. However, it is recommended to avoid taking folic acid on the same day as methotrexate to prevent adverse effects on absorption.
In summary, understanding folic acid deficiency and supplementation is crucial for maintaining overall health, especially during pregnancy and when taking certain medications. Adequate intake of folic acid can prevent various health problems and improve overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What is the least probable reason for this finding?
Your Answer: Hypernephroma
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 25-year-old male student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. He is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 70 kg. He spent the summer doing voluntary work in Ghana and returned three months ago. He also had his ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on his left arm three years ago. He is not acceptable as a donor.
What is the reason for his rejection for blood donation in the United Kingdom?Your Answer: Travel to an endemic malaria area
Explanation:Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria
To ensure the safety of blood transfusions, there are certain eligibility criteria that potential donors must meet. Here are some corrections to common misconceptions:
Travel to an endemic malaria area: Donors must wait six months after traveling to an endemic malaria area before donating blood. If they fell ill abroad or were resident for more than six months in Sub-Saharan Africa, they must wait even longer.
Age: Donors must be between 17 and 66 years old (up to 70 if they have given blood before). If they are over 70 years old, they need to have given blood in the last two years to continue donating.
Body piercing and tattoo: Donors are deferred if they have had body piercing or a tattoo in the previous four months.
Underweight: Donors should weigh at least 50 kg. For other contraindications, please refer to the provided link.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 38
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents with tiredness and increasing back pain over the last few months. A routine blood test shows he is anaemic with a haemoglobin of 98 g/L (130-180). He has also lost half a stone in weight over the past two months. Further blood tests reveal a deterioration in his renal function, with his eGFR dropping from 86 to 59 ml/min. His ESR is elevated at 74 mm/hr and his corrected calcium is 2.8 mmol/L (2.2-2.6). All other blood tests are normal and on examination, he appears systemically well with no signs of spinal cord compression, lymphadenopathy or organomegaly. What is the most appropriate next step in determining a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Send a urine sample for Bence Jones protein
Explanation:Suspected Myeloma Diagnosis
This patient is presenting with common symptoms of myeloma, including back pain and malaise. However, the early constitutional symptoms can be vague, making it an easy diagnosis to overlook. Further examination reveals anemia, renal impairment, and elevated ESR and calcium levels, all of which point towards myeloma. Despite normal serum protein electrophoresis, it is important to note that one-third of myeloma patients have positive urine Bence Jones protein. Therefore, the next step in establishing a diagnosis is to test the patient’s urine for Bence Jones protein. According to NICE guidelines, protein electrophoresis and a Bence-Jones protein urine test should be considered urgently within 48 hours if the presentation is consistent with possible myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 39
Correct
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What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment?
Your Answer: Patients with minor bleeding and an INR greater than 8 should receive vitamin K1
Explanation:Understanding Warfarin Therapy: Inhibiting Vitamin K Dependent Factors and Managing Bleeding
Warfarin is a medication that competitively inhibits the carboxylation of vitamin K dependent factors, including factor II, VII, IX, X, and protein C. Its half-life is approximately 44 hours, and while it is present in breast milk, the amount is too small to have any clinical significance. Unlike heparin therapy, warfarin is less likely to cause autoimmune thrombocytopenia and osteoporosis as side-effects.
However, it is important to monitor patients on warfarin therapy for major bleeding and an international normalized ratio (INR) greater than 8, with or without bleeding. In such cases, warfarin should be stopped and phytomenadione, a form of vitamin K, should be administered either intravenously or orally. The dose may be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR falls below 5. If the INR is between 6-8 with no bleeding, warfarin can be temporarily stopped without the need for phytomenadione.
In cases of major bleeding, dried prothrombin complex may also be necessary to replace factors II, VII, IX, and X. Understanding the mechanisms of warfarin therapy and proper management of bleeding can help ensure the safety and efficacy of this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath. She appears to be anaemic and the following blood test results are significant:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin 68 g/l 115-155 g/l
White cell count 2.6 x 109/l 4.0-11.0 x 109/l
Platelets 160 x 109/l 150-400 x 109/l
Reticulocyte count 0.75% 0.5%-1.5%
Mean corpuscular volume 135 fl 76-98 fl
Ferritin 110 μg/l 10-120 μg/l
What is the most probable cause of her anaemia?Your Answer: Excessive alcohol intake
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Macrocytosis and its Differential Diagnosis
Macrocytosis is a condition characterized by the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream. While there are several possible causes of macrocytosis, one of the most common is vitamin B12 deficiency. This deficiency can lead to anaemia and macrocytosis, with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 130 femtolitres or more being a strong indicator of B12 deficiency.
Other potential causes of macrocytosis include drug-induced effects, excessive alcohol intake, and human immunodeficiency virus infection. However, these conditions may not necessarily lead to anaemia unless poor nutrition is also a factor.
Myelodysplasia and aplastic anaemia are also in the differential diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency, but the MCV level can help differentiate between these conditions. If the MCV is between 100-110 femtolitres, other causes of macrocytosis should be considered.
Overall, understanding the potential causes of macrocytosis and their differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man from Iraq is diagnosed with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. What is the safe antibiotic that can be prescribed to him?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Drugs to Avoid in G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a genetic disorder that affects the red blood cells and can lead to haemolytic anaemia. Certain drugs and substances can trigger a haemolytic crisis in individuals with G6PD deficiency. Here are some drugs that should be avoided:
1. Quinolones: Ciprofloxacin, moxifloxacin, nalidixic acid, norfloxacin, and ofloxacin.
2. Sulphonamides: Co-trimoxazole (sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim).
3. Nitrofurantoin.
4. Antimalarials: Chloroquine, primaquine, and quinine.
5. Chloramphenicol.
6. Isoniazid.
7. Dapsone.
8. Sulphonylureas such as glibenclamide.
9. Vitamin K analogues.
10. Aspirin (a dose up to 1 g daily is usually harmless) and paracetamol.
11. Probenecid.
12. Ascorbic acid.
13. Isosorbide dinitrate.
It is also important to avoid fava beans, severe infections, diabetic ketoacidosis, and acute kidney injury as they can also trigger a haemolytic crisis. However, co-amoxiclav is not known to precipitate haemolysis. G6PD deficiency was first discovered during an investigation of haemolytic anaemia occurring in some individuals treated for malaria with primaquine. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication if you have G6PD deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with restless legs syndrome. What blood test is most pertinent to conduct?
Your Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:When it comes to diagnosing restless legs syndrome, there are several blood tests that could be considered. However, out of all of them, the most crucial one is the ferritin test. This is because a low level of ferritin in the blood is often the primary cause of secondary restless legs syndrome.
Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).
There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.
Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 43
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy is being examined after experiencing excessive bleeding post a tooth extraction. The test results are as follows:
Platelet count: 173 * 109/l
Prothrombin time (PT): 12.9 seconds
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 84 seconds
Based on these results, which clotting factor deficiency is the most probable cause of his bleeding?Your Answer: Factor VIII
Explanation:Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.
The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.
Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his mother due to concerns about his recent behavior. The mother has noticed that he appears paler than usual and has been experiencing increased fatigue over the past few weeks, despite maintaining his regular routine. Additionally, he has been experiencing multiple colds and coughs over the past month, which is unusual for him. Upon examination, the boy's vital signs are all within normal range, and some pallor is noted, but no other abnormalities are observed. What would be the next step in investigating this patient's condition?
Your Answer: FBC to be performed within 48 hours
Explanation:An urgent full blood count is required to evaluate for leukaemia in children and young adults (0-24 years) who exhibit symptoms suggestive of the disease. These symptoms may include persistent fatigue, unexplained infections, and pallor. The primary concern is to rule out leukaemia, and a full blood count should be conducted within 48 hours. While a lymph node biopsy and bone marrow biopsy may be necessary in the future, they are not currently required.
Identifying Haematological Malignancy in Young People
Young people aged 0-24 years who exhibit any of the following symptoms should undergo a full blood count within 48 hours to investigate for leukaemia: pallor, persistent fatigue, unexplained fever, unexplained persistent infections, generalised lymphadenopathy, persistent or unexplained bone pain, unexplained bruising, and unexplained bleeding. These symptoms may indicate the presence of haematological malignancy, which requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify these symptoms early to ensure timely treatment and improve outcomes for young people with suspected haematological malignancy. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in recognising these symptoms and referring patients for urgent investigation. Proper management of haematological malignancy in young people can significantly improve their quality of life and long-term prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents with increasing fatigue. He reports feeling tired for the past few months without any specific symptoms. The following blood tests are ordered:
Hemoglobin: 12.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 84 fL
Platelets: 230 * 10^9/L
White blood cells (WBC): 6.2 * 10^9/L
Iron studies: Normal
Vitamin B12/folate: Normal
C-reactive protein (CRP): 5 mg/L
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 2.5 mIU/L
According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Offer a Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Explanation:If patients exhibit new symptoms of colorectal cancer but do not meet the 2-week criteria, NICE recommends conducting the FIT test, regardless of whether or not they have iron deficiency.
Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.
The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 46
Correct
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A 55-year-old man of Mediterranean descent presented to his GP with complaints of increased fatigue, jaundice, and abdominal discomfort. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, hyperlipidaemia, and glucose-6-phosphate deficiency. The patient takes lansoprazole, ramipril, metformin, simvastatin, and glimepiride regularly and drinks about 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, the patient had mild scleral icterus, splenomegaly, and mild abdominal tenderness in the left upper quadrant. His recent blood results showed low Hb levels, normal platelets and WBC count, high bilirubin, ALP, and γGT levels, and low albumin levels. The blood film showed bite cells and blister cells. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Glimepiride
Explanation:Glimepiride, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes and belonging to the sulphonylurea class, can trigger haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency. This can be indicated by mild anaemia, elevated bilirubin levels, and the presence of bite cells and blister cells on a blood film, suggesting haemolytic anaemia. Simvastatin, on the other hand, can induce hepatitis and cause jaundice, but this is unlikely if alanine transaminase and alkaline phosphatase levels are normal. Metformin, ramipril, and lansoprazole are not associated with haemolytic anaemia.
Understanding G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.
Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 47
Correct
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Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who is currently undergoing treatment for metastatic breast cancer. She is receiving neo-adjuvant chemotherapy before a surgical resection. Her most recent chemotherapy was 5 days ago. Samantha visits your GP clinic complaining of fatigue and muscle pain. She reports no cough, dysuria, or skin rashes. During her visit, her vital signs are as follows: temperature of 38.3 degrees Celsius, blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg, and a heart rate of 110 bpm. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Urgent admission to hospital
Explanation:An urgent admission is necessary for Lucy due to her high risk of developing neutropenic sepsis, particularly after undergoing chemotherapy within the described time frame. Her observational parameters, including a temperature above 38 degrees celsius and a pulse of 110 bpm, are concerning and suggest the onset of sepsis. According to the NICE guidelines (2012), patients taking anticancer therapy who are suspected of having sepsis should be promptly assessed in a hospital. As the main concern in Lucy’s case is neutropenic sepsis, the other options for her management would not be appropriate.
Understanding Neutropenic Sepsis in Cancer Patients
Neutropenic sepsis is a common complication that arises from cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs of clinically significant sepsis. To prevent this condition, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 should be offered a fluoroquinolone.
Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial in managing neutropenic sepsis. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) without waiting for the WBC. While some units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE doesn’t support this approach. After the initial treatment, patients are assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they can receive outpatient treatment. If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) instead of blindly starting antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 48
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has been referred to the hospital with several asymmetrically distributed patches of what was thought to be eczema on the buttocks and trunk. However, there was only minimal improvement with potent topical corticosteroids. The diagnosis after a biopsy is mycosis fungoides.
Which of the following best describes mycosis fungoides?Your Answer: Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
Explanation:Understanding Mycosis Fungoides: A Type of Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma
Mycosis fungoides, also known as cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, is a type of lymphoma that primarily affects the skin. It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma and typically presents with eczematous or dermatitis skin lesions that can persist for years before a diagnosis is confirmed.
This disease is more common in men and black people, with a median age of onset around 50 years. The lymphoma first appears as superficial skin lesions that thicken and eventually ulcerate. In advanced stages, it can involve lymph nodes and other organs.
Patients with stage IA disease who undergo treatment have a normal life expectancy. However, the median survival is 11 years for patients with more extensive patch and/or plaque (stage IB or IIA) and less for those with advanced disease.
It is important to note that mycosis fungoides is not a fungal infection, despite its misleading name. It is also distinct from cutaneous B-cell lymphoma, which has a different growth pattern and presentation.
Overall, understanding mycosis fungoides is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment of this type of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. He is being treated with radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
What is the most important factor influencing this patient's prognosis?Your Answer: Response to treatment
Explanation:Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be cured in the majority of patients, especially those who respond well to treatment. A prompt and complete response to chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy is the most important factor in predicting a patient’s prognosis. Residual masses may not always indicate persisting disease, as fibrosis can persist after effective therapy. Patients who relapse after initial successful treatment can sometimes be treated with further chemotherapy, stem cell transplantation, and/or radiotherapy. The duration of initial remission is a factor in the success of retreatment. Bulky disease, a high ESR, male gender, and stage IV disease are associated with a poorer prognosis. Other adverse prognostic factors include age ≥ 45 years, low haemoglobin, low lymphocyte count, low albumin, high WCC, mixed-cellularity or lymphocyte-depleted histology, and B symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 50
Correct
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Hb 105 g/L (130-180)
RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52)
MCV 75 fL (80-96)
MCH 32.5 pg (28-32)
Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400)
WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0)
Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Others 0.14 ×109/L -
Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate initial investigation for the above full blood count (FBC) result in a 60-year-old patient?Your Answer: Ferritin concentration
Explanation:Interpretation of FBC Results
When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), it is important to consider all the parameters to determine the underlying cause of any abnormalities. In this case, the FBC shows microcytosis, which is a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV), and anaemia, indicated by low hemoglobin levels. These findings are typical of iron deficiency anaemia.
To confirm iron deficiency, a ferritin test should be requested. If the test confirms iron deficiency, the next step is to identify the source of blood loss. If the faecal occult blood test is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary.
It is important to note that folate and B12 deficiencies cause macrocytic anaemia, which is characterized by elevated MCV. Hypothyroidism is also associated with elevated MCV. However, in this case, the low MCV indicates iron deficiency anaemia.
While a bone marrow biopsy can confirm iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary at this stage, particularly in a primary care setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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