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Question 1
Incorrect
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Each one of the following statements regarding ADHD is correct, except:
Your Answer: Usually develops before 3 years of age
Correct Answer: The majority of children have normal or increased intelligence
Explanation:Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behaviour. It is usually diagnosed during early childhood, but symptoms may manifest later. ASD can occur in individuals with any level of intellectual ability, and its manifestations range from subtle problems to severe disabilities. The prevalence of ASD has increased over time due to changes in definitions and increased awareness, with recent estimates suggesting a prevalence of 1-2%. Boys are three to four times more likely to be diagnosed with ASD than girls, and around 50% of children with ASD have an intellectual disability.
Individuals with ASD may exhibit a broad range of clinical manifestations, including impaired social communication and interaction, repetitive behaviours, interests, and activities, and associated conditions such as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and epilepsy. Although there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioural management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as early educational and behavioural interventions, pharmacological interventions for associated conditions, and family support and counselling. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life for individuals with ASD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the alternative hypothesis in a randomized controlled trial comparing drug A to placebo for treating nocturnal enuresis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The alternative hypothesis is assumed to be incorrect until proven otherwise
Explanation:Null and Alternative Hypotheses in Statistical Hypothesis Testing
In statistical hypothesis testing, we use null and alternative hypotheses to determine whether there is a significant difference or association between the variables we are interested in. The null hypothesis assumes that there is no difference or association, while the alternative hypothesis assumes that there is.
When conducting hypothesis testing, we start by assuming that the null hypothesis is true and calculate the probability (p value) of observing the actual results under this assumption. If the p value is less than 5% (p<0.05), we reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis. It is important to note that neither the null nor alternative hypothesis is more likely to be true than the other. The purpose of hypothesis testing is to determine which hypothesis is more supported by the data. By using statistical methods to test our hypotheses, we can make informed decisions and draw conclusions based on the evidence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, particularly during times of stress or physical activity. She has no significant medical history. During her neurological exam, no abnormalities are found. However, a systolic murmur is heard along the length of her left sternal edge and spine. Her chest is clear and her blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg in her left arm and 104/68 mmHg in her left leg. An ECG reveals sinus rhythm with evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta and its Interventions
Coarctation of the aorta is a condition where the aorta narrows, usually distal to the left subclavian artery. This can cause an asymptomatic difference in upper and lower body blood pressures and can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy. The severity of the restriction varies, with severe cases presenting early with cardiac failure, while less severe cases can go undiagnosed into later childhood.
Interventions for coarctation of the aorta include stenting, excision and graft placement, and using the left subclavian artery to bypass the coarctation. An atrial septal defect and hypertrophic occlusive cardiomyopathy would not cause a blood pressure difference between the upper and lower body. Stress headaches and a flow murmur are not appropriate diagnoses for a child with hypertension, which should be thoroughly investigated for an underlying cause.
In contrast, transposition of the great arteries is a major cyanotic cardiac abnormality that presents in infancy. It is important to diagnose and treat coarctation of the aorta to prevent complications such as left ventricular hypertrophy and cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall of the sinus has impacted all nerves passing through it.
What is the most prominent clinical indication of cranial nerve impairment caused by this pathological condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral corneal reflex absent
Explanation:Trigeminal Nerve Dysfunction and its Effects on Facial and Oral Function
The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information from the face and oral cavity to the brain. Dysfunction of this nerve can lead to various symptoms affecting facial and oral function.
One common symptom is the absence of the ipsilateral corneal reflex, which is carried by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. Damage to this nerve interrupts the reflex arc of the corneal reflex.
Another symptom is the inability to resist forced lateral mandibular excursion with the mouth partially open. This is due to damage to the pterygoid muscles, which are innervated by the motor fibers in the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
Loss of sensation over the lower lip is also a result of trigeminal nerve dysfunction. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries general somatic afferent nerves from the lower lip.
Similarly, loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is also carried by the trigeminal nerve.
Lastly, the facial nerve innervates the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for the ability to blow out the cheeks. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.
Overall, dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve can have significant effects on facial and oral function, highlighting the importance of this nerve in everyday activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male is receiving his last round of ICE chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the potential risk associated with his treatment that he may develop?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:Chemotherapy can lead to a higher risk of gout due to the increased production of uric acid from the breakdown of cells. However, it is not associated with an increased risk of pseudogout or rheumatoid arthritis, which are caused by different factors such as calcium pyrophosphate crystals and genetics, respectively.
Understanding the Predisposing Factors of Gout
Gout is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when monosodium urate monohydrate is deposited in the synovium. This condition is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels that exceed 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.
One of the primary causes of decreased uric acid excretion is the use of diuretics. Chronic kidney disease and lead toxicity can also lead to decreased excretion of uric acid. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be caused by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis. Additionally, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is an x-linked recessive disorder that is only seen in boys, can also lead to increased production of uric acid.
It is important to note that aspirin in low doses is not thought to have a significant effect on plasma urate levels. Therefore, it is recommended that it should be continued if required for cardiovascular prophylaxis. Understanding the predisposing factors of gout can help individuals take preventative measures to reduce their risk of developing this painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with left scrotal discomfort and a feeling of tightness. Upon examination, there is mild swelling of the left scrotum with varices resembling a bag of worms in the overlying skin that appears dark red. Scrotal ultrasound confirms the presence of a varicocele on the left side. Which structure is most likely dilated in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pampiniform plexus
Explanation:Anatomy of the Male Reproductive System
The male reproductive system is a complex network of organs and structures that work together to produce and transport sperm. Here are some key components of this system:
Pampiniform Plexus: This network of veins runs along the spermatic cord and drains blood from the scrotum. When these veins become dilated, it can result in a condition called varicocele, which may cause a bag of worms sensation in the scrotum.
Ductus Deferens: This tube-like structure is part of the spermatic cord and carries sperm and seminal fluid from the testis to the ejaculatory duct.
Processus Vaginalis: This structure can sometimes be present in the groin area and may communicate with the peritoneum. When it does, it can lead to a condition called hydrocele, where fluid accumulates in the scrotum.
Testicular Artery: This artery originates from the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the testis. It is not involved in the formation of varicocele.
Genital Branch of the Genitofemoral Nerve: This nerve provides sensation to the skin in the upper anterior part of the scrotum and innervates the cremaster muscle. It is not involved in the formation of varicocele.
Understanding the anatomy of the male reproductive system can help in identifying and treating various conditions that may affect it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman returns to your clinic complaining of constant feelings of sadness, loss of appetite, insomnia, and a lack of enjoyment in anything. Despite making lifestyle changes and setting small goals, she still feels hopeless and requests medication. You decide to prescribe sertraline. What drug should be avoided in patients taking an SSRI?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sumatriptan
Explanation:Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A six-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his mother due to some unusual nighttime activity. For the past year, he has been making grunting and gurgling sounds while asleep. Upon entering the room, the doctor notices that the boy's eyes are wide open, and his mouth is pulled to one side with excessive drooling onto the pillow. The mother is concerned because the boy was found shaking on the floor last night, which lasted for about 30 seconds. After the episode, he was weak and confused for hours. The boy's older brother has been diagnosed with epilepsy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy
Explanation:Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after a car accident. He is breathing irregularly, with a respiratory rate of five breaths/minute, and has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of three. The trauma team decides to intubate him in the department, but due to oropharyngeal swelling caused by the trauma, they are unable to do so. His condition rapidly deteriorates, and he is now hypoxic, with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 70%, despite receiving mechanical ventilation with a bag-valve-mask and basic airway manoeuvres. What is the most appropriate intervention to restore his oxygenation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency cricothyroidotomy
Explanation:Airway Interventions: Emergency Cricothyroidotomy, Laryngectomy, and More
Emergency cricothyroidotomy is a procedure that creates a secure airway below the level of obstruction in a timely manner. It involves making an incision in the cricothyroid membrane and introducing an airway tube to restore ventilation. This technique is quick and requires minimal dissection. There are three types of cricothyroidotomy techniques: surgical, needle, and percutaneous.
On the other hand, a laryngectomy is an elective surgical procedure that removes the larynx and is used to treat laryngeal cancers. It does not play a role in restoring ventilation.
Inserting an oropharyngeal airway is not effective in improving oxygenation when the level of obstruction is below or at the level of the airway. Similarly, nasopharyngeal airway insertion is not appropriate in this situation.
While a tracheostomy creates a secure airway below the level of obstruction, it is not the optimal intervention in emergency situations. It is typically an elective procedure used for patients weaning off prolonged mechanical ventilation or those with difficulty controlling secretions. A tracheostomy tube is inserted approximately 2 cm below the cricoid cartilage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is 32 weeks pregnant visits her GP with complaints of severe itching on her palms. She also reports feeling fatigued, which has been a persistent issue during her pregnancy. Upon examination, no rash is visible on her hands. Based on this presentation, what is she at an elevated risk for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stillbirth
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy can lead to stillbirth, which is why doctors usually recommend inducing labor at 37-38 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:
The input statement is already clear and concise, so the output statement simply rephrases it in a slightly different way. It emphasizes the increased risk of stillbirth associated with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and highlights the recommended course of action for managing this risk.Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male with a history of hypertension, obesity, gout and hypercholesterolemia experiences an abrupt onset of diarrhea. Which medication is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Colchicine is known to induce diarrhoea as a side effect.
One of the common side effects of colchicine, a medication utilized for treating acute gout attacks, is diarrhoea. Due to this, some physicians opt for naproxen or prednisolone instead of prescribing colchicine. The remaining drugs on the list are not typically associated with diarrhoea.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits the Respiratory Outpatients Department complaining of a dry cough and increasing breathlessness. During the examination, the doctor observes finger clubbing, central cyanosis, and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. The chest X-ray shows reticular shadows and peripheral honeycombing, while respiratory function tests indicate a restrictive pattern with reduced lung volumes but a normal forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1): forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio. The patient's pulmonary fibrosis is attributed to which of the following medications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bleomycin
Explanation:Drug-Induced Pulmonary Fibrosis: Causes and Investigations
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the lungs, which can be caused by various diseases and drugs. One drug that has been linked to pulmonary fibrosis is bleomycin, while other causes include pneumoconiosis, occupational lung diseases, and certain medications. To aid in diagnosis, chest X-rays, high-resolution computed tomography (CT), and lung function tests may be performed. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause. However, drugs such as aspirin, ramipril, spironolactone, and simvastatin have not been associated with pulmonary fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential risks of certain medications and to monitor for any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with fresh red vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain.
The patient is at 36 weeks gestation and gravida 3, para 2. She is rhesus positive and a current smoker. Access to her current maternity notes is unavailable. She tells you she has pre-eclampsia for which she takes labetalol.
Maternal observations are normal and there are no concerns with foetal movements. A cardiotocograph (CTG) demonstrates that the foetal heart rate is 140 beats/min, variability is 15 beats/min, accelerations are present and there are no decelerations noted.
On examination, the uterus is hard and tender to palpation. The doctor suspects that the foetus may be in a transverse lie. The patient's pad is partially soaked but there is no active bleeding noted on a quick inspection.
What would the most appropriate first course of action be in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer corticosteroids and arrange admission to the ward
Explanation:When a pregnant patient presents with painful bleeding and a hard, tender uterus, it may indicate placental abruption. In this case, the patient has risk factors such as being a smoker, having pre-eclampsia, and a transverse lie. The management of placental abruption depends on the gestation, maternal condition, and fetal condition. In this scenario, the patient is stable, at 34 weeks gestation, and the fetus is not showing signs of distress. Therefore, the appropriate plan is to admit the patient and administer steroids for observation.
Administering anti-D and performing a Kleihauer test is unnecessary as the patient is already known to be rhesus positive. Induction of labor is not indicated as the fetus has not matured to term. Emergency caesarean section would only be necessary if fetal distress was present. Performing a sterile speculum examination is not appropriate as it could cause or worsen hemorrhage, especially if the patient has placenta previa. The best course of action is to admit the patient to the ward until access to notes becomes available or an ultrasound is performed.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.
Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.
In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An older gentleman with prostate cancer is beginning treatment with morphine elixir for painful bone metastases. What would be the most suitable advice to give to his caregiver?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A laxative will need to be used
Explanation:Managing Pain in Terminally Ill Patients
Managing pain in terminally ill patients can be challenging, but there are several strategies that can be employed to provide relief. When prescribing narcotics, it is important to start a laxative regimen to prevent constipation. Sedation may occur in the first few days, but this typically wears off. If pain relief is inadequate, the dose should be increased, although it is important to note that cocaine may produce hallucinations. It is also important to note that addiction is not a concern in terminally ill patients. Injections are typically three times more effective than oral medication. By employing these strategies, healthcare providers can help alleviate pain and improve the quality of life for terminally ill patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening programme and is found to be hrHPV positive. However, her cytological examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat the test in 12 months
Explanation:If a cervical smear test is hrHPV positive but cytologically normal, the recommended course of action is to repeat the test in 12 months. This is in contrast to negative hrHPV results, which are returned to normal recall. Abnormal cytology results require colposcopy, but normal cytology results do not. It is important to note that returning to normal recall is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s higher risk status warrants a repeat test sooner than the standard 3-year interval. Repeating the test within 3 or 6 months is also not recommended.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male comes to the emergency department following a fall at home. During the examination, it is observed that his left leg is externally-rotated and shortened. An X-ray confirms the presence of an intertrochanteric femoral fracture. This patient is typically mobile and able to perform all activities of daily living independently. What is the most suitable surgical approach for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dynamic hip screw
Explanation:The optimal surgical approach for intertrochanteric (extracapsular) proximal femoral fracture is the use of dynamic hip screws. These screws are considered dynamic due to their ability to tighten as the bone heals. Hemiarthroplasty is not the preferred option for this type of fracture, as it is typically reserved for displaced intracapsular fractures in patients with significant comorbidities or immobility. Internal fixation is also not the preferred approach, as it is typically used for undisplaced intracapsular fractures in mobile patients without serious comorbidities. Intramedullary nails are not the preferred approach for intertrochanteric fractures, as they are typically used for subtrochanteric fractures.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female, 28 weeks pregnant, is referred to a nephrology consultant by her general practitioner for suspected renal stones. She has a medical history of hypertension and ischemic heart disease. A CT-KUB report reveals a 1.5 cm renal stone. What is the recommended definitive management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ureteroscopy
Explanation:When it comes to removing renal stones in pregnant women, ureteroscopy is the preferred method over lithotripsy. While lithotripsy is the preferred option for stones smaller than 2 cm, it is not safe for pregnant women. Therefore, ureteroscopy is the preferred alternative. For more complex or staghorn calculi, percutaneous nephrolithotomy is the preferred option.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin is the preferable treatment in the obese patient with type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Type 2 Diabetes and Drug Treatment Options
Type 2 diabetes is diagnosed when a person’s fasting plasma glucose level is consistently above 6.9 on two separate occasions. This condition is often associated with being overweight. To manage type 2 diabetes, drug treatment is necessary. The level of glycaemic lowering achieved through drug treatment is directly linked to a reduction in mortality.
Within 10 years of diagnosis, the rate of macrovascular complications is significantly higher than 20%. Therefore, it is crucial to choose the right drug therapy. The United Kingdom Prospective Diabetes Study (UKPDS) has shown that metformin is the preferred first-line drug therapy for type 2 diabetes.
Sulphonylureas are another drug therapy option, but they are associated with marginally higher cardiovascular mortality and weight gain. It is important to work with a healthcare professional to determine the best drug treatment plan for managing type 2 diabetes. By effectively managing blood glucose levels, individuals with type 2 diabetes can reduce their risk of complications and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What are the stimuli that trigger the release of insulin from beta cells in the pancreas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GLP-1, amino acids and glucagon
Explanation:Factors that Stimulate Insulin Release
Insulin release is not only stimulated by a rise in plasma glucose but also by other factors. Insulin is stored in secretory granules in beta cells and is rapidly released when a meal is ingested. The main mechanism that stimulates insulin release is an increase in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production within the beta cell, resulting from an increase in glucose availability. This closes a KATP channel in the cell membrane, which depolarizes the membrane and causes an influx of calcium. The increase in intracellular calcium stimulates the mobilization of insulin-containing secretory granules to the membrane and releases the hormone into the circulation.
GLP-1, a gut hormone released in response to food ingestion, has an important incretin effect. This effect amplifies glucose-stimulated insulin release in pancreatic beta cells. It is believed to result from the action of GLP-1 on a separate K+ channel in the beta cell. A number of newer medications used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus work via the incretin effect.
Three amino acids, arginine, glycine, and alanine, also stimulate insulin release. This occurs due to the co-transport of amino acid with Na+ into the beta cell via a symporter, rather than an effect on the KATP channel. The addition of protein to a meal evokes a larger insulin response than pure carbohydrate. Glucagon, despite the majority of its actions being antagonistic to those of insulin, also stimulates insulin release. This is thought to be so that sufficient insulin is available to allow tissue uptake of newly-released glucose from hepatic gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has just been diagnosed with schizophrenia. His family is concerned about the long-term outlook of the illness. What factor is linked to the poorest prognosis for poorly managed schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gradual onset
Explanation:Schizophrenia with a gradual onset is indicative of a poor prognosis, whereas the other options suggest a better outcome. Although some studies have linked high intelligence with a higher risk of suicide, generally, individuals with higher intelligence have a more favorable prognosis for schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient visits the GP complaining of hip and back pain that has persisted for several months. He reports experiencing stiffness and pain lasting approximately 45 minutes in the mornings, which improves with activity. During the systemic inquiry, he mentions having long-standing pain on the posterior aspect of his left foot and intermittent blurry vision and pain in his right eye, particularly when using electronic devices.
What are the probable examination findings for the chest and spine?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced chest expansion, reduced lateral flexion, reduced forward flexion
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that can cause reduced joint movement, particularly in the spine and sacroiliac joints. This patient’s symptoms, including heel pain (Achilles tendonitis) and painful/blurry vision (anterior uveitis), are also associated with ankylosing spondylitis. During examination, it is likely that reduced chest expansion, lateral flexion, and forward flexion of the spine will be observed due to the decreased flexibility caused by the condition. Therefore, the correct option is reduced chest expansion, reduced lateral flexion, and reduced forward flexion of the spine. The other options featuring normal or increased movement are incorrect as ankylosing spondylitis typically causes reduced joint mobility.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old male is admitted to the paediatric ward due to recurrent episodes of arthralgia affecting multiple sites. He had vomiting, diarrhoea, and fever two months ago, which were treated supportively by his GP. He is also experiencing balanitis without discharge. The patient's vision remains unchanged. On physical examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the left ankle joint, as well as tenderness on motion and pain over the bilateral wrist and left sacroiliac joints. Blood tests show an elevated white cell count and ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis typically develops up to 4 weeks after an infection and can have a relapsing-remitting course over several months. The patient’s symptoms suggest reactive arthritis, which is a sterile arthritis triggered by distant gastrointestinal or urogenital infections. It usually presents with polyarticular arthralgia, urethritis, and uveitis, and is more common in people who are positive for the HLA-B27 gene. Behcet’s disease and systemic lupus erythematosus are unlikely diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms. Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis may have a more gradual onset with additional symptoms such as morning stiffness, spiking fevers, and a flat, pale pink rash.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.
Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Liam, a 17-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has generally well-controlled asthma, with only one exacerbation requiring steroids this year. He takes 2 puffs of his beclomethasone inhaler twice daily, and salbutamol as needed, both via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and exhaling before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down on the canister while taking a slow breath in and then holding his breath for 10 seconds. He then immediately repeats this process for the second dose.
What suggestions could you offer to improve his technique?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should wait 30 seconds before repeating the dose
Explanation:To ensure proper drug delivery, it is important to use the correct inhaler technique. This involves removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and taking a slow breath in while delivering the dose. After holding the breath for 10 seconds, it is recommended to wait for approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. In this case, the individual should have waited for the full 30 seconds before taking a second dose.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Proper inhaler technique is crucial for effective treatment of respiratory conditions such as asthma. The following guidelines are recommended by Asthma.org.uk, a resource recommended to patients by the British Thoracic Society, for using metered-dose inhalers.
To begin, remove the cap and shake the inhaler. Breathe out gently before placing the mouthpiece in your mouth. As you begin to breathe in slowly and deeply, press down on the canister and continue to inhale steadily. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable, before exhaling. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating the steps.
It is important to note that the inhaler should only be used for the number of doses indicated on the label before starting a new inhaler. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female visits her doctor with a complaint of oral ulcers that have been persistent for a month. She also reports experiencing swollen and painful hands for the past two weeks. During the examination, the doctor observes a malar rash on her face. To identify the underlying condition, the doctor orders some blood tests. What is the most sensitive antibody test for the underlying condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANA
Explanation:Anti-Ro is less sensitive than ANA as it is only present in a smaller number of cases.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is found to be HPV positive. A follow-up cytology swab reveals normal cells. She is asked to return for a second HPV swab after 12 months, which comes back negative. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 5 years
Explanation:If the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months shows a negative result for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall for cervical cancer screening. Since the patient is over 50 years old, a smear test should be taken every 5 years as part of routine recall. It is not necessary to perform a cytology swab or refer the patient to colposcopy as a negative HPV result does not indicate the presence of cervical cancer. Additionally, repeating the HPV test in 3 years is not necessary for this patient as it is only the routine recall protocol for patients aged 25-49.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man and his partner visit the GP with a complaint of left-sided testicular pain that has been bothering him for the past 5 days. Upon examination, the left testicle appears swollen and red, and the pain subsides when the testicle is elevated. There are no signs of penile discharge or palpable masses. The right testicle appears normal. What is the most probable causative organism responsible for this man's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:The most frequent cause of epididymo-orchitis in sexually active younger adults is Chlamydia trachomatis. This man’s condition is likely caused by this bacterium. On the other hand, Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis are common culprits in men over 35 years old or those who engage in anal sex, making it improbable that they caused this man’s condition.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active young adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents due to experiencing left-sided hip pain over the past few days. Upon examination, X-rays reveal a slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE). What is the definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal fixation across the growth plate
Explanation:When a slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SCFE) occurs, it is crucial to seek immediate medical attention as there is a risk of avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Referral to paediatric orthopaedics is necessary, and the child should not bear weight and should be given pain relief to ensure comfort. The most effective treatment for SCFE is internal fixation surgery, which prevents the slip from worsening. The Ponseti method, which involves a series of manipulations and casts over several weeks, is typically used to treat clubfoot.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset upper abdominal pain radiating to the back. She reports experiencing similar pain in the past, especially after eating, but this episode is the most severe. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease (CKD), and hypercholesterolemia. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. On examination, there is tenderness to palpation of the epigastrium. Blood tests are ordered, and the results are as follows:
- Bilirubin: 28 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 321 µmol/L (30 - 100)
- AST: 93 iu/L (3 - 30)
- Amylase: 1090 u/L (70 - 300)
- Calcium: 1.92 mmol/L (2.1 - 2.6)
What is the most appropriate next step in investigating the likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transabdominal ultrasound
Explanation:In cases of acute pancreatitis, early ultrasound imaging is crucial in determining the underlying cause, as this can impact the course of treatment. For instance, if the patient has gallstones or biliary obstruction, management may involve cholecystectomy to prevent future attacks of pancreatitis or biliary sepsis. In this patient’s case, her symptoms and laboratory results suggest gallstones as the likely cause of her acute pancreatitis. Therefore, an ultrasound scan is recommended as the first-line investigation to confirm the presence of gallstones and identify any biliary involvement. Blood cultures are not necessary in the absence of signs of infection or sepsis. Contrast-enhanced CT may be used if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but given the patient’s history of CKD, it may not be the most appropriate option. Endoscopic ultrasound may be considered if MRCP is inconclusive, but MRCP is only recommended if abdominal ultrasound has not detected gallstones.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a range of physical symptoms that have been ongoing for the past 7 years. Despite multiple investigations and consultations with various specialists, no organic cause has been found for his symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder
Explanation:The appropriate diagnosis for a patient who is experiencing persistent, unexplained symptoms is somatisation disorder, as they are primarily concerned with the symptoms rather than a specific underlying diagnosis like cancer (which would be indicative of hypochondria). It is important to note that intentional production of symptoms, such as self-poisoning, would fall under the category of Munchausen’s syndrome.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman returns to her GP after attempting lifestyle modifications and pelvic floor exercises for four months without success in managing her urinary stress incontinence. She expresses a desire for additional treatment options but prefers to avoid surgery. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescription of duloxetine
Explanation:If pelvic floor muscle exercises are ineffective and surgical intervention is not desired, duloxetine may be used to manage stress incontinence, as per NICE guidance from 2019. It should be noted that bladder retraining is not recommended for this type of incontinence, and oxybutynin is only indicated for urge incontinence if bladder retraining has failed. Referral for urodynamics testing is also not recommended, with urogynaecology being the preferred option for secondary care. Additionally, NICE does not recommend continuing pelvic floor exercises for an additional 3 months.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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