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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents with a complaint of a sore throat. What is not included in the Centor criteria for evaluating the probability of a bacterial origin?
Your Answer: Duration > 5 days
Explanation:In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of dysphagia. He believes it has been present for around 18 months, but it is getting worse. He also reports experiencing chest discomfort, coughing at night, and waking up with undigested food on his pillow in the morning.
During the examination, his throat, neck, chest, and abdomen appear normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Barrett’s oesophagus
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of achalasia, which is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax, leading to a functional stricture. This can cause substernal cramps, regurgitation, and pulmonary aspiration due to the retention of food and saliva in the oesophagus, resulting in a nocturnal cough. Diagnosis is made using a barium swallow, and treatment involves endoscopic balloon dilation or cardiomyotomy. Barrett’s oesophagus, motor neurone disease, oesophageal carcinoma, and pharyngeal pouch are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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You are evaluating a recent research on the advantages of omega-3 fish oils in individuals with confirmed ischemic heart disease. What is the significance of the study's power?
Your Answer: #NAME?
Explanation:The probability of a type II error is subtracted from 1 to obtain the power.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of feeling constantly fatigued for the past 3 months. She has a history of intravenous drug use and routine testing reveals abnormal liver enzyme tests, including a significant increase in alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Although she is not jaundiced, the GP suspects that she may be suffering from acute hepatitis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be positive in this patient if this suspicion is correct?
Your Answer: Hepatitis C antibody
Explanation:Diagnosing Hepatitis C: Understanding the Clinical Features and Testing Methods
Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that often goes undetected due to the lack of specific symptoms. Fatigue, a common symptom, is not enough to suspect hepatitis C unless other risk factors are present. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate HCV, but a positive serology test is needed to confirm the diagnosis. This test is usually positive three months after exposure, but may take up to nine months. HCV RNA testing is used to confirm ongoing infection, and negative results should be repeated after six months. Chronic infection is common in HCV, affecting about 80% of those infected.
Other viral infections, such as hepatitis B and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), may also cause liver abnormalities. Jaundice is more common in hepatitis B, while EBV typically causes mild elevation of serum transaminases. Testing for IgM and IgG antibodies can help diagnose acute or past infections. Enzyme levels, such as alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase, may also be used to differentiate between viral infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A couple visits your clinic after their first child passed away suddenly at the age of ten months with no prior warning. The child had been a little fussy and had lost appetite the night before. The post mortem did not reveal any significant findings. What guidance would you offer the couple regarding the risks to their future offspring?
Your Answer: Multiple birth children are at the lowest risk of SIDS
Correct Answer: Low birth weight may be associated with increased risk of SIDS
Explanation:Understanding SIDS Risk Factors
Thankfully, Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is a rare occurrence, but there is still some debate about its epidemiology. However, certain risk factors have been identified, including smoking in the house, low birth weight, and being a sibling from a multiple birth pregnancy. Prone sleeping is also considered a risk factor, although some countries with high rates of prone sleeping, such as Sweden, have a low incidence of SIDS. It is important to note that the death of a sibling increases the risk of SIDS for future children, which can lead to multiple deaths in some households being mistaken for non-accidental injury. By understanding these risk factors, parents and caregivers can take steps to reduce the risk of SIDS and keep their infants safe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner complaining of hearing loss. He served in the military and was exposed to loud noises, which he thinks is the reason for his hearing loss.
What is the accurate statement regarding noise-induced hearing loss?Your Answer: It is usually bilateral and symmetrical
Explanation:Understanding Noise-Induced Hearing Loss and Its Unique Characteristics in Shooters
Noise-induced hearing loss is a gradual and symmetrical hearing loss that typically affects both ears. However, in the case of shooters, the loss occurs in the opposite ear to where they hold their gun, as the gun side is shielded. The damage is permanent and greatest at high frequencies. Examination of the tympanic membrane is usually normal, except in cases of glue ear. Prolonged exposure to excessive noise can result in permanent damage, but the loss doesn’t progress once exposure is discontinued. Patients with occupational exposure should be referred for further evaluation, as there may be legal implications. Employers have a duty to protect employees from noise under the Control of Noise at Work Regulations 2005. Compensation may be available under the Armed Forces Compensation Scheme for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good health and reports no symptoms. His body mass index is 22 kg/m2. He takes no regular medication. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 3 units of alcohol per week. He presents to you for review of his blood tests, as shown below:
- eGFR 92 mL/min/1.73m2
- HBA1c 38 mmol/mol
- Bilirubin 12 umol/l (3 - 17 umol/l)
- Alanine transferase (ALT) 70 iu/l (3 - 40 iu/l)
- Aspartate transaminase (AST) 30 iu/l (3 - 30 iu/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 umol/l (30 - 100 umol/l)
- Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT) 55 u/l (8 - 60 u/l)
- Total protein 72 g/l (60 - 80 g/l)
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Repeat the liver function tests in 12-months
Correct Answer: Arrange a liver screen including a liver ultrasound and blood tests, and review the patient with the results
Explanation:It is common for incidental raised liver function tests to persist even after a month, and normalised liver function tests do not necessarily indicate the absence or resolution of chronic liver diseases. Standard liver screen blood tests include Antinuclear antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, serum immunoglobulins, anti-mitochondrial antibody, ferritin, transferrin saturation, and a viral hepatitis screen.
Given that the patient is currently well, there is no need for immediate hepatology review. Urgent hepatology referral within two weeks is also unnecessary as the patient is not exhibiting any concerning symptoms.
Since the patient is consuming alcohol within recommended limits, there is no need for a referral for FibroScan (transient elastography).
According to current guidelines, repeating liver function tests after an initial abnormal result is not recommended as they are unlikely to normalise unless an acute cause has been identified. Waiting for 12 months to repeat the bloods is also inappropriate.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a flame burn injury on his foot 7 years ago. The burn injury was managed with dressings and skin grafting but has never healed completely. Over the last 4 months, he has suffered from recurrent bleeding and ulceration at this site.
Upon examination, there is extensive scarring on the dorsal aspect of his foot, and there is a 35mm ulcerated area with associated tenderness.
The histopathology report confirmed the presence of malignant disease, describing the presence of keratin pearls. Imaging showed evidence of metastases.
What is the most likely type of malignancy in this case?Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
Explanation:Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin
Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that is commonly seen in individuals who have had excessive exposure to sunlight or have undergone psoralen UVA therapy. Other risk factors include actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease, immunosuppression, smoking, long-standing leg ulcers, and genetic conditions. While metastases are rare, they may occur in 2-5% of patients.
This type of cancer typically appears on sun-exposed areas such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms. The nodules are painless, rapidly expanding, and may have a cauliflower-like appearance. Bleeding may also occur in some cases.
Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma involves surgical excision with margins of 4mm for lesions less than 20 mm in diameter and 6mm for larger tumors. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites. Prognosis is generally good for well-differentiated tumors that are less than 20 mm in diameter and less than 2 mm deep. However, poorly differentiated tumors that are larger than 20 mm in diameter and deeper than 4mm, as well as those associated with immunosuppression, have a poorer prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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You see a 6-year-old girl who has not received the MMR. She has a sore throat, conjunctivitis and feels generally unwell. There is an outbreak of rubella locally and you are concerned that she may have the disease.
Which one of the following signs/findings on investigation would point you towards the diagnosis?Your Answer: Presence of Koplik's spots
Explanation:Rubella: Symptoms and Associated Conditions
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that is characterized by a tender posterior auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy. The onset of the rash is preceded by a sore throat, conjunctivitis, and eye pain on upward and lateral movement, which typically appears about three days before the rash. The rash itself is a rose pink maculopapular rash that lasts for around three to four days before beginning to fade.
It is important to note that orchitis is associated with mumps infection, while Koplik’s spots are associated with measles. Rubella, on the other hand, is characterized by the symptoms mentioned above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his GP. He is a non-smoker and has been feeling generally well. However, he has noticed that his gums have been bleeding when he brushes his teeth. He admits that he has been under a lot of stress lately and has not been brushing his teeth as regularly as he should.
Upon examination, there are no signs of ulceration or leukoplakia. The margins of his gums appear red but are not actively bleeding. There is no evidence of a dental abscess, and he has no fever.
What would be the most appropriate course of action based on his current presentation?Your Answer: Advise he should arrange routine dental review
Explanation:Patients who present with gingivitis should be advised to regularly visit a dentist for routine check-ups. Antibiotics are typically not necessary for this condition.
There is no need for urgent dental review, as there are no signs of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or oral malignancy. Benzydamine mouthwash may provide temporary pain relief, but it is not recommended for gingivitis. Chlorhexidine mouthwash may be used as an adjunct to dental review and antibiotic therapy for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
In cases of simple gingivitis, antibiotics are generally not prescribed.
Understanding Gingivitis and its Management
Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.
For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.
It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart failure?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:The Role of Digoxin in Congestive Heart Failure Treatment
Digoxin, a medication commonly used in the past for congestive heart failure, has lost its popularity due to the lack of demonstrated mortality benefit in patients with this condition. However, it has shown a reduction in hospitalizations for congestive heart failure. Therefore, it is recommended to maximize the use of other therapies such as ACE inhibitors, β blockers, and spironolactone before considering digoxin. If the ACE inhibitor cannot be tolerated, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist like candesartan can be used as an alternative. Digoxin should only be considered as a third-line treatment for severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction after first- and second-line treatments have been exhausted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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How long should a patient cease driving after experiencing a stroke?
Your Answer: 12 months
Correct Answer: 1 month
Explanation:If you have had a stroke or TIA, the DVLA advises that you should refrain from driving for a period of one month.
The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.
For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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At what stage of the menstrual cycle do levels of progesterone reach their highest point?
Your Answer: Menstruation
Correct Answer: Luteal phase
Explanation:A fundamental comprehension of physiology is necessary to comprehend contraception, gynaecological disorders, and fertility issues, as progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation, despite the AKT having limited inquiries about it.
Phases of the Menstrual Cycle
The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.
During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization doesn’t occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucous thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucous becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25 year old woman visits a fertility clinic with her partner due to oligomenorrhoea and galactorrhea. Despite having regular unprotected intercourse for 18 months, she has been unable to conceive. Upon conducting blood tests, it is discovered that her serum prolactin level is 6000 mIU/l (normal <500 mIU/l). Further investigation through a pituitary MRI reveals a microprolactinoma.
What initial treatment options are likely to be presented to her?Your Answer: Pituitary radiotherapy
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:When it comes to treating prolactinomas, dopamine agonists like cabergoline and bromocriptine are typically the first choice, even if the patient is experiencing significant neurological complications. Surgery may be necessary for those who cannot tolerate or do not respond to medical treatment, with a trans-sphenoidal approach being the preferred method unless there is extensive extra-pituitary extension. Radiotherapy is not commonly used, and octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is primarily used to treat acromegaly.
Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma
Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin.
In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinomas may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.
Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves medical therapy with dopamine agonists like cabergoline or bromocriptine, which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. Surgery may be necessary for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or cannot tolerate it. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical removal of the tumor.
Overall, understanding prolactinoma is important for proper diagnosis and management of this type of pituitary adenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with complaints of haloes and impaired vision when watching television, often accompanied by headaches. The examination is normal, but she is routinely referred to the local ophthalmology clinic. The following day you receive a phone call from her husband to say that she has lost vision in her right eye and has a severe headache and eye pain and is vomiting. You visit her and find that she has a fixed pupil and a hazy cornea and the eye feels very hard.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subacute closed-angle glaucoma
Correct Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Acute angle-closure glaucoma occurs when the iris blocks the drainage of aqueous humour, leading to a rise in intraocular pressure. Symptoms include visual disturbances in low-light situations, severe eye pain, and require immediate treatment with medication and surgery.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a complication of facial or sinus infections, presenting with headache, fever, cranial nerve signs, and periorbital swelling.
Acute anterior uveitis causes unilateral eye pain, redness, photophobia, and decreased vision. It develops over hours or days and requires urgent treatment.
Chronic glaucoma leads to gradual visual field loss due to damage to the optic nerve head and can be managed with topical medication.
Subacute closed-angle glaucoma should be treated urgently to prevent vision loss. Immediate admission is necessary.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of irregular vaginal bleeding. She started the combined hormonal contraceptive pill 3 months ago. She has no other medication and is not taking any over the counter medication. She reports no missed pills. She has recently been to the sexual-health clinic and reports all tests were normal including a negative pregnancy test. She reports no abdominal pain, no dyspareunia, no abnormal vaginal discharge, no heavy bleeding and no postcoital bleeding.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Arrange for an urgent transvaginal ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Continue the same pill and review at 3 months, reassuring the patient that most bleeding may settle after 3 months
Explanation:Patients who experience problematic bleeding within the first 3 months of starting a new combined hormonal contraceptive pill, without any concerning symptoms, can be reassured and monitored. It is common for bleeding to improve after this initial period. A physical examination is typically not necessary for these patients, as long as they are participating in cervical screening and have not experienced more than 3 months of problematic bleeding.
A transvaginal ultrasound scan is not recommended at this stage.
However, if bleeding persists beyond 3 months or if there are other symptoms that suggest an underlying cause, such as abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding, a per vaginal and speculum examination should be considered.
If problematic bleeding continues, a higher dose of ethinylestradiol in a combined hormonal contraceptive pill can be tried, up to a maximum of 35 micrograms. While there is no evidence that changing the dose of progestogen improves cycle control, it may be beneficial on an individual basis.
There is no need for gynaecology referral at this stage.
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.
Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother. She has a history of recurrent otitis media and has been touching her right ear frequently for the past 3 days. She was restless and had a fever overnight, and now has a red, boggy swelling behind her right ear that is more prominent than on the left. During the examination, the child appears unhappy, with a temperature of 39.2ºC, a heart rate of 170 beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute. Due to her distress, it is difficult to examine her ears, but the left ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal, while the right ear canal and tympanic membrane appear red. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Parotid swelling
Correct Answer: Mastoiditis
Explanation:Mastoiditis is a bacterial infection that is particularly serious and commonly affects children. It often occurs as a result of prolonged otitis media. The infection can cause the porous bone to deteriorate, and severe cases may require surgery and intravenous antibiotics. Acute otitis media is an infection of the inner ear and typically doesn’t cause swelling. However, mastoiditis can develop as a complication of otitis media. The patient in question has no history of trauma that could explain the described swelling, which is also not in the correct location to be a parotid swelling. While lymphadenitis can cause an erythematous swelling, it is usually described as soft, fluctuant, and tender and is typically found post auricularly rather than over the mastoid process.
In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You encounter a 24-year-old nulliparous woman who wishes to discuss contraception. She has tried various pills over the past few years but has not found one that suits her.
During your discussion of the available options, she expresses a preference for an intrauterine system (IUS) over a copper intrauterine device (IUD) due to concerns about heavier or more painful periods. You provide information on the Mirena®, Jaydess®, and newer Kyleena® IUS options, but she is uncertain which one to choose.
What advice should you offer her?Your Answer: The Mirena® IUS contains the least amount of levonorgestrel (LNG)
Correct Answer: The Kyleena® IUS contains more LNG than the Jaydess IUS
Explanation:The Kyleena intrauterine system (IUS) has a higher amount of levonorgestrel (LNG) compared to the Jaydess IUS. The Mirena IUS has the highest amount of LNG (52mg) and is approved for use for up to 5 years in this age group. On the other hand, the Jaydess IUS has the lowest amount of LNG (13.5mg) and is approved for use for up to 3 years. The Kyleena IUS contains 19.5mg of LNG and is approved for use for up to 5 years, making it a better option than the Jaydess IUS in terms of LNG content. While the Mirena IUS has the highest amount of circulating LNG, it may have a better bleeding profile than the other options. Additionally, the Jaydess and Kyleena IUS are smaller in size and have smaller insertion tubes, which may make them easier to fit.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating. She has noticed these symptoms over the past few months. Additionally, she reports that her periods have become less frequent and she has experienced some weight loss. During the examination, her pulse rate is 96 bpm and her blood pressure is 130/76 mmHg. She exhibits a fine tremor in her outstretched arms and has lost 4 kg in the last six months. What diagnostic test would be helpful in confirming the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Assessing Excessive Sweating in Primary Care
Excessive sweating can be a symptom of various medical conditions, and the first step in assessing someone presenting with sweating problems is to determine if the symptoms are focal or generalized. Generalized sweating is most likely due to a secondary medical condition. In this case, the patient presents with additional clinical features that suggest a secondary cause.
In this age group, the most common cause of sweating would relate to the menopause. However, in this case, the patient reports weight loss, irregular periods, fine tremor, and tachycardia, which are not typical menopausal symptoms. Bringing together all of these features, a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is likely. Thyroid function tests will confirm the diagnosis.
It is important to note that diabetes can cause weight loss, but the clinical picture doesn’t fit, and a fasting blood sugar would not give a diagnosis. FSH levels can sometimes be used if menopause is suspected, but in a woman of typical age and with typical menopausal symptoms, blood tests are not needed, and a clinical diagnosis should be made. A pelvic ultrasound is not indicated in this case, as the stem doesn’t suggest any endometrial or ovarian pathology.
In rare cases, phaeochromocytoma can present with labile blood pressure and episodes of sweating and tachycardia. However, this is not likely in the primary care setting, and thyroid dysfunction is much more common. The patient is symptomatic with a normal BP when examined. Therefore, a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is the most likely cause of the patient’s excessive sweating, and further tests will confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the correct option regarding nasal polyps?
Your Answer: They usually originate in the maxillary sinuses
Correct Answer: Have a pinkish red appearance
Explanation:Nasal Polyps: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Nasal polyps are growths that develop in the nasal passages, with the majority arising in the ethmoid sinuses. While allergy is the main cause, there may also be an infective component. Antrochoanal polyps, which are associated with chronic infection, are much rarer and arise from the maxillary sinuses. These growths have a yellowish-grey appearance, and any pink or red polyps should be regarded as suspicious.
Symptoms of nasal polyps include blockage of the nasal passages, leading to anosmia or loss of smell. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids, which can help to reduce the size of the polyps. However, surgical removal may be necessary in some cases, and recurrence is common. While smell is usually restored after treatment, it may not always be fully regained. Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for nasal polyps can help individuals to manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents to his new GP for registration after moving house. During urine testing, evidence of haematuria is found. The patient has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Understanding Common Kidney Conditions: ADPKD, Glomerulonephritis, Renal Stones, Renal Cell Carcinoma, and Urinary Tract Infection
The kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and regulating fluid balance in the body. However, they can be affected by various conditions that can lead to significant health problems. Here are some common kidney conditions and their characteristics:
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the growth of multiple cysts in the kidneys, leading to kidney enlargement and dysfunction. Symptoms may include hypertension, painless haematuria, intermittent loin pain, and a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage. ACE inhibitors are the first-line treatment for hypertension in ADPKD patients.Glomerulonephritis
Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation within the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic urinary abnormalities to the nephritic and nephrotic syndromes.Renal Stones
Renal stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe renal colic. They may be asymptomatic and discovered during investigations for other conditions.Renal Cell Carcinoma
Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that can be detected using ultrasound and CT scans. More than half of adult renal tumours are detected when using ultrasound to investigate nonspecific symptoms. The classic features of haematuria, loin pain, and loin mass are not as frequently seen now.Urinary Tract Infection
Urinary tract infection is a common condition that presents acutely. It occurs when bacteria enter the urinary tract and cause inflammation and infection. Symptoms may include pain or burning during urination, frequent urination, and cloudy or bloody urine.In conclusion, understanding the characteristics of common kidney conditions can help with early detection and appropriate management, leading to better outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a hiatus hernia diagnosed on upper gastrointestinal endoscopy 3 months ago and takes omeprazole. She has had no respiratory symptoms, no change in bowel habit, no dysphagia or indigestion. On examination she is pale and tachycardic with a pulse rate of 100/min. Abdominal examination is normal. Blood tests reveal the following results:
Haemoglobin 72 g/l
White cell count 5.5 x109/l
Platelets 536 x109/l
ESR 36 mm/h
(hypochromic microcytic red blood cells)
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma
Correct Answer: Right-sided colonic carcinoma
Explanation:Causes of Iron Deficiency Anaemia and the Importance of Gastrointestinal Tract Investigation
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. In older patients, it is important to investigate the gastrointestinal tract as a potential source of bleeding. Right-sided colonic carcinomas often do not cause any changes in bowel habit, leading to late diagnosis or incidental discovery during investigations for anaemia. On the other hand, rectal carcinomas usually result in a change in bowel habit. Oesophageal carcinoma can cause dysphagia and should have been detected during recent endoscopy. Hiatus hernia is unlikely to cause severe anaemia, especially if the patient is taking omeprazole. Poor diet is also an unlikely explanation for new-onset iron deficiency anaemia in older patients. Therefore, routine assessment of iron deficiency anaemia should include investigation of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract, with particular attention to visualising the caecum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with profound tiredness and a lack of appetite which have been present for about a week. He has just returned from a gap-year trip to Thailand and noticed he was jaundiced just before coming home. He also experienced a fever, but this subsided once his jaundice appeared. He has no sexual history, doesn't abuse intravenous (IV) drugs and did not receive a blood transfusion or get a tattoo or piercing during his trip.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 950 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 150 IU/l 25–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 240 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Albumin 40 g/l 38–50 g/l
Prothrombin time (PT) 12.0 s 12.0–14.8 s
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hepatitis C (Hep C)
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A (Hep A)
Explanation:Based on the patient’s symptoms and history, the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. The initial fever, anorexia, and malaise followed by jaundice and elevated liver enzymes are typical of Hep A. A confirmation test for anti-Hep A immunoglobulin M can be done. Hep A is not common in the UK but is more prevalent in areas with poor sanitation, especially among travelers. Cytomegalovirus infection can also cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome with fever, splenomegaly, and mild liver enzyme increases, but rises in ALP and bilirubin are less common. Hep B and C are unlikely as there are no risk factors in the patient’s history. Leptospirosis, which is associated with exposure to rat-infected water and conjunctival suffusion, is less likely than Hep A.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is a common characteristic of pseudoseizures?
Your Answer: Rarely occur in company
Correct Answer: Incontinence
Explanation:Pseudoseizures: Understanding the Disorder
Pseudoseizure or dissociated non-epileptic attack disorder is a condition that primarily affects disturbed females, with a ratio of 8:1. This disorder is characterized by erratic movements, closed eyes, and resisted eye opening, which are not typical features of epilepsy. However, lateral tongue bite and incontinence may occur, which are common in epilepsy. Patients with pseudoseizures often resist and fight any intervention.
Individuals with pseudoseizures often have a history of abuse or previous illness behavior. These attacks frequently occur in doctors’ surgeries and out-patient departments, and they usually happen in the presence of others. Previous illness behavior is also common in individuals with pseudoseizures.
In summary, pseudoseizures are a disorder that can be challenging to diagnose and treat. Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of this disorder is crucial in providing appropriate care and support to individuals affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is morbidly obese comes to the clinic as she wishes to lose weight. She asks about the calorie content of common foods.
Which of the following foods contains the highest number of calories?
Your Answer: Orange juice unsweetened 140ml
Correct Answer: Cheddar cheese 100g
Explanation:Caloric and Fat Content of Selected Foods
When it comes to watching our calorie and fat intake, it’s important to be mindful of the foods we consume. Here’s a breakdown of the caloric and fat content of some common foods:
Cheddar Cheese 100g
This amount of cheddar cheese contains a whopping 413 kcal and 34g of fat, making it the highest in both categories compared to the other foods listed.Banana 100g
A 100g banana contains 95 kcal and is a great source of potassium and fiber.Cornflakes 30g
A 30g serving of cornflakes with 125 ml of semi-skimmed milk contains 173 kcal and 2.5g of fat.Orange Juice Unsweetened 140ml
140 ml of unsweetened orange juice contains roughly 50 kcal. While it’s important to be mindful of sugar intake, consuming a small glass of fruit juice each day can count towards our recommended daily intake of fruits and vegetables.Plain Scone 48g
A plain scone weighing 48g contains around 173 kcal and 7g of fat. It’s important to enjoy treats in moderation and balance them with healthier options. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old perimenopausal woman presents to the clinic with a range of menopausal symptoms, including vaginal soreness, hot flashes, poor libido, and urinary issues. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and a family history of unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (her father). The patient is only interested in hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and refuses to consider other treatments like antidepressants. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Oestrogen only HRT
Correct Answer: Haematologist opinion with view to start transdermal HRT
Explanation:According to NICE, women who are at a high risk of developing VTE and are seeking HRT should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even if it is transdermal.
While there is no evidence to suggest that transdermal HRT preparations such as patches or gels increase the risk of VTE, it is recommended to seek specialist advice before starting treatment if there are any risk factors present.
For patients with a high risk of VTE, oral HRT, whether it is combined or oestrogen-only, would be risky. Although per vaginal oestrogen would be a safer option, it would only provide local relief and may not alleviate all of the patient’s symptoms.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.
Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.
In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents with a three month history of epigastric pain after eating and intermittent heartburn between meals. He reports weight loss but denies any nausea or vomiting. There is no change in bowel habit and no history of passing blood or melaena stools. He has no significant past medical history, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week, and quit smoking five years ago. What is the optimal course of action for managing his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat with an oral proton pump inhibitor (for example, omeprazole 20 mg daily) and review in two weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Suspected Oesophageal Cancer
According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy should be offered to assess for oesophageal cancer in individuals with dysphagia or those aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. A routine ultrasound scan is unlikely to be helpful, and even if Helicobacter pylori is positive, referral should not be delayed. It is advised to be free from acid suppression therapy for at least two weeks before endoscopy in case treatment masks underlying pathology. Therefore, proton pump inhibitors should not be prescribed when referring urgently for endoscopy. These guidelines aim to improve the recognition and referral of suspected oesophageal cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You receive the blood results of an 80-year-old man who takes warfarin following a pulmonary embolism three months ago. He recently completed a course of antibiotics.
INR 8.4
After reviewing the patient, you find that he is in good health with no signs of bleeding or bruising. What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral vitamin K 5mg + stop warfarin + repeat INR after 24 hours
Explanation:Managing High INR Levels in Patients Taking Warfarin
When a patient taking warfarin experiences high INR levels, the management approach depends on the severity of the situation. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K should be administered along with prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma if available. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be administered. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.
In cases where there is no bleeding but the INR is above 8.0, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K (1-5mg) can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.
If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0. If there is no bleeding, warfarin can be withheld for 1 or 2 doses and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.
It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of occasional palpitations without any accompanying chest pain, shortness of breath, or lightheadedness. He has no notable medical history and is not taking any medications at present. Physical examination and vital signs are normal except for an irregular heartbeat, which is later diagnosed as atrial fibrillation. What is the suggested preventive therapy for a stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consider an anticoagulant
Explanation:Anticoagulation must be taken into account for individuals with a CHA2DS2-VASC score of 1 or higher if they are male, and a score of 2 or higher if they are female. In this case, the gentleman’s CHA2DS2-VASC score is 1, indicating that he should be considered for anticoagulation after assessing his HAS-BLED score. It is important to note that if his HAS-BLED score is 3 or higher, alternative options to anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers, aspirin, and clopidogrel are not recommended for primary prevention against cerebrovascular accidents. It is incorrect to assume that no treatment is necessary, as the CHA2DS2-VASC score indicates a need for consideration of anticoagulation.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You examine a femoral X-ray of a 14-year-old girl that you ordered yesterday. She complained of persistent bone pain in her distal femur for the past month. The X-ray reveals destruction of the medullary and cortical bone in the distal femur. What is the recommended follow-up for this X-ray?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ensure patient is seen by a specialist within 48 hours
Explanation:An urgent referral is required for specialist assessment of children and young people who have an X-ray indicating bone sarcoma, with a timeframe of less than 48 hours. This is particularly important for a child who presents with symptoms suggestive of osteosarcoma, as bony destruction is a typical finding. According to NICE guidelines, suspected cancer in children should be referred urgently within 48 hours, rather than the 2-week pathway for adults. Medications such as vitamin D, calcium, and alendronate are used to treat osteoporosis, which is not likely to be the primary cause of the child’s X-ray. If required, specialists may request a bone marrow biopsy, which cannot be performed at the GP surgery.
Sarcomas: Types, Features, and Assessment
Sarcomas are malignant tumors that originate from mesenchymal cells. They can either be bone or soft tissue in origin. Bone sarcomas include osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, and chondrosarcoma, while soft tissue sarcomas are a more diverse group that includes liposarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and synovial sarcomas. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is a sarcoma that can arise in both soft tissue and bone.
Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, such as a large (>5cm) soft tissue mass, deep tissue or intramuscular location, rapid growth, and a painful lump. Imaging of suspicious masses should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Blind biopsy should not be performed prior to imaging, and where required, should be done in such a way that the biopsy tract can be subsequently included in any resection.
Ewing’s sarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 0.3/1,000,000 and onset typically between 10 and 20 years of age. Osteosarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 5/1,000,000 and peak age 15-30. Liposarcoma is rare, with an incidence of approximately 2.5/1,000,000, and typically affects an older age group (>40 years of age). Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most common sarcoma in adults and is usually treated with surgical resection and adjuvant radiotherapy.
In summary, sarcomas are a diverse group of malignant tumors that can arise from bone or soft tissue. Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, and imaging should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Treatment options vary depending on the type and location of the sarcoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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