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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a lump a few weeks ago while taking a bath and reports that it has appeared quite rapidly. He is not experiencing any symptoms and is otherwise healthy.
Upon examination, the patient appears to be in good overall health. There is a firm, non-tender swelling on the right side. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the swelling is translucent when tested with a light source. It is easy to get above the swelling, and the scrotal skin appears normal in color and temperature.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Reassure the patient that this condition is benign and to seek review if any new symptoms appear
Correct Answer: Refer to the general surgeons for routine elective hernia repair
Explanation:Understanding Hydroceles: Causes and Diagnosis
A hydrocele is a painless swelling that occurs in the scrotum due to a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. It is often confined to one side and the underlying testicle may not be palpable. Transillumination with a light source can help diagnose a hydrocele.
Hydroceles can be primary or secondary. Primary hydroceles tend to occur in children and the elderly and appear gradually. Secondary hydroceles, on the other hand, are associated with testicular pathology and tend to appear rapidly. Possible underlying causes of a secondary hydrocele include testicular tumour, infection (epididymo-orchitis), torsion, and trauma.
A clinical diagnosis is often sufficient, but an ultrasound scan may be requested in cases of secondary hydrocele or when there is suspicion of an underlying pathology. For instance, a new onset, rapidly growing hydrocele in a man in his thirties may warrant an ultrasound scan to rule out a testicular tumour.
If the history and examination do not suggest an infective/inflammatory process, torsion, or trauma as an underlying cause, immediate referral to the hospital is not necessary. The use of anti-inflammatory and antibiotics is also not indicated in such cases. Understanding the causes and diagnosis of hydroceles can help in their appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has a medical history of well-controlled osteoarthritis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Currently, she takes Symbicort (budesonide with formoterol) 200/6, salbutamol, and uses senna and naproxen tablets as required.
Her recent urine sample indicates an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 87 mg/mmol, which is higher than the previous sample taken 6 months ago, showing an ACR of 79 mg/mmol. Additionally, her serum urea and creatinine results have mildly deteriorated over the last 6 months.
During her clinic visit, her blood pressure measures 129/76 mmHg.
What medication changes would you suggest for Evelyn?Your Answer: Stop naproxen
Correct Answer: Start ramipril and atorvastatin, consider alternatives to naproxen
Explanation:Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, all patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of cardiovascular disease. In the case of a patient experiencing a decline in renal function, it may be advisable to discontinue the use of naproxen, although this decision should be made in consideration of the patient’s symptoms and functional impairment. The recommended course of action would be to start the patient on ramipril and atorvastatin while exploring alternative treatments for osteoarthritis. The second option is only partially correct, as ramipril is advised regardless of blood pressure in CKD patients with this level of proteinuria. The third option doesn’t include ramipril or atorvastatin, while the fourth and fifth options do not include atorvastatin. Ultimately, the decision to discontinue naproxen use will depend on the healthcare professional’s clinical judgement, the patient’s preferences, and the frequency of use.
Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management
Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.
To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.
According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.
The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is worried about his left testis as he has observed a swelling and some slight discomfort. The discomfort intensifies when he stands and subsides when he lies down. The left side scrotum hangs lower and feels like “a bag of worms”. Both testes are of the same size and feel normal. The swelling becomes more noticeable when he performs a Valsalva manoeuvre while standing.
Select the accurate statement from the options given.Your Answer: A renal tumour is a likely cause
Correct Answer: Controversy surrounds the need for treatment
Explanation:Varicocele: To Treat or Not to Treat?
Varicocele is a common condition found in 20% of all men in the general population and 40% of infertile men. While it may cause abnormal sperm count and infertility, controversy surrounds the need for treatment. A Cochrane review has cast doubt on the merits of varicocelectomy, but European guidelines cite several meta-analyses favoring treatment. Surgery is only indicated for persistent pain. In older men with newly symptomatic varicocele, an advanced renal tumor is possible and should be excluded. Overall, most varicoceles do not require treatment and are unlikely to cause long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly last week and is painful. He has no other relevant past medical history.
On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like a 'bag of worms' and is above his right testicle. It remains there when he lies down.
You discuss the fact that you think he has a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?Your Answer: Scrotal or groin pain is common with a varicocele
Correct Answer: About 90% of varicoceles occur on the left side
Explanation:It is common for men with a varicocele to experience pain or a sensation of heaviness or dragging in the scrotum. However, a varicocele on the right side alone is uncommon and requires referral to a urologist. Additionally, around 25% of men with abnormal semen parameters are found to have a varicocele, and this condition affects 40% of infertile men.
Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.
Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.
In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man, John, reports that his older brother has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer after having his PSA test done as part of the national screening programme. John says that he has had his PSA test today and the results were normal.
When will John's next PSA test be due?Your Answer: 5 years
Correct Answer: 3 years
Explanation:In the UK, breast cancer screening is currently offered to women between the ages of 50 and 70 every three years. However, there are plans to expand this service to include women aged 47 to 73 by the end of 2016. Additionally, women between the ages of 40 and 50 who are at a high risk of developing breast cancer may be offered screening every two years.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction. You suggest a trial of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor (such as sildenafil) after discussing his condition. What would be a contraindication to prescribing this medication?
Your Answer: Recent chest pain awaiting cardiology opinion
Explanation:The use of PDE 5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, is contraindicated in individuals who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or unstable angina. However, in the case of someone experiencing chest pain and awaiting cardiology opinion, caution should also be exercised before prescribing these medications due to the potential cardiac nature of the symptoms. Additionally, patients with known angina who use a GTN spray should wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil, or 48 hours after taking tadalafil, to avoid the risk of excessive hypotension leading to a myocardial infarction.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Mr. Johnson is a 65-year-old man with multiple sclerosis who has a long term catheter. He was admitted to hospital following a fall and discharged the next day. As part of his work up in the emergency department his urine was sent off for culture.
You receive a letter in your inbox with the urine culture results:
Escherichia coli sensitive to amoxicillin, nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim
You note that he is penicillin allergic. You call Mr. Johnson to find out how he is, however he denies any urinary symptoms or haematuria. There is no blockage and his catheter is draining well.
How will you best manage Mr. Johnson?Your Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim
Correct Answer: No treatment needed
Explanation:NICE guidelines advise against the routine treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria in catheterised patients. Treatment should only be given if the patient is experiencing symptoms. In such cases, a 7-day course of antibiotics may be prescribed, and the catheter may be changed if necessary. However, removal of the catheter is not an option for long-term catheterised patients. If sepsis is suspected, the patient should be referred to a hospital for intravenous antibiotics.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 52-year-old man goes for a routine medical check-up before starting a new job. He has no complaints, and his physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests are ordered, and all the results are normal except for:
Uric acid 0.66 mmol/l (0.18-0.48 mmol/l)
After reading about gout online, the patient is concerned about his risk. What treatment should be started based on this finding?Your Answer: No treatment
Explanation:NICE doesn’t recommend treating asymptomatic hyperuricaemia to prevent gout. While high levels of serum uric acid are associated with gout, it is possible to have hyperuricaemia without experiencing any symptoms. Primary prevention of gout in such cases has been found to be neither cost-effective nor beneficial to patients. Instead, lifestyle changes such as reducing consumption of red meat, alcohol, and sugar can help lower uric acid levels without the need for medication. The other options listed are only indicated for the treatment of gout when symptoms are present.
Understanding Hyperuricaemia
Hyperuricaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. This can be caused by an increase in cell turnover or a decrease in the excretion of uric acid by the kidneys. While some individuals with hyperuricaemia may not experience any symptoms, it can be associated with other health conditions such as hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and the metabolic syndrome.
There are several factors that can contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia. Increased synthesis of uric acid can occur in conditions such as Lesch-Nyhan disease, myeloproliferative disorders, and with a diet rich in purines. On the other hand, decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by drugs like low-dose aspirin, diuretics, and pyrazinamide, as well as pre-eclampsia, alcohol consumption, renal failure, and lead exposure.
It is important to understand the underlying causes of hyperuricaemia in order to properly manage and treat the condition. Regular monitoring of uric acid levels and addressing any contributing factors can help prevent complications such as gout and kidney stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) has transferred to the surgery. He is reviewed in clinic and it is noted that his vaccination history is not up to date. The patient's renal disease is advanced and he says that his renal specialist has been discussing the potential for haemodialysis and eventually transplantation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination regimen for this patient?Your Answer: influenza and pneumococcal and BCG vaccine
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B, influenza and pneumococcal
Explanation:Vaccination Recommendations for Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) are at increased risk of infections due to their compromised immune system. Vaccination is an important preventive measure for these patients. The following vaccines are recommended for patients with CKD:
Hepatitis B, influenza, and Pneumococcal Vaccines
Patients on Renal Replacement Therapy (RRT) or those likely to require RRT in the future should receive the standard series of three doses of hepatitis B vaccine. influenza vaccine should be given annually to all patients with CKD. Patients with CKD 3 or above should be offered two doses of Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) two months apart, followed by a booster dose of PCV every five years.Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B Vaccine
Patients with haemophilia should receive the combination of Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B vaccine.Hib MenC, Men B Pneumococcal Vaccine
Patients with a defective spleen, such as those with sickle cell disease or those who have had or will require splenectomy, should receive this combination vaccine.influenza and Pneumococcal and BCG Vaccine
The BCG vaccine is not recommended for patients with CKD unless they are at increased risk of tuberculosis.It is important to note that immunisation should be given early in the course of progressive renal disease to maximise the chance of immunity. Live vaccines may need to be deferred in severely immunocompromised patients, but the majority of patients with CKD have sufficient immune function to safely receive live vaccines if there is no inactivated form available. Patients should also be monitored for antibody levels and offered booster doses as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify the one characteristic that would strongly indicate a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome instead of nephritic syndrome.
Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Proteinuria > 3.5g/24 hours
Explanation:Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome and Nephritic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. On the other hand, nephritic syndrome is defined by azotemia, hematuria, hypertension, and oliguria. Both syndromes present with edema, but the amount of proteinuria is higher in nephrotic syndrome.
In nephrotic syndrome, the glomerulus has small pores that allow protein to pass through but not cells, resulting in proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia. The liver compensates for protein loss by increasing the synthesis of albumin, LDL, VLDL, and lipoprotein(a), leading to lipid abnormalities. Patients with nephrotic syndrome are also at risk of hypercoagulability and infection due to the loss of inhibitors of coagulation and immunoglobulins in the urine.
The etiology of nephrotic syndrome varies depending on age and comorbidities. Minimal change disease is the most common cause in children, while focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause in younger adults. Membranous nephropathy is the most common cause in older people, and diabetic nephropathy in adults with long-standing diabetes. Secondary causes include amyloidosis, lupus nephritis, and multiple myeloma.
Categorizing glomerular renal disease into syndromes such as nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome helps narrow the differential diagnosis. Understanding the differences between these two syndromes is crucial in the diagnosis and management of glomerular renal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
Select from the list of serum biochemical investigations the single one that is typical for a patient with this condition.Your Answer: High sodium
Correct Answer: Low bicarbonate
Explanation:Renal Failure and its Effects on Electrolyte Balance
Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis due to decreased excretion of H+ ions and reduced synthesis of urinary buffers such as phosphate and ammonia. This results in a marked decrease in urinary phosphate levels and a rise in extracellular potassium levels due to intracellular displacement. Calcium homeostasis is also affected as the kidney’s role in activating vitamin D and increasing calcium reabsorption from the kidneys is inhibited by phosphate retention. Sodium levels may be normal or decreased due to water retention outweighing the decreased excretion. Overall, renal failure has significant effects on electrolyte balance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of perineal and lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He also reports urinary frequency, dysuria, and poor urinary flow. He decided to seek medical attention now because he has been experiencing some discomfort during ejaculation over the last week. During rectal examination, the physician notes a tender, normal sized prostate gland. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic prostatitis
Explanation:The individual in question is suffering from chronic prostatitis, which is characterized by symptoms lasting for at least three months. These symptoms may include pain in various areas such as the perineum, abdomen, lower back, inguinal region, scrotum, testis, or penis. Additionally, the patient may experience lower urinary tract symptoms or sexual dysfunction, such as erectile dysfunction, premature ejaculation, discomfort during ejaculation, or decreased libido. It is important to note that urethritis would not cause perineal pain or lower urinary tract symptoms, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is typically painless and presents with a smooth, enlarged prostate on examination in conjunction with lower urinary tract symptoms. In cases where patients experience persistent perineal pain and recurrent urinary tract infections despite antibiotic therapy, a prostatic abscess may be suspected, often accompanied by an enlarged prostate upon examination.
Treatment for Chronic Prostatitis
Chronic prostatitis is a condition that requires a prolonged course of treatment. One of the recommended treatments is a quinolone, which is a type of antibiotic. However, there is some debate about the effectiveness of prostatic massage in improving outcomes. Despite this, there is no conclusive data published to date. It is important to note that treatment for chronic prostatitis should be tailored to the individual patient and their specific symptoms. Additionally, patients should follow up with their healthcare provider regularly to monitor their progress and adjust treatment as needed. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for those with chronic prostatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man with a history of stage 3a chronic kidney disease and hypertension presents with recurrent gout. He has experienced three episodes in the past year and requires prophylactic therapy with allopurinol. He is currently taking amlodipine and atorvastatin. What is the recommended approach for initiating allopurinol in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence allopurinol and provide colchicine to take simultaneously while starting
Explanation:When starting allopurinol for this patient, it is important to use either NSAID or colchicine cover. This is because allopurinol can cause acute flares of gout due to changes in uric acid levels in the serum and tissues. Therefore, commencing allopurinol without any cover is not recommended. However, since the patient has chronic kidney disease, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories should be avoided. Indomethacin may be an alternative cover option for some patients. Prednisolone is effective but has many adverse effects and should only be used for a few days. It is important to note that this patient doesn’t have any contraindications to allopurinol, such as a history of hypersensitivity syndrome, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, having the HLA-B*5801 allele, or severe renal failure.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old builder presents to the clinic with persistent hypertension despite optimal medical management. The patient is well and has no other medical conditions. The hypertension was initially detected coincidentally during a well man check. As the patient remains hypertensive, investigation for secondary causes is considered.
Which feature is most suggestive of renovascular hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A rise of serum creatinine of ≥ 20% on starting an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Renovascular hypertension can have various presentations and is often asymptomatic. However, certain features may suggest the diagnosis, such as abrupt onset of hypertension in middle-aged or older patients, severe hypertension, hypertension developing in a patient with other evidence of vascular disease, hypertension in the absence of a family history of hypertension, renal impairment occurring during treatment with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, hypertension with hypokalaemia, recurrent episodes of acute pulmonary oedema, and an abdominal bruit best heard over the flank. Renovascular hypertension occurs when stenosed renal arteries prevent afferent flow, and angiotensin II becomes the only mechanism by which the kidney can increase filtration. ACE inhibitors remove this regulatory mechanism and reduce perfusion pressure. Therefore, renal impairment following initiation of an ACE inhibitor would be more indicative of a renovascular problem than refractory hypertension with two Antihypertensive agents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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As the on-call physician, you encounter a patient in their early 50s who has been experiencing a painful erection for the past 6 hours. The patient had taken sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitor, the previous night. The patient was diagnosed with myeloma 4 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment under the haematology team.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to the surgical team
Explanation:If a patient experiences priapism, urgent assessment in a hospital is necessary. While priapism is a rare side effect of taking PDE-5 inhibitors, patients with blood disorders such as sickle cell disease, multiple myeloma, or leukemia are at an increased risk.
Priapism is considered a surgical emergency, and if it lasts for more than two hours, immediate referral to a hospital’s surgical team is required for treatment.
If the priapism has been present for less than two hours, some measures may help resolve it. These include attempting to pass urine, taking a warm bath or shower, drinking plenty of water, going for a gentle walk, doing exercises like squats or running on the spot, and taking painkillers like paracetamol if necessary.
Priapism is a condition where a man experiences a prolonged erection that lasts for more than 4 hours and is not related to sexual stimulation. There are two types of priapism: ischaemic and non-ischaemic. Ischaemic priapism is caused by reduced blood flow to the penis, while non-ischaemic priapism is caused by increased blood flow. Priapism can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication, trauma, and underlying medical conditions such as sickle cell disease. Symptoms include pain and a persistent erection. Diagnosis is made through clinical examination and tests such as blood gas analysis and ultrasonography. Treatment for ischaemic priapism involves aspiration of blood from the penis, injection of a saline flush, and vasoconstrictive agents. Non-ischaemic priapism is typically observed. It is important to seek medical attention promptly as untreated priapism can lead to permanent tissue damage and long-term erectile dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has hesitancy, a weak and sometimes intermittent urinary stream and terminal dribbling. He has to pass water once or twice in the night. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is firm and smooth and without nodules. It is enlarged to about two fingers’ breadth. Urinalysis is normal. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 1.5 ng/ml (cut off age 55 - 59 = 3.5 ng/ml). He is otherwise well. He finds the symptoms troublesome and requests something to help quickly.
Which would be the most appropriate drug to prescribe to relieve his symptoms quickly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tamsulosin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in men, characterized by troublesome symptoms such as difficulty urinating. There are several treatment options available, depending on the severity of symptoms and the size of the prostate.
Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin, are usually the first-line treatment for men with moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms. These drugs reduce the tone in the muscle of the neck of the bladder, providing relief within days.
5-alpha-reductase inhibitors, such as finasteride, can be offered to men with symptoms. These drugs block the synthesis of dihydrotestosterone from testosterone and can reduce symptoms, but it may take several months before benefit is noted.
Oral desmopressin, an analogue of antidiuretic hormone, can be used when nocturnal polyuria is the predominant symptom and there is no other obvious treatable cause.
Goserelin, a gonadorelin analogue, is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Given the examination findings of a smoothly enlarged prostate and a normal PSA, prostate cancer is unlikely.
Antimuscarinic drugs, such as oxybutynin, can be added for men with a mixed picture of voiding and storage symptoms. However, for men with predominantly voiding symptoms and signs of BPH on examination, oxybutynin would not be first line.
In summary, treatment options for BPH depend on the individual’s symptoms and prostate size. Alpha-blockers and 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors are commonly used, while desmopressin and goserelin are reserved for specific cases. Antimuscarinic drugs may be added for men with mixed symptoms, but are not first-line for those with predominantly voiding symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy was thought to have a unilateral undescended testicle at birth. At 6 months, the testicle is palpable in the inguinal canal, but cannot be brought down into the scrotum.
What is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgery at 6 months
Explanation:Undescended Testicles in Infants: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Undescended testicles, also known as cryptorchidism, is a common condition in male infants where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum. This can lead to potential complications such as infertility and an increased risk of testicular cancer.
The recommended course of action is to refer the infant to paediatric surgery or urology before six months of age. The current recommended timing for surgery is before 12 months of life to preserve the stem cells for subsequent spermatogenesis. However, even with surgical treatment, long-term outcomes remain problematic with impaired fertility and an increased cancer risk.
If one or both testicles are retractile, annual follow-up throughout childhood is advised due to the risk of ascending testis syndrome. Hormone treatment is an option, but it has a lower success rate and more adverse effects compared to surgery.
For cases where a single testis is undescended, a referral to paediatric surgery or urology should be made by six months of age if the testis has not descended. It is important to review the surgical option after 12 months of age.
Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing undescended testicles in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You receive a letter explaining that one of your patients, Mrs. Smith has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) 5 and is due to commence haemodialysis. It outlines the vaccines that she now requires. Which diseases does she need protection against?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal, influenza and Hepatitis B
Explanation:Haemodialysis units must remain vigilant against blood-borne viruses, despite following standard infection control measures, in order to safeguard both patients and healthcare staff. Fortunately, the occurrence of hepatitis B outbreaks associated with dialysis units has significantly decreased over the past three decades. The Department of Health recommends immunisation against Pneumococcus, influenza, and Hepatitis B for individuals with chronic kidney disease, including those undergoing haemodialysis. While vaccination schedules for both children and adults are rapidly evolving, healthcare professionals must stay informed of these changes and be aware of recommendations for special groups. Although the administration of vaccinations is often delegated, general practitioners must be knowledgeable about contraindications and schedules to provide guidance to patients and parents. Conducting audits of specific target groups may reveal a need for catch-up immunisation in light of changing recommendations.
The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.
The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man comes to the out of hours GP complaining of sudden onset left sided scrotal pain, lower abdominal pain and vomiting. He mentions having symptoms of coryza for the past three days. During the examination, the left testicle is found to be swollen, tender and high riding.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the presumed diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly and doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10 days
Explanation:Testicular Torsion and Epididymo-orchitis
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that occurs when the testicle twists on the spermatic cord, leading to a compromised blood supply to the testicle. In such cases, immediate medical attention is required. Antibiotic treatment may be necessary if epididymo-orchitis is suspected, but only after torsion has been ruled out. These treatments may be appropriate if a sexually transmitted organism is suspected. In addition to medication, supportive care such as scrotal elevation and pain relief may help alleviate symptoms of epididymo-orchitis. It is important to note that the Alvarado score, a clinical scoring system used to diagnose appendicitis, is not applicable in this case. Proper diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing testicular torsion and epididymo-orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy experiences urinary retention and an acute kidney injury. Which medication should be discontinued?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Due to the risk of lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued as the patient has developed an acute kidney injury. Additionally, in the future, it may be necessary to discontinue paroxetine as SSRIs can exacerbate urinary retention.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of urinary frequency and nocturia three times per night. These symptoms have gradually worsened over a period of several months. He denies fever or abdominal pain. He is normally fit and well and takes no regular medication.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digital rectal examination (DRE)
Explanation:Investigations for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. To diagnose BPH and rule out other potential causes, several investigations may be necessary.
Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is the most appropriate initial investigation for BPH. It can identify an enlarged prostate and any irregular or hard areas that could indicate malignancy.
Abdominal Ultrasound (US) may be indicated after a DRE if there is evidence of raised creatinine or urinary retention, to identify evidence of reflux nephropathy.
Creatinine (Cr) is useful to investigate for acute or chronic renal impairment, which is a complication of BPH due to chronic urinary retention causing reflux nephropathy. However, it is not the most appropriate initial investigation.
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is useful, in combination with DRE, to rule out malignancy as the cause of symptoms. However, PSA levels can be raised due to many reasons, so it is important to avoid recent ejaculation, heavy exercise, or a recent DRE before taking the test.
Urine culture is useful to rule out a urinary tract infection (UTI) as the cause of symptoms. However, it is not the most likely cause for BPH symptoms. Urine culture would be appropriate if the patient had more symptoms of a UTI, such as dysuria, fever, or abdominal pain.
Overall, a combination of investigations may be necessary to diagnose and manage BPH effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old girl presents with a fever (38 oC) for 48 hours and occasional vomiting. A urine sample was sent to the laboratory and you receive the following result:
White cells
> 100 cells per µl
Red blood cells
> 100 cells per µl
Organisms
3+
Epithelial cells
1+
Culture
Escherichia coli> 108
Which of the following would be the single most appropriate initial management for this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start antibiotics immediately
Explanation:Interpretation of Urine Test Results in Children with Suspected Urinary Tract Infection
Interpretation of urine test results in children with suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) is crucial in determining the appropriate course of treatment. A positive result for bacteriuria and fever of 38oC or higher suggests a typical bacterial infection, which may progress to an upper UTI. In such cases, referral to a paediatric specialist is recommended. However, if there are no indications of an atypical infection or serious illness, treatment with an antibiotic showing a low resistance pattern is reasonable.
It is important to note that routine prophylaxis with antibiotics after a first infection is not necessary, nor is imaging required if the child responds to treatment within 48 hours. However, imaging is necessary during and after atypical infections and after recurrent infections for a child of this age. Therefore, careful interpretation of urine test results and appropriate follow-up measures are essential in managing UTIs in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of poor urinary stream and dribbling. He has had four urinary tract infections (UTIs) diagnosed in the last eight months. He is otherwise developmentally normal.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valve
Explanation:Possible Causes of Poor Urinary Stream in Boys
Poor urinary stream in boys can be a sign of urinary-tract obstruction, which is often caused by posterior urethral valves. While this condition is usually diagnosed before birth, delayed presentation can be due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Other possible causes of poor urinary stream include urethral stricture, bladder calculi, and neurogenic bladder. However, these conditions are less common and may be associated with other developmental or neurological issues. Vesicoureteric reflux, which occurs when urine flows back from the bladder up the ureters, may also be a result of urinary tract obstruction but is not likely to be the primary cause of poor urinary stream and terminal dribbling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is an inpatient in the Nephrology Ward. He has chronic renal failure. He is on dialysis and is anaemic, with a haemoglobin concentration of 85 mg/l (normal range: 130–180 mg/l). He is being considered for erythropoietin therapy.
What is the most important consideration for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Up to 30% of patients on erythropoietin may experience a rise in blood pressure
Explanation:Myth-busting: The Effects of Erythropoietin on Blood Pressure, Sexual Function, Cognitive Function, Exercise Tolerance, and Quality of Life in Dialysis Patients
Contrary to popular belief, erythropoietin doesn’t always lead to a rise in blood pressure. While up to 30% of patients may experience this side effect, it is not a universal occurrence. Additionally, erythropoietin has been shown to improve sexual function, cognitive function, and exercise tolerance in dialysis patients with renal anaemia. Furthermore, contrary to another misconception, erythropoietin has been demonstrated to improve quality-of-life scores in these patients. It is important to monitor blood pressure, haemoglobin, and reticulocyte count during treatment, but erythropoietin can have positive effects on various aspects of patients’ lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
-
Samantha is an 80-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease and hypertension who has scheduled an appointment with you for a medication review. She is currently on ramipril 2.5mg once daily and amlodipine 5mg once daily. Her recent blood and urine tests are as follows:
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)
eGFR 39 ml/min/1.73m²
Urine albumin:creatinine ratio = 73 mg/mmol.
Based on the above results, what is the target blood pressure for Samantha according to NICE guidelines?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:For patients with chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 or more, it is recommended to aim for a lower blood pressure target of <130/80 mmHg. This approach can provide advantages such as reducing the risk of cardiovascular complications and slowing the progression of the disease. However, if the patient’s ACR is less than 70 mg/mmol, the blood pressure target can be slightly higher at <140/90 mmHg. For individuals under 80 years old, the recommended target for home blood pressure readings is <135/85 mmHg. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease. Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a thiazide, a beta blocker and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for hypertension. Her General Practitioner has recently increased some of her medication and has asked her to return to the surgery for a repeat blood pressure measurement and blood test to check for renal function and electrolytes.
Investigations:
Investigation Results Normal value
Serum potassium concentration 3.1 mmol/l 3.5-5.0 mmol/l
Blood pressure 156/94 mmHg <140/90 mmHg
Serum creatinine concentration 115 µmol/l 70-120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the single most likely cause of her hypokalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The thiazide diuretic
Explanation:Causes of Hypokalaemia: Understanding the Factors that Lower Potassium Levels
Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of thiazide diuretics, which inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. This can lead to excess potassium loss via urine, especially in patients with underlying renal impairment. However, the use of a potassium-sparing diuretic can help offset this problem.
Another possible cause of hypokalaemia is primary aldosteronism, also known as Conn syndrome. This condition can cause hypertension and hypokalaemia, but it only accounts for a small percentage of hypertension cases.
Low dietary potassium intake is also a factor that can contribute to hypokalaemia, although it is less common in people who are eating normally. Potassium depletion is more likely to occur in cases of starvation.
Renal tubular acidosis type 4, which is often seen in patients with diabetes, is associated with hyperkalaemia rather than hypokalaemia. On the other hand, renal tubular acidosis types 1 and 2 are linked to hypokalaemia.
Lastly, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors tend to raise the plasma potassium concentration rather than decrease it, due to their action on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Understanding the various causes of hypokalaemia is important in identifying and treating the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination, the GP suspects a testicular tumour rather than epididymo-orchitis. What finding is most likely to have led to this suspicion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A painless testicular swelling
Explanation:Testicular Tumours and Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Testicular tumours can present as painless or painful lumps or enlarged testicles, often accompanied by a dragging sensation and pain in the lower abdomen. Inflamed testicles are very tender, while malignant ones may lack normal sensation. Ultrasound is usually used to confirm the diagnosis.
Acute epididymo-orchitis, on the other hand, is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, often caused by infections spreading from the urethra or bladder. Symptoms may include urethral discharge, hydrocele, erythema, oedema of the scrotum, and pyrexia. Orchitis, limited to the testis, is less common.
The differential diagnosis of a testicular mass includes not only tumours and epididymo-orchitis but also testicular torsion, hydrocele, hernia, hematoma, spermatocele, and varicocele.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with prostate cancer from the given options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate-specific antigen
Explanation:The Controversy Surrounding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
The introduction of the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test has led to increased awareness and earlier diagnosis of prostate cancer. However, the use of PSA testing for screening purposes remains controversial. While PSA is currently the best method for detecting localized prostate cancer and monitoring treatment response, it lacks specificity as it is also increased in patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy. Additionally, the effectiveness and cost-effectiveness of treating localized cancer is still uncertain.
Bone scans at diagnosis are likely unnecessary for patients with a PSA below 20 ng/ml, as bone metastases are unlikely at this level. Repeated bone scans during treatment are also unnecessary unless there are clinical indications, as repeated PSA tests are just as effective and more cost-effective. Biopsies under transrectal-ultrasound control are now commonly used for diagnosing prostate cancer, with a PSA exceeding 4 ng/ml being the usual indication for biopsy.
PSA is a protease produced exclusively by epithelial prostatic cells, both benign and malignant. It breaks down the high molecular weight protein of the seminal coagulum, resulting in more liquid semen. PSA testing is also useful for monitoring therapy in patients with prostate cancer.
Overall, the lack of specificity of the PSA test, combined with a lack of knowledge about the epidemiology and natural history of prostate cancer, are reasons against instituting a national screening program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
Which of the following drugs is most likely be responsible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gold
Explanation:Renal Complications in Rheumatoid Arthritis Treatment
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints and can lead to disability. The use of gold, penicillamine, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents as disease-modifying drugs in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can result in renal complications. Membranous glomerulonephritis is a common complication that occurs due to the widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence reveals granular deposits of immunoglobulin and complement. Methotrexate, another drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can also be toxic to the kidney in large doses. However, such doses are unlikely in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor renal function in patients receiving these medications to prevent renal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.
She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.
She has tried pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months but still finds the symptoms very debilitating. She denies feeling depressed. She is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.
Urinalysis is unremarkable. On vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.
What is the next most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine
Explanation:Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries are an alternative non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the patient only presents with stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary under the 2-week-wait pathway. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the patient’s symptoms persist after 6 months of trying this approach, it is not advisable to continue with the same strategy.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 32
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He reports no dysuria, fever, or other symptoms and feels generally well. He is currently taking apixaban, atenolol, simvastatin, and ramipril due to a history of myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. A urine dipstick test shows positive for blood but negative for leukocytes and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him under the 2-week wait pathway to urology for suspected cancer
Explanation:Management of Painless Haematuria: Choosing the Right Pathway
When a patient presents with painless haematuria, it is important to choose the right management pathway. In this case, a 2-week wait referral to urology for suspected cancer is the appropriate course of action for a patient over 45 years old with unexplained haematuria. Routine referral to urology is not sufficient in this case.
Sending a mid-stream urine sample for culture and sensitivity and starting antibiotics is not recommended unless there are accompanying symptoms such as dysuria or fever. Referring for an abdominal X-ray and ultrasound is also not the best option as a CT scan is more appropriate for ruling out bladder or renal carcinoma.
It is also important to note that while anticoagulants like apixaban can increase the risk of bleeding, they do not explain the underlying cause of haematuria. Therefore, reviewing the use of apixaban alone is not sufficient in managing painless haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man presents with a 3 days history of dysuria accompanied by urinary frequency and urgency. He reports pain in the suprapubic region but denies having fevers or chills. He has not experienced any loss of weight or appetite. There are no known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases.
Upon examination, his vital signs are normal and the abdomen is soft with no palpable mass. However, the suprapubic region is tender upon palpation. The patient is suspected to have acute cystitis and a midstream urine sample is obtained for culture and susceptibility testing.
What is the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allow him to go home on oral antibiotics according to local guidelines for 7 days
Explanation:Men with lower UTI should be offered an immediate antibiotic prescription, unlike women who are not pregnant who may be given a backup antibiotic prescription. UTIs in men are considered complicated and require at least 7 days of antibiotic therapy. Pregnant women and men with lower UTI should be given an immediate antibiotic prescription, taking into account previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as previous antibiotic use that may have led to resistant bacteria. The choice of antibiotic should be reviewed when microbiological results are available. The patient doesn’t need to be admitted or referred at this time as he is clinically well and has no underlying condition. Women with lower UTI who are not pregnant may be considered for a back-up antibiotic prescription if symptoms do not improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min and regular and her blood pressure is 130/80. A full blood count, liver function tests and urea and electrolytes are normal. Her serum albumin is 23 g/l (35 - 50 g/l).
Select the single most appropriate NEXT investigation that should be performed.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dipstick
Explanation:Diagnosing Nephrotic Syndrome: The Importance of Proteinuria and Renal Biopsy
Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria (>3g/24 hours), hypoalbuminaemia (<30g/l), and oedema. To quantify proteinuria, a urine ACR or PCR or 24-hour urine collection is required. However, heavy proteinuria on urine dipstick is sufficient to confirm the need for a renal biopsy. Before a renal biopsy, a renal ultrasound is necessary to ensure the presence of two kidneys and confirm kidney size and position. Autoantibodies aid in diagnosis, but the initial confirmatory investigation is the dipstick. In children and young adults, minimal change glomerulonephritis is the most likely renal biopsy finding, which may be steroid responsive and has a good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
You are working in a GP surgery when you have been asked to review a urine result of a 26-year-old woman who is currently 12 weeks pregnant. The urine sample was collected during her recent appointment with her midwife and the result has returned showing the presence of Escherichia coli. You speak to the patient on the phone to discuss the results and learn that she is well with no history of urinary symptom, abdominal pain or temperature.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibiotic prescription for 7 days
Explanation:The immediate treatment of antibiotics is recommended for pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria. This condition is prevalent and poses a risk for pyelonephritis, premature delivery, and low birth weight, according to NICE guidelines. Treatment for seven days is currently advised. Escherichia coli, which can cause urinary tract infections and gastroenteritis, is a pathogenic organism.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
You see a 60-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly 2 weeks ago. He says that it is uncomfortable and painful. He has no other relevant past medical history. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day.
On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like veins. It is separate from his right testicle and situated above it. The swelling is palpable when standing and lying down.
You discuss the fact that you think this is a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: This patient requires urgent referral to a urologist
Explanation:According to NICE, varicocele is present in approximately 40% of men who are diagnosed with infertility. However, it is not recommended to refer men with a left-sided varicocele for ultrasonography as a routine measure to detect any underlying tumor.
Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.
Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.
In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman with a catheter in place visits your clinic with complaints of offensive-smelling urine and suprapubic pain. She mentions having experienced similar symptoms during a previous urinary tract infection. The patient seems to be in considerable discomfort at present.
What would be the best course of action to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of antibiotics based on previous sensitivities (if available) and send another sample for culture today
Explanation:Research suggests that catheterised patients with a UTI experience better outcomes when treated with a 7-day course of antibiotics instead of a 3-day course. In cases where a patient has mild symptoms, it may be appropriate to wait for a culture before administering treatment. However, if a patient is experiencing significant discomfort, delaying treatment is not recommended. A history of only one previous UTI is not sufficient reason to refer a patient to urology. At present, there is no recommendation for the use of topical antibiotics in catheterised patients with UTIs.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is in good health otherwise. She has no recorded drug allergies. Urinalysis shows positive results for nitrates and 3+ leucocytes. The GP suspects a urinary tract infection.
What is the best course of action in primary care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure
Explanation:To avoid the risk of birth defects, trimethoprim should not be used during the first trimester of pregnancy. When a urinary tract infection is suspected in women, it is recommended to start treatment before waiting for culture results. However, a urine culture and sensitivity test should be done before starting antibiotics and again seven days after completing treatment to ensure it was effective. Local guidelines for prescribing antibiotics should be followed, and cefalexin is a safe alternative to trimethoprim. The current recommendation is to take antibiotics for seven days.
Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This may cause an interaction with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim may also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug competitively inhibits the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the medication. Additionally, trimethoprim blocks the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It also inhibits creatinine secretion, which often leads to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.
When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. Manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication, especially during pregnancy, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two weeks, blood tests are conducted and no other medication changes have been made. The patient is examined and found to be adequately hydrated. As per NICE guidelines, what is the maximum acceptable rise in creatinine levels after initiating an ACE inhibitor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due to his goserelin treatment.
What medication can be prescribed to alleviate this issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Explanation:Hormone Therapies for Prostate Cancer Management
Goserelin is a type of hormone therapy used to manage prostate cancer. However, it can cause side-effects such as hot flashes. To address this, medroxyprogesterone acetate can be prescribed at a 20 mg dosage per day for 10 weeks. If this is not effective or not tolerated, cyproterone acetate at 50 mg twice a day for 4 weeks can be considered.
Denosumab is another treatment option for men on androgen deprivation therapy who have osteoporosis and cannot take bisphosphonates. On the other hand, finasteride is an enzyme inhibitor that is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and androgenic alopecia.
Prednisolone, on the other hand, has no role in managing hot flashes but can be used in treatment regimens for metastatic prostate cancer. Lastly, tamoxifen is a treatment option for gynaecomastia in men undergoing long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with chronic renal failure has been diagnosed with renal osteodystrophy. A medical student is present and asks for an explanation of the mechanism for this.
Select the option that most accurately describes the changes involved.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased
Explanation:Understanding Renal Osteodystrophy: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Renal osteodystrophy is a condition that occurs as a result of hyperparathyroidism secondary to hyperphosphatemia combined with hypocalcemia. These conditions are caused by the decreased excretion of phosphate by the damaged kidney. Additionally, low activated vitamin D3 levels are a result of the damaged kidneys’ inability to hydroxylate vitamin D3 into its active form, calcitriol, which results in further hypocalcemia due to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Hyperparathyroidism then leads to increased osteoclastic activity, cyst formation, and bone marrow fibrosis.
Diagnosis of renal osteodystrophy usually occurs after treatment for end-stage renal disease begins. Blood tests will indicate decreased calcium and calcitriol and increased phosphate and parathyroid hormone. X-rays will also show bone features of renal osteodystrophy, such as chondrocalcinosis at the knees and pubic symphysis, osteopenia, and bone fractures.
Treatment for renal osteodystrophy involves increasing 25(OH)-vitamin D levels by taking alfacalcidol, which increases endogenous calcitriol production and can effectively suppress parathormone in the early stages of chronic kidney disease. Normal 25(OH)-vitamin D levels also prevent the development of osteomalacia. Gut phosphate binders, such as calcium salts and sevelamer (Renagel®), may help reduce phosphate levels.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment of renal osteodystrophy is crucial for managing this condition effectively. Early detection and treatment can prevent further complications and improve the quality of life for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.
He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.
He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.
Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing
Explanation:PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons
PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.
Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.
Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.
Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old gentleman who is being investigated for subfertility. His semen analysis result shows a mild oligozoospermia.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat test in 12 weeks
Explanation:Repeat Confirmatory Semen Analysis and Other Fertility Advice
According to NICE, it is recommended to repeat confirmatory semen analysis after 3 months (12 weeks) from the initial test. This is to allow the cycle of spermatozoa to be completed. However, if there is a significant deficiency in spermatozoa, a repeat test should be taken as early as possible.
While it is known that elevated scrotal temperatures can reduce semen quality, it is uncertain whether wearing loose-fitting underwear can improve fertility. Nevertheless, it is still advisable to wear looser underwear while trying to conceive.
Screening for antisperm antibodies is not recommended as there is no effective treatment to improve fertility. The significance of these antibodies is still unclear.
Overall, these recommendations can help couples who are trying to conceive to take practical steps towards improving their fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner with complaints of painful urination and left knee pain. He had experienced a severe episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. What could be the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis, and this patient exhibits two of these classic symptoms.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.
The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).
To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of pain in his right flank, nephrotic syndrome, elevated blood urea, collateral abdominal veins, and gross haematuria. During the examination, a mass is detected in the right lumbar region. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Clinical Features of Renal-Cell Carcinoma
Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC) is a highly vascular tumor that can obstruct the renal veins. The classic triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass is present in this case, which is suggestive of RCC. However, other conditions may also present with similar clinical features.
Renal papillary necrosis may cause flank pain and haematuria, but an abdominal mass would be unlikely. Polyarteritis nodosa can cause renal failure, hypertension, or both, but a renal mass would not be present, and frank haematuria would be unusual.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is characterized by loin pain and hypertension, with enlarged and palpable kidneys bilaterally. Renal amyloidosis is most likely to present as nephrotic syndrome, but it would be unlikely to cause flank pain or a renal mass.
Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat patients presenting with clinical features of RCC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with drowsiness. Upon examination, he appears rigid. His concerned friends suspect neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following is not a typical feature of this condition?
Renal failure
16%
Pyrexia
5%
Elevated creatine kinase
6%
Usually occurs after prolonged treatment
68%
Tachycardia
5%
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is often observed in patients who have just started treatment, and renal failure may result from rhabdomyolysis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Usually occurs after prolonged treatment
Explanation:Patients who have recently started treatment are commonly affected by neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which can lead to renal failure due to rhabdomyolysis.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs for Parkinson’s disease. It can also occur with atypical antipsychotics. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion. A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases.
Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. IV fluids are given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene may be useful in selected cases. Dantrolene works by decreasing excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle by binding to the ryanodine receptor and decreasing the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, may also be used. It is important to note that neuroleptic malignant syndrome is different from serotonin syndrome, although both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease has a serum creatinine of 746 μmol/l (60-120 μmol/l). He was known to have normal renal function two years previously. On examination, he has evidence of rigidity, resting tremor and postural instability. He appears to have bilateral small pupils. He has a postural BP drop from 160/72 mm/Hg when supine to 138/60 mmHg when standing. Ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis and a full bladder.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of obstructive renal failure in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neurogenic bladder
Explanation:Neurogenic Bladder and Other Causes of Obstructive Renal Failure in Parkinson’s Disease
Parkinson’s disease is often associated with autonomic dysfunction, which can lead to bladder problems such as urgency, frequency, nocturia, and incontinence. In some cases, these symptoms may be mistaken for benign prostatic hypertrophy, but it is important to consider the possibility of neurogenic bladder when risk factors are present. Multichannel urodynamic studies can help confirm the diagnosis and prevent complications such as post-prostatectomy incontinence. Other potential causes of obstructive renal failure in Parkinson’s disease include retroperitoneal fibrosis and renal papillary necrosis, which are rare but serious conditions that require prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a painful, persistent erection that has lasted for six hours and doesn't subside. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:Understanding Priapism: Causes and Types
Priapism is a medical condition characterized by prolonged and painful erections that can last for several hours. There are two types of priapism: low-flow (ischaemic) and high-flow (arterial). Low-flow priapism is the most common type and is often associated with sickle cell disease, leukaemia, thalassemia, and other medical conditions. It is caused by the inadequate return of blood from the penis, resulting in a rigid erection. High-flow priapism, on the other hand, is less common and is usually caused by a ruptured artery from a blunt injury to the penis or perineum.
Stuttering priapism is a distinct condition that is characterized by repetitive and painful episodes of prolonged erections. It is a type of low-flow priapism and is often associated with sickle cell disease. The duration of the erectile episodes in stuttering priapism is generally shorter than in the low-flow ischaemic type.
Other medical conditions that can cause priapism include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, Fabry’s disease, neurologic disorders, such as spinal cord lesions and spinal cord trauma, and neoplastic diseases, such as prostate, bladder, testicular, and renal cancer and myeloma. Many drugs can also cause priapism, but nearly 50% of cases are idiopathic.
In conclusion, priapism is a serious medical condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the causes and types of priapism can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has long-standing treated hypertension. He has had his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) measured on an annual basis. Last year, his eGFR was estimated at 56 ml/minute/1.73 m². This year, he has an unexplained fall in eGFR to 41 ml/minute/1.73 m². This is confirmed by a second blood sample. He feels otherwise well.
What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine outpatient referral to the renal team
Explanation:Referral and Management of Chronic Kidney Disease Patients
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common condition that requires appropriate management to prevent progression and complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines on when to refer CKD patients for specialist assessment. Patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m2, albumin creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, sustained decrease in GFR, poorly controlled hypertension, rare or genetic causes of CKD, or suspected renal artery stenosis should be referred for review by a renal team.
In addition to referral, patients with CKD may require further investigations such as renal ultrasound. An ultrasound is indicated in patients with rapid deterioration of eGFR, visible or persistent microscopic haematuria, symptoms of urinary tract obstruction, family history of polycystic kidney disease, or GFR drops to under 30. However, the results of an ultrasound should not determine referral.
Patients with CKD require regular monitoring, but the frequency of monitoring depends on the stage and progression of the disease. Patients with a rapid drop in eGFR, like the patient in this case, require specialist input and should not continue with annual monitoring. However, urgent medical review is only necessary in cases of severe complications such as hyperkalaemia, severe uraemia, acidosis, or fluid overload.
In summary, appropriate referral and management of CKD patients can prevent complications and improve outcomes. NICE guidelines provide clear indications for referral and investigations, and regular monitoring is necessary to track disease progression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 65-year-old man who has come to discuss PSA testing. He plays tennis once a week with a friend who is on medication for his 'waterworks' and has had his PSA tested. He has come as he is not sure whether he would benefit from a PSA test.
He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.
Which of the following is appropriate advice to give regarding PSA testing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: For every 25 men identified with prostate cancer following a high PSA test result, subsequent treatment will save one life
Explanation:PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer Screening: Understanding the Limitations
PSA testing for prostate cancer screening is a topic of debate among medical professionals. While some advocate for its use, others are wary of over-treatment and patient harm. One of the main concerns is the limitations of PSA testing in terms of its sensitivity and specificity.
When counseling men about PSA testing, it is important to provide them with understandable statistics and facts. For instance, two-thirds of men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, while 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow- and fast-growing cancers, and many men may have slow-growing cancers that would not have impacted their life expectancy if left undiscovered.
Another point of debate is the frequency of PSA testing. While some patients opt for annual testing, experts suggest that a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.
When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. Overall, it is important to understand the limitations of PSA testing and to weigh the potential benefits and risks before making a decision about screening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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