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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is a form of qualitative research that depicts the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a form of qualitative research that depicts the customs of a community?

      Your Answer: Ethnography

      Explanation:

      Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research

      Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.

      Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of long-standing intermittent abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of long-standing intermittent abdominal distension and bloating, which changes with her menstrual cycle, and is interspersed with bouts of loose motions. She works as a teacher in a busy school and finds work stressful. She has previously taken a course of fluoxetine for depression or anxiety. Examination of the abdomen is normal.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Correct Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Gastrointestinal Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a prevalent gastrointestinal disorder affecting 10-20% of the UK population, with a higher incidence in females and those with underlying anxiety. Symptoms include abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and change in bowel habit lasting for at least six months. Defecation may provide relief, while eating can exacerbate symptoms. Other common symptoms include lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder problems. Diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, as examination and investigations are typically normal.

      Ulcerative colitis is a potential differential diagnosis if the patient presents with pain or blood in their stool. However, the long history of symptoms without significant systemic illness, normal examination, and links to stress/menstruation in this case suggest IBS. Normal inflammatory markers would support this diagnosis.

      Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by persistent inflammation or damage, often linked to alcohol excess. The primary symptom is significant pain, which is not present in this case.

      Diverticulitis is an acute presentation, with left iliac fossa pain, change in bowel habit, bleeding per rectum, and systemic illness. The chronic course, combination of symptoms, and normal examination make this diagnosis unlikely.

      Peptic ulcer disease is also unlikely, as it typically causes pain linked to eating, nausea or vomiting, and is acute or progressive in nature. While stress can be a trigger, it is not the primary cause of this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      47.4
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  • Question 3 - You are having a conversation with a patient who is 60 years old...

    Incorrect

    • You are having a conversation with a patient who is 60 years old and has a PSA level of 10.5 ng/ml. What would be the next course of action that the urologist is likely to suggest?

      Your Answer: Staging CT scan

      Correct Answer: Multiparametric MRI

      Explanation:

      The first-line investigation for suspected prostate cancer has been replaced by multiparametric MRI, replacing TRUS biopsy. This change was made in the 2019 NICE guidelines for investigating suspected prostate cancer in secondary care.

      Investigation for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men. The traditional investigation for suspected prostate cancer was a transrectal ultrasound-guided (TRUS) biopsy. However, recent guidelines from NICE have now recommended the increasing use of multiparametric MRI as a first-line investigation. This is because TRUS biopsy can lead to complications such as sepsis, pain, fever, haematuria, and rectal bleeding.

      Multiparametric MRI is now the first-line investigation for people with suspected clinically localised prostate cancer. The results are reported using a 5-point Likert scale. If the Likert scale is 3 or higher, a multiparametric MRI-influenced prostate biopsy is offered. If the Likert scale is 1-2, then NICE recommends discussing with the patient the pros and cons of having a biopsy. This approach helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with TRUS biopsy and ensures that patients receive the most appropriate investigation for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      397.7
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing painful and irregular vaginal bleeding for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing painful and irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 6 weeks. She has been taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill for 8 months and has not missed any pills. She is not on any other medication or using any over-the-counter products. A pregnancy test she recently took came back negative. She denies experiencing dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding.

      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient that irregular bleeding is common whilst taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill and follow-up in 3 months

      Correct Answer: Offer a speculum to assess the cervix, and take endocervical and high-vaginal swabs including a sexual health screen

      Explanation:

      Patients who experience a change in bleeding after being on the combined contraceptive pill for 3 months should undergo a speculum examination. It is common to experience problematic bleeding in the first 3 months after starting a new combined hormonal contraceptive pill, but if bleeding starts after 3 months or is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding, a per vaginal examination and speculum examination should be considered to identify any underlying causes. Although the irregular bleeding may not be serious, it is important to offer an examination as it has started 3 months after starting the combined hormonal contraceptive pill. There is no need to refer the patient to a gynaecology clinic at this stage before further investigation. If problematic bleeding persists, a higher dose of ethinylestradiol can be tried, up to a maximum of 35 micrograms. Changing the dose of progestogen doesn’t appear to improve cycle control, although it may be helpful on an individual basis. There is no reason to discontinue the combined hormonal contraceptive pill and switch to the progestogen-only pill.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      81541.3
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing dinner. Upon examination, you note a three inch laceration on her left hand which is cleaned and sutured. She recalls receiving a tetanus booster shot approximately 10 years ago and has received a total of five tetanus vaccines throughout her life. What is the appropriate recommendation for tetanus prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be given tetanus immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination Not Required for Low-Risk Wound

      This woman’s wound is clean and low-risk, with a very low chance of being contaminated with tetanus bacteria. Fortunately, she has already received five doses of the tetanus vaccine in the past, which means she should not require any further vaccination. It is important to note that tetanus vaccination is crucial for individuals who have not received the vaccine or have not completed the recommended doses. However, in this case, the woman can rest assured that she is protected against tetanus and can focus on proper wound care to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman has reached out for a telephone consultation regarding her recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has reached out for a telephone consultation regarding her recent cervical smear results. She underwent the routine screening programme and is currently not experiencing any symptoms. Her last cervical smear was conducted 3 years ago and was reported as normal. She has not been vaccinated against human papillomavirus (HPV). The results of her recent test are as follows:

      - High-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV): POSITIVE.
      - Cytology: ABNORMAL (high-grade dyskaryosis).

      What would be the next course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to colposcopy for consideration of large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)

      Explanation:

      The appropriate technique to treat cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN2 or CIN3) is urgent large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ). This procedure is commonly performed in the same appointment or in a prompt subsequent appointment. Cryotherapy may also be an option to remove the abnormal cells. Offering the HPV vaccination is not a correct answer as it is only offered to girls and boys aged 12 to 13. A repeat cervical smear within 3 months is also not a correct answer, as it is only offered if the high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) test result is unavailable or cytology is inadequate. Routine referral to gynaecology is also not indicated, as the patient would already be followed up by the colposcopy service.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing bloody, serous discharge from her left nostril for the past three weeks and reports that her nose feels constantly congested. The patient has a 30-year history of smoking 20 cigarettes per day and a medical history of COPD. On examination, her blood pressure is 132/72 mmHg, pulse is regular at 85 beats per minute, and she is unable to breathe through her left nostril. Laboratory results show a hemoglobin level of 120 g/L (normal range 115-160), white blood cell count of 7.0 ×109/L (normal range 4.5-10), and platelet count of 199 ×109/L (normal range 150-450). Her sodium level is 138 mmol/L (normal range 135-145), potassium level is 4.5 mmol/L (normal range 3.5-5.5), and creatinine level is 105 µmol/L (normal range 70-110). An electrocardiogram reveals sinus rhythm. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ENT referral within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Suspected Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

      The suspicion is that the patient may have an underlying nasopharyngeal carcinoma, likely related to smoking, which is causing a blocked left nostril and bloody, serous discharge. It is important not to delay referral to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist by performing investigations through the GP outpatient radiology service. Imaging of the sinuses may be appropriate to determine the extent of any tumor, but this would be done as part of the pre-surgery workup rather than as outpatient GP investigations. A trial of intranasal steroids is not appropriate as a diagnosis of allergic rhinitis is unlikely, and this would waste valuable time in addressing any underlying tumor. Nasopharyngeal cancers are more common in people from southern China, including Hong Kong, Singapore, Vietnam, Malaysia, and the Philippines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 8 - You encounter a 45-year-old man who complains of a painful mouth. He reveals...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 45-year-old man who complains of a painful mouth. He reveals that he has been experiencing a mouth ulcer for about 3 weeks. It started as a small painless sore but has now grown in size and is causing him discomfort. Despite trying various mouthwashes, he has not found any relief. He is in good health and has no other symptoms. Although he is not overly concerned about the ulcer, he would like you to prescribe something to help it heal.

      Upon examination, you notice a 4mm ulcer in his oral cavity, surrounded by a white plaque. There is no lymphadenopathy.

      How would you approach the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently (for an appointment within 2 weeks) to ENT

      Explanation:

      If a person has had a mouth ulcer for more than three weeks, it is important to refer them to secondary care urgently. In cases where there is unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered for an appointment within two weeks. This is also true for patients with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity, or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia, who should be urgently referred for assessment for possible oral cancer by a dentist within two weeks. In this particular case, the patient with a solitary ulcer for more than three weeks should be seen by an ENT specialist within two weeks.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old male with a 13 year history of type 1 diabetes presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male with a 13 year history of type 1 diabetes presents with a three month history of deteriorating pain and stiffness of the right shoulder.

      On examination he has some painful limitation of internal rotation and very limited painful external rotation. He can abduct the right arm to only 90 degrees. Flexion is relatively unimpaired. There is some weakness of movement of that shoulder with slight wasting of shoulder muscles. He has some reduced vibration sensation in both hands.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Frozen Shoulder

      This patient presents with typical symptoms of a frozen shoulder, including global reduction in shoulder movements and slight muscle wasting due to pain and reduced use. While frozen shoulder typically results in limitations in both rotational directions and abduction, the shorter history of symptoms in this case may result in less severe signs. Additionally, the patient’s age is a factor to consider.

      Brachial plexopathy, on the other hand, involves specific dermatomal loss of sensation and strength, such as wrist drop or ulnar nerve palsy, rather than the shoulder. The reduced vibration sense in both hands may indicate early stages of diabetic peripheral neuropathy, but is not directly related to the frozen shoulder diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s...

    Incorrect

    • A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s is prescribed metformin. What is the most probable severe complication that may arise from using this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metformin and Renal Failure: Understanding the Risks

      Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to understand the risks associated with its use in patients with renal failure. Metformin can accumulate in the body and lead to life-threatening acidosis if not properly monitored. Therefore, it is recommended that the dose be adjusted or the drug avoided in patients with reduced kidney function. Additionally, treatment should be interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. Despite these risks, metformin remains a first-line choice for most patients with type 2 diabetes, particularly those who are overweight. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the risks and benefits of metformin use in patients with renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in adolescents? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in adolescents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 12 - A mother brings a 7-week-old girl to the practice for a routine 6–8-week...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings a 7-week-old girl to the practice for a routine 6–8-week physical examination.
      Which is the SINGLE option that would normally be carried out at that examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Auscultation of the heart

      Explanation:

      Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns

      Newborns undergo several tests to ensure their health and development. These tests include auscultation of the heart, examination for developmental dysplasia of the hip, congenital cataracts, and undescended testicles. However, some heart murmurs may not be detected until the ductus arteriosus closes early in life. A hearing test, specifically the automated otoacoustic emission test, is often performed before discharge from the hospital or during the first 4-5 weeks of life. The cover test for squint is not usually done during the newborn stage as it requires the child to fixate on an object held away from the eyes. Blood-spot screening for conditions such as congenital hypothyroidism, phenylketonuria, cystic fibrosis, and sickle cell disease is ideally carried out at five days. A urine test is a diagnostic test rather than a screening test at this age and is usually done if a urinary infection is suspected.

      Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes is seen for review. To manage...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes is seen for review. To manage his diabetes he currently takes metformin 500 mg BD and has been doing so for over a year. His latest HbA1c is 63 mol/mol and so it is agreed to add in a second agent to better manage his glycemic control.

      His eGFR is 40 mL/minute/1.73 m2.

      According to the British National Formulary, which of the following should be avoided because it is ineffective as add-on therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Medication Use in Renal and Hepatic Impairment

      Dapagliflozin, canagliflozin, and empagliflozin should not be initiated or continued if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 60 mL/minute/1.73m2. Gliclazide can be used in renal impairment with careful blood glucose monitoring. Pioglitazone should be avoided in hepatic impairment but can be used in renal impairment. Repaglinide can be used with caution in renal impairment. Sitagliptin can be used in renal impairment with dose adjustment based on eGFR. It is important to consider renal and hepatic function when prescribing medications for diabetes management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic reaction to a wasp sting. She presents to her General Practitioner (GP) a few days later as she is worried about the possibility of this happening again and is seeking advice on what she should do if it does.
      What is the most appropriate initial self-management advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of adrenaline

      Explanation:

      How to Self-Administer an Intramuscular Injection of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The most effective treatment for anaphylaxis is intramuscular (IM) adrenaline, which can be self-administered using adrenaline auto-injectors (AAIs) such as EpiPen® and Jext®.

      Before using an AAI, patients should receive proper training on their use. The recommended dose of adrenaline for adults is 0.3 mg, while for children up to 25-30 kg, it is 0.15 mg. Patients should carry two doses with them at all times, as the dose may need to be repeated after 5-15 minutes.

      It is important to note that a cold compress is not an effective treatment for anaphylaxis, as it is a systemic reaction. Similarly, taking an oral antihistamine should not delay treatment with IM adrenaline.

      If experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to administer the IM adrenaline injection immediately and then seek medical attention. Contacting emergency services is recommended, but should not delay self-administration of the injection. Additionally, if stung by a bee, the sting should be scraped out rather than plucked to avoid squeezing more venom into the skin.

      In summary, knowing how to self-administer an IM injection of adrenaline is crucial for those at risk of anaphylaxis. Proper training and carrying two doses of the medication at all times can help ensure prompt and effective treatment in case of an emergency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 15 - What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split...

    Incorrect

    • What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split into and assessed for a 59-year-old woman named Sarah who has relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis and is applying for the benefit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Daily living component and mobility component

      Explanation:

      The Personal Independence Payment is a benefit for those aged 16 to 64 who have long-term ill health or disability that affects their daily living or mobility for at least 3 months and is expected to last for 9 months. The daily living component covers assistance with tasks such as eating, bathing, dressing, communication, medication management, and financial decision-making. The mobility component covers assistance with moving around and going out. There are standard and enhanced levels for each component based on the level of need. Terminally ill patients automatically receive the enhanced level of the daily living component.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in his right eye that has been occurring once a day for the past few weeks. The pain lasts for about 30 minutes and he is often seen pacing around and shouting during these episodes. His wife reports that his right eye appears red and he has clear nasal discharge during the episodes.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, what advice would you give the patient to prevent future episodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are often triggered by alcohol, and they typically affect individuals of a certain age and gender.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at term without any complications. She is worried about his frequent feeding, especially in the evenings when he can nurse for hours and seems a bit more fussy than during the day. However, he has no vomiting and is producing an adequate amount of wet and dirty diapers. The mother wants to continue breastfeeding and reports that she feels comfortable during feedings with no pain. Upon examination, the baby appears well-hydrated and is not jaundiced. His temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all within normal range for his age. There are no concerns about his weight.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer reassurance, encourage continuing to breastfeed and offer signposting to local breastfeeding team for further support

      Explanation:

      Frequent feeding in a breastfed baby doesn’t necessarily indicate low milk supply in the mother. It is uncommon for a mother to have low milk supply, and if the baby is growing well and producing enough urine, it is a good sign that the milk supply is sufficient. In fact, frequent feeding or cluster feeding is normal in the early weeks and helps to establish a good milk supply. Breastfeeding mothers should be encouraged to seek support from local and national breastfeeding groups and consult with a trained professional to ensure proper infant positioning and latch.

      There is no need to refer the baby to a pediatrician at this stage. It is not recommended to supplement breastfeeding with formula, especially in the early weeks, as this can decrease milk supply. It is important to feed the baby on demand to stimulate milk production. If milk is not removed from the breast, milk production will decrease.

      While maternal prolactin deficiency is a rare cause of low milk supply, testing for it is not necessary in this scenario. If there are signs of low milk supply, such as a baby failing to thrive or becoming dehydrated, and after addressing positioning and latch issues, maternal prolactin deficiency may be considered. Factors that increase the likelihood of this condition include a history of maternal thyroid disorder, eating disorder, hypoplastic breasts, or breast surgery.

      For more information on breastfeeding problems, refer to the NICE clinical knowledge summary.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 18 - A 21-year-old man presents with the rapid development of large oval macules on...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents with the rapid development of large oval macules on his trunk. Some of the macules have a little scale on them. He had noticed a single larger lesion that appeared a few days earlier but thought little of it. He is otherwise well.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Pityriasis Rosea, Guttate Psoriasis, Drug Eruption, Pityriasis Versicolor, and Viral Exanthema

      Pityriasis rosea is characterized by a larger herald patch followed by a rash on the trunk with pink macules and fine scale. The rash will resolve on its own in 6-12 weeks, but emollients or steroid treatments can help relieve itch. Guttate psoriasis typically presents with small lesions preceded by a sore throat, which is not seen in this scenario. Drug eruption causes a maculopapular rash that begins on the trunk and moves to the extremities, but there is no mention of medication in this case. Pityriasis versicolor causes large macules with fine scale on the trunk, which can become confluent, but this is not seen here. A viral exanthem is usually accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever or malaise, which are absent in this case. Knowing the distinguishing features of these skin conditions can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 49 year old teacher comes to you with a recent onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year old teacher comes to you with a recent onset of nosebleeds and bleeding gums. You order immediate blood tests and the results are as follows:

      Hemoglobin 85 g/L
      White blood cells 2.5 x 10^9/L
      Platelets 17 x 10^9/L
      Abnormal clotting
      Blood smear shows bilobed large mononuclear cells

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The image depicts bone marrow failure caused by acute myeloid leukemia, which occurs when abnormal white blood cells accumulate in the bone marrow, replacing normal blood cells. This type of leukemia is more common in individuals over the age of 45, whereas acute lymphoblastic leukemia is mostly seen in children. Unlike lymphoma, which typically presents with enlarged lymph nodes, acute myeloid leukemia can lead to bone marrow failure. Von Willebrand’s disease may cause severe cases of epistaxis and bleeding gums, but abnormalities in blood test results are rare.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia is a prevalent form of acute leukaemia in adults that can occur as a primary disease or as a result of a myeloproliferative disorder. The condition is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can lead to anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, splenomegaly, and bone pain. Poor prognostic features include being over 60 years old, having more than 20% blasts after the first course of chemotherapy, and deletions of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is a subtype of acute myeloid leukaemia that is associated with t(15;17) and the fusion of PML and RAR-alpha genes. This type of leukaemia typically presents at a younger age than other types of AML, with an average age of 25 years old. Auer rods, which are visible with myeloperoxidase stain, are often present, and patients may experience DIC or thrombocytopenia at presentation. However, the prognosis for acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is generally good.

      The French-American-British (FAB) classification system categorizes acute myeloid leukaemia into seven subtypes based on the degree of maturation of the cells: MO (undifferentiated), M1 (without maturation), M2 (with granulocytic maturation), M3 (acute promyelocytic), M4 (granulocytic and monocytic maturation), M5 (monocytic), M6 (erythroleukaemia), and M7 (megakaryoblastic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman presents with periodic spontaneous attacks of vertigo, nausea, tinnitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with periodic spontaneous attacks of vertigo, nausea, tinnitus and reduced hearing in the left ear. She has had these attacks for the last 1-2 years. She has a feeling of aural fullness and discomfort in the left ear in advance of an attack which persists during an attack. Attacks can last up to 2-3 hours each time and occur in clusters over a few weeks. After an attack she feels worn out for a day or two and slightly unsteady.

      When seen she is asymptomatic and head and neck examination is normal. No current hearing impairment is reported or apparent.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate management approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s Disease: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      This patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with Meniere’s disease, including episodic spontaneous vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and aural fullness. Meniere’s disease is characterized by acute attacks lasting a few hours, occurring in clusters, and followed by periods of remission. While there are no specific diagnostic tests for the condition, audiometric testing can be helpful in demonstrating sensorineural low-to-mid frequency hearing loss. Referral to ENT services is recommended to confirm the diagnosis.

      Brandt-Daroff exercises are not recommended for managing Meniere’s disease, as they are used for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. An MRI brain scan would not be an appropriate next step in primary care based on this presentation. While audiometric assessment can be useful, it is not the best option as ENT services can arrange any necessary testing and appropriately investigate the condition. Attacks in Meniere’s disease typically settle within 24 hours, and prolonged attacks should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Referral to ENT services can provide support and input on a multidisciplinary level, which can be key if worsening symptoms, such as persistent hearing impairment, develop over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 21 - A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned that she is not making the required progress with respect to speech development.

      What could you tell the parents about speech and language expectations in this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Around 20-30 words vocabulary would be expected by this age

      Explanation:

      Speech Delay in Children: Possible Causes and Exclusions

      Speech delay is a common issue that affects 3-10% of all children, with boys being 3-4 times more likely to experience it than girls. One possible cause of speech delay in older children is elective mutism, which can be assessed through proper diagnosis. However, before progressing to other investigations, it is important to exclude deafness as a possible cause. Other factors that should be excluded include social and environmental deprivation, disorders of metabolism, and degenerative nervous diseases, which are rare possibilities. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause of speech delay, children can receive the necessary support and intervention to improve their communication skills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 22 - A father brings his 10-year-old daughter to the GP surgery with heel pain....

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 10-year-old daughter to the GP surgery with heel pain. It started two-weeks ago on both heels. The pain is localised to the heel and is worse following exercise and gets better on resting. There is no reported swelling, stiffness or redness. There are no other joint complaints. She is well in herself with no temperature symptoms, night sweats or weight loss. There is no history of trauma. She is an active child and plays for the soccer team at school.

      On examination, her gait and range of movements of her ankle joints are normal. Her temperature is 37.2ºC. Apart from mild swelling over both heels, there is no redness on the heel or other swellings of the foot joints. There is no tenderness on palpation of the Achilles tendon and the plantar aspect of the foot. Pain is elicited on squeezing the sides of both heels.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcaneal apophysitis

      Explanation:

      Sever’s disease, also known as calcaneal apophysitis, should be considered as a possible cause of heel pain in children and adolescents. It is characterized by swelling and irritation of the growth plate in the heel, and is often seen in active kids who are going through a growth spurt. Tenderness and swelling in the affected area are common symptoms.

      Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the connective tissue supporting the arch of the foot. It typically presents as unilateral pain and tenderness in the plantar aspect of the foot, which was not observed in this case. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.

      Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that usually affects the edges of long bones, such as the femur. It can cause bone pain and interfere with normal activities, but is often accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and fatigue. Since the child did not exhibit these symptoms, osteosarcoma is an unlikely diagnosis.

      Achilles tendinitis is a condition that often develops after an injury, and is characterized by pain and swelling in the Achilles or ankle joints. However, since there was no history of trauma in this case, Achilles tendinitis is also an unlikely cause of the child’s symptoms.

      Understanding Calcaneal Apophysitis (Sever Disease)

      Calcaneal apophysitis, commonly known as Sever disease, is a condition that causes heel pain in active children. It is an overuse injury that occurs when the growth plate in the heel bone becomes inflamed due to repetitive stress. This condition is most common in children between the ages of 8 and 14 who participate in sports that involve running and jumping.

      The pain associated with Sever disease is typically felt in the back or bottom of the heel and can be severe enough to limit a child’s activity level. Rest, ice, and stretching exercises are often recommended as initial treatment options. In some cases, orthotics or heel lifts may be prescribed to help alleviate symptoms.

      It is important for parents and coaches to be aware of the signs and symptoms of Sever disease, as early intervention can prevent the condition from worsening and potentially causing long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had a number of health related problems in the recent past and feels that they may be a contributing factor because she has taken a lot of sick leave and now has to meet with the head of human resources.

      She suffers from asthma, thyroid disease and acne. She thinks that one of her medicines may be contributing to her depression.

      Which of the following is most likely to cause depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets

      Explanation:

      Medications and Depression

      Depression caused by medication is not a common occurrence. However, certain medications have been linked to depression. These include isotretinoin, lipid soluble beta blockers like propranolol, methyldopa, and opioid analgesics. Steroids have been associated with mania, but levothyroxine treatment doesn’t cause depression. Antihistamines are rarely linked to depression. Out of the medications listed, isotretinoin is the most likely to cause depression. It is important to discuss any concerns about medication and mental health with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 24 - You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot recall a specific injury but reports that the pain has been worsening for the past 2 months. He has experienced muscle spasms in his lower back over the last 48 hours, causing him significant discomfort and preventing him from working. He works in a warehouse and frequently engages in heavy lifting. He is overweight but has no other relevant medical history. There are no red flag symptoms of back pain.

      What is a true statement about nonspecific lower back pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 'StarT BACK' is an online risk stratification tool which can be used to assess a person with lower back pain

      Explanation:

      The online tool ‘StarT BACK’ can be utilized to evaluate individuals with lower back pain who do not exhibit any red flags and determine modifiable risk factors.

      When it comes to analgesia, NSAIDs are the preferred first-line treatment unless there are any contraindications. Diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period if muscle spasms are present.

      It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or normal activities. The NICE CKS guidelines suggest encouraging the individual to stay active, gradually resuming normal activities, and returning to work as soon as possible. Prolonged bed rest is not recommended, and some pain may be experienced during movement, which should not be harmful if activities are resumed gradually and as tolerated. Occupational Health departments may assist in arranging work adjustments to facilitate an early return to work.

      To reduce the risk of recurrence, it is essential to remain as active as possible and engage in regular exercise. Unfortunately, individuals who have experienced low back pain may experience repeated episodes of recurrence and develop acute on chronic symptoms.

      Understanding Lower Back Pain and its Possible Causes

      Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. Although most cases are due to nonspecific muscular issues, it is important to consider possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Some red flags to watch out for include age below 20 or above 50 years, a history of previous malignancy, night pain, history of trauma, and systemic symptoms such as weight loss and fever.

      There are several specific causes of lower back pain that healthcare providers should be aware of. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, with pain typically worse in the morning and on standing. On examination, there may be pain over the facets, which is typically worse on extension of the back. Spinal stenosis, on the other hand, usually has a gradual onset and presents with unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking and resolves when sitting down. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically seen in young men who present with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arthritis is also common in this condition. Finally, peripheral arterial disease presents with pain on walking that is relieved by rest, and may be accompanied by absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia. A past history of smoking and other vascular diseases may also be present.

      In summary, lower back pain is a common presentation in clinical practice, and healthcare providers should be aware of the possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. By identifying red flags and conducting a thorough examination, providers can help ensure that patients receive appropriate care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 25 - A 52-year-old woman complains of infrequent periods, weight loss, tremor and sweating. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman complains of infrequent periods, weight loss, tremor and sweating. She feels her symptoms gradually have worsened over several months. On examination she has a normal blood pressure and resting pulse of 100.
      Select the following investigation that is the most appropriate in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TSH and T4 levels

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, which often includes menstrual irregularity or amenorrhoea. Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is characterized by hypertension and hypokalaemia due to disturbances in aldosterone and renin levels. Phaeochromocytoma, on the other hand, is associated with elevated urinary catecholamines and typically presents with intermittent symptoms such as headache, sweating, tremor, palpitations, and paroxysmal hypertension. Pituitary failure, which may be caused by a pituitary adenoma or pituitary apoplexy, can result in hypothyroidism as part of panhypopituitarism and is best diagnosed with MRI scanning. While anaemia (full blood count and ferritin) can cause tachycardia, it is unlikely to cause tremor and weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is being evaluated. What is the probable long-term antithrombotic treatment he is receiving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Antithrombotic therapy for prosthetic heart valves differs depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically only require aspirin, while mechanical valves require both warfarin and aspirin. However, according to the 2017 European Society of Cardiology guidelines, aspirin is only given in addition if there is another indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Direct acting oral anticoagulants are not used for patients with a mechanical heart valve.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with jaundice, anorexia, nausea, and mild...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with jaundice, anorexia, nausea, and mild tenderness in the right upper abdomen. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and feeling ill. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Liver Disorders During Pregnancy: Causes and Consequences

      During pregnancy, the liver can be affected by various disorders that can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Here are some of the most common liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy:

      1. Viral Hepatitis: Hepatitis B is the most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy, especially in developing countries. While most viral hepatitis infections are not affected by pregnancy, hepatitis E can be fatal for pregnant women.

      2. Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy: This rare disorder can progress to liver failure and usually occurs late in pregnancy. Early delivery can lead to complete recovery.

      3. Gallstones: This is the second most common abdominal emergency in pregnant women and can cause severe pain in the right upper quadrant.

      4. Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: This disorder is characterized by itching and elevated serum bile acids and can lead to serious complications for the fetus, including stillbirth.

      5. Pre-eclamptic Liver Disease and HELLP Syndrome: Jaundice may occur in 3-10% of pre-eclamptic pregnancies, and prompt delivery is the most effective treatment for HELLP syndrome.

      It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these liver disorders and to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications for both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old man presents with sudden difficulty breathing and a known history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with sudden difficulty breathing and a known history of asthma. You are evaluating the severity of his asthma attack and suspect it may be classified as acute severe. What is a characteristic of this classification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to complete full sentences

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about screening for haemochromatosis, as...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about screening for haemochromatosis, as his brother was diagnosed with the condition 3 years ago. The patient is asymptomatic and appears to have no signs of haemochromatosis. What is the most suitable test to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HFE gene analysis

      Explanation:

      When screening for haemochromatosis, the general population should undergo a transferrin saturation test, which involves checking the level of iron in the blood compared to the amount of transferrin. However, if the patient has a family member with haemochromatosis, the most appropriate test would be a genetic analysis of the HFE gene. In practice, this would be done in conjunction with iron studies.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with acute urinary retention. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with acute urinary retention. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Urinary Retention: Understanding the Common Triggers

      Urinary retention is a condition that affects many people, and it can be caused by a variety of factors. The most common cause of urinary retention is benign prostatic hyperplasia, which accounts for over half of all cases. Prostate cancer is another potential cause, although it is less common, accounting for only 13% of cases.

      In addition to these conditions, drugs can also cause urinary retention in some cases. Anticholinergics, antihistamines, calcium channel blockers, nasal decongestants, opioids, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, benzodiazepines, and alcohol are all potential culprits. Spinal cord compression, such as intervertebral disc lesions and spinal tumors, can also lead to urinary retention, although this is a less common cause.

      Finally, acute urinary retention is often seen after surgery. This can be due to pain from traumatic instrumentation, bladder overdistension, or drugs. Understanding the various causes of urinary retention can help individuals and healthcare providers identify potential triggers and develop effective treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 31 - Sophie is a 84-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis and arthritis who...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 84-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis and arthritis who was discharged from hospital 4 weeks ago following a hip replacement surgery. Her GP last saw her during a home visit 3 days after discharge. She had been regularly seen by the district nurse since then. Unfortunately, she had declined significantly since her hospital admission and was found dead by her daughter this morning.

      What is the appropriate course of action for the GP regarding Sophie's death certificate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner

      Explanation:

      If a doctor has not examined the deceased within 28 days prior to their death, the case must be referred to the coroner. This time frame was extended from 14 days due to the COVID pandemic.

      While it may be appropriate to list myocardial infarction as the cause of death in section 1a, the GP is not authorized to issue the death certificate in such cases. It is generally not recommended to cite old age as the cause of death.

      Only a medical practitioner who is registered can complete a death certificate.

      Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner

      When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.

      It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 32 - A 62-year-old man presents with a three month history of epigastric pain after...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with a three month history of epigastric pain after eating and intermittent heartburn between meals. He reports weight loss but denies any nausea or vomiting. There is no change in bowel habit and no history of passing blood or melaena stools. He has no significant past medical history, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week, and quit smoking five years ago. What is the optimal course of action for managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with an oral proton pump inhibitor (for example, omeprazole 20 mg daily) and review in two weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Suspected Oesophageal Cancer

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy should be offered to assess for oesophageal cancer in individuals with dysphagia or those aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. A routine ultrasound scan is unlikely to be helpful, and even if Helicobacter pylori is positive, referral should not be delayed. It is advised to be free from acid suppression therapy for at least two weeks before endoscopy in case treatment masks underlying pathology. Therefore, proton pump inhibitors should not be prescribed when referring urgently for endoscopy. These guidelines aim to improve the recognition and referral of suspected oesophageal cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 33 - A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant with her first child seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant with her first child seeks your advice on whether to breastfeed. She is facing pressure to return to work soon but is aware of the benefits of breastfeeding for both her and her baby's health.

      Which of the following conditions is known to have a lower incidence in breastfed infants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otitis media

      Explanation:

      Benefits of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has been shown to have numerous benefits for both the mother and the baby. According to the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) Promotion of breastfeeding initiation and duration (2006), breastfeeding can help reduce the incidence of various conditions.

      Studies have demonstrated that breastfeeding can reduce the risk of infantile gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, atopic disease, juvenile insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, respiratory infections, and otitis media. However, it is important to note that breastfeeding may not necessarily protect against other conditions such as ADHD, intussusception, or rickets.

      Overall, breastfeeding is a natural and effective way to promote the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 34 - A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful throat. She has been experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful throat. She has been experiencing a sore throat and painful swallowing for the past few days, but her symptoms have worsened over the last 24 hours. She now has neck pain and difficulty opening her mouth fully.
      Upon examination, her temperature is 38.9 °C and her throat shows a displaced uvula, an enlarged right tonsil, and swelling around the right tonsil.
      What is the best initial management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Peritonsillar Abscess: A Serious Complication of Sore Throat

      When evaluating a patient with a sore throat, it is crucial for clinicians to be aware of any potential serious causes or complications. One such condition is a peritonsillar abscess, which requires hospital admission and immediate treatment.

      A peritonsillar abscess can lead to airway obstruction, deeper spread of infection, and abscess rupture. Therefore, it is important to check for clinical features such as difficulty swallowing, fever, and severe throat pain.

      The initial management for a peritonsillar abscess is to arrange hospital admission. Once admitted, the patient can receive inpatient treatment in a safe environment with immediate care and monitoring. Treatment typically involves aspiration or drainage of the abscess, along with antibiotic use and pain relief.

      In summary, a peritonsillar abscess is a serious complication of sore throat that requires prompt recognition and management. Hospital admission is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 35 - A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.

    As per the NICE guidelines for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.

      As per the NICE guidelines for identifying and referring suspected cancer (NG12), which of the following symptoms would necessitate an urgent chest x-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suspected rib fracture

      Explanation:

      Referral and Assessment Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Persistent haemoptysis, superior vena caval obstruction, and stridor are all red flags for possible lung cancer and require immediate referral to a cancer specialist. In addition, NICE NG12 recommends an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks for individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, especially if they have a history of smoking. For those with persistent or recurrent chest infections, finger clubbing, supraclavicular or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis, an urgent chest X-ray should also be considered. Early detection and referral can improve outcomes for individuals with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 36 - A 28-year-old man presents with a 3 days history of dysuria accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a 3 days history of dysuria accompanied by urinary frequency and urgency. He reports pain in the suprapubic region but denies having fevers or chills. He has not experienced any loss of weight or appetite. There are no known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases.

      Upon examination, his vital signs are normal and the abdomen is soft with no palpable mass. However, the suprapubic region is tender upon palpation. The patient is suspected to have acute cystitis and a midstream urine sample is obtained for culture and susceptibility testing.

      What is the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allow him to go home on oral antibiotics according to local guidelines for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Men with lower UTI should be offered an immediate antibiotic prescription, unlike women who are not pregnant who may be given a backup antibiotic prescription. UTIs in men are considered complicated and require at least 7 days of antibiotic therapy. Pregnant women and men with lower UTI should be given an immediate antibiotic prescription, taking into account previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as previous antibiotic use that may have led to resistant bacteria. The choice of antibiotic should be reviewed when microbiological results are available. The patient doesn’t need to be admitted or referred at this time as he is clinically well and has no underlying condition. Women with lower UTI who are not pregnant may be considered for a back-up antibiotic prescription if symptoms do not improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 37 - You think that an 80-year-old man has dementia.

    Which one of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • You think that an 80-year-old man has dementia.

      Which one of the following is more suggestive of vascular dementia than Alzheimer's?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emotional lability

      Explanation:

      Emotional lability in Vascular Dementia

      Emotional lability, which refers to sudden and exaggerated changes in mood or emotions, is a common symptom in patients with vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, leading to damage in different areas of the brain. Emotional lability can manifest as sudden outbursts of anger, crying spells, or inappropriate laughter.

      On the other hand, other symptoms such as memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with language and communication are more suggestive of Alzheimer’s disease. It is important to differentiate between the two types of dementia as they have different underlying causes and may require different treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 38 - A 25-year-old man complains of recurrent headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man complains of recurrent headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3 times a month, which are severe and located on the right side of his head. The headaches are throbbing in nature and last for approximately 8-12 hours. During these episodes, he finds it difficult to continue working and prefers to rest in a dark room. Paracetamol has not been effective in relieving his symptoms. What medication should be prescribed to decrease the frequency of these headaches?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For the acute treatment of migraine, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended. Prophylaxis options include topiramate or propranolol. Based on the patient’s history, prophylaxis with propranolol or topiramate should be considered. Zolmitriptan is not indicated for prophylaxis, but can be used for acute treatment of migraine.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 39 - You admit a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant to the obstetric ward....

    Incorrect

    • You admit a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 160/92 mmHg. What antihypertensive medication is most likely to be prescribed for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 40 - On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia....

    Incorrect

    • On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia. The full blood count, renal function, serum electrolytes, liver function tests and thyroid function tests were all normal. A subsequent repeat serum calcium shows persistence in the mild hypercalcaemia along with a raised parathyroid hormone. The patient is otherwise asymptomatic.

      Which of the following would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Managing Incidental Findings of Hypercalcaemia

      It is crucial to consider the differential diagnosis when an incidental finding of hypercalcaemia is discovered. Immediate hospital review is necessary for severe hypercalcaemia (>3.40mmol/L) or those with symptoms. Further investigations may be required for mild hypercalcaemia, depending on the clinical context, such as chest x-ray, serum and urine protein electrophoresis, and serum cortisol.

      NICE recommends referring patients suspected of having primary hyperparathyroidism to endocrinology. They will exclude other causes of hypercalcaemia and assess whether a parathyroidectomy is appropriate. Calcimimetic drug treatments and bisphosphonate therapy are potential treatments, but these would be considered in secondary care initially. A normal dietary intake of calcium is usually advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 41 - What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finger clubbing

      Explanation:

      Common Pediatric Respiratory Issues and Diagnostic Considerations

      Abnormal cry and stridor are indicative of potential laryngeal issues in children. When assessing for asthma, it is important to note that it is predominantly extrinsic in nature. During acute asthma episodes, relying on peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) may be unreliable due to poor technique. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses when a child presents with failure to thrive and clubbing, as these symptoms may suggest underlying health issues beyond respiratory concerns. By keeping these diagnostic considerations in mind, healthcare providers can more effectively identify and treat common pediatric respiratory issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 42 - A 24-year-old male visits his GP 3 weeks after a car accident, worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male visits his GP 3 weeks after a car accident, worried about experiencing heightened anxiety, fatigue, and headaches. He had undergone a CT scan of his brain immediately after the incident, which showed no anomalies. After 6 months, his symptoms have disappeared. What was the probable cause of his initial symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-concussion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder typically has a delayed onset of symptoms and a protracted course.

      Understanding Post-Concussion Syndrome

      Post-concussion syndrome is a condition that can occur after a person experiences even a minor head injury. It is characterized by a range of symptoms that can persist for weeks or even months after the initial injury. The most common symptoms of post-concussion syndrome include headaches, fatigue, anxiety or depression, and dizziness.

      Individuals who experience post-concussion syndrome may find that their symptoms interfere with their daily activities and quality of life. They may struggle to concentrate or remember things, and they may feel irritable or moody. In some cases, post-concussion syndrome can also cause sleep disturbances or sensitivity to light and noise.

      While the exact cause of post-concussion syndrome is not fully understood, it is believed to be related to changes in brain function that occur after a head injury. Treatment for post-concussion syndrome may involve a combination of medications, therapy, and lifestyle changes to manage symptoms and promote healing. With proper care, many people with post-concussion syndrome are able to recover fully and return to their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 43 - A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having a facial rash with flushing for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is a papulopustular rash with telangiectasia on both cheeks and nose. What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the potential complication associated with it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that results in long-term facial flushing, erythema, telangiectasia, pustules, papules, and rhinophyma. It can also impact the eyes, leading to blepharitis, keratitis, and conjunctivitis. Treatment options include topical antibiotics such as metronidazole gel or oral tetracycline, particularly if there are ocular symptoms.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner three weeks after an Eastern...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner three weeks after an Eastern Mediterranean holiday with her family, during which they ate out a lot. She complains of malaise, lack of appetite, jaundice and dark urine. She thinks she was febrile at the start, but the fever subsided once the jaundice appeared. On examination, she has a palpable liver and is tender in the right upper quadrant.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Bilirubin 132 µmol /l < 21 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 4104 IU/l < 40 IU/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 3476 U/l < 33 U/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 184 IU/l 40–129 IU/l
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Flu-like Symptoms and Jaundice

      Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable infection commonly acquired during travel. It spreads through contaminated food and presents with flu-like symptoms followed by jaundice and dark urine. Biliary colic may cause right upper quadrant pain but is unlikely to cause fever or significantly raised liver transaminase levels. Hepatitis B is transmitted through sexual contact, needle sharing, blood transfusions, organ transplantation, or from mother to child during delivery. Pancreatic carcinoma presents with weight loss, obstructive jaundice, mid-epigastric or back pain, and disproportionately raised alkaline phosphatases levels. Salmonella enteritidis causes food poisoning with diarrhea, fever, and colicky abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 45 - During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any troublesome vaginal discharge or any unscheduled bleeding. She says that she has no unscheduled bleeding and that she has always had a very slight, clear, intermittent vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms and is in a stable relationship.

      What is the most probable reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The most likely cause is a physiological discharge

      Explanation:

      Causes of Vaginal Discharge in Women

      This woman is experiencing occasional vaginal discharge. There are several potential causes of vaginal discharge, including candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, and physiological discharge. Candidiasis is typically associated with itch and a thick discharge, while bacterial vaginosis is often intermittent and accompanied by a profuse and smelly discharge. However, given the patient’s age and stable relationship, physiological discharge is the most likely cause.

      In this case, it may not be necessary to conduct a speculum exam unless the patient specifically requests it. Initially, the patient can be reassured without further investigation. However, if investigation is deemed necessary, a self-taken lower vaginal swab would be a reasonable option.

      It is important to note that normality is a common theme in the MRCGP exam, and understanding the various causes of vaginal discharge is an important aspect of primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 46 - A 75-year-old male presents with sudden loss of vision in his left eye,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents with sudden loss of vision in his left eye, associated with a relative afferent pupillary defect.

      He has poorly controlled systemic hypertension and raised cholesterol.

      What is the most likely cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal vascular occlusion

      Explanation:

      Tips for Answering Tricky Questions in the AKT Exam

      When faced with a tricky question in the AKT exam, it can be easy to feel overwhelmed and unsure of how to proceed. However, there are strategies you can use to help narrow down your options and improve your chances of selecting the correct answer.

      One approach is to look for key information in the question stem, such as the presence of certain risk factors or the sudden onset of symptoms. By considering which answer option is most likely given this information, you can eliminate some of the less plausible choices.

      It’s important to remember that you won’t know the answer to every question in the exam, and that’s okay. By using these strategies and taking a methodical approach, you can increase your hit rate and feel more confident in your overall performance.

      To see an example of this approach in action, check out the Endgames scenario on sudden unilateral painless loss of vision in the BMJ article linked above. With practice and preparation, you can tackle even the trickiest questions on the AKT exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 47 - A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of his illicit opioid use, it becomes apparent that he is extremely anxious about quitting drugs completely but is interested in attempting a maintenance program. He also abuses alcohol and consumes up to 40 units per week. He has been referred to a community treatment program to assist with his decreased use of drugs and alcohol.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a harm-reduction programme but advise that complete detoxification remains the goal of treatment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Substance Abuse

      Substance abuse can have harmful effects on a person’s health, and reducing the use of alcohol and illicit drugs is an appropriate treatment goal. While maintenance can be an important step towards detoxification and abstinence, complete detoxification should always be the main goal of a reduction programme. It is important to discuss this with the patient when treatment is commenced.

      When it comes to opioid reduction, it is recommended to achieve complete detoxification from alcohol before attempting to reduce opioid use. Withdrawal effects can be managed with appropriate medical care, and patients should not be penalised for using illicit substances. However, it is important to discuss the impact of continued drug use on the treatment programme.

      While there doesn’t need to be a strict timeline imposed at the start of treatment, it is important to work towards reducing drug and alcohol use. Buprenorphine and methadone are both recommended for substitute prescribing, but methadone is typically prescribed as the first choice. The choice of drug may depend on patient preference or experience with the medication. Overall, the goal of treatment should be to achieve complete detoxification and abstinence from substance abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 48 - A 26-year-old man is being discharged from the hospital after a flare-up of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man is being discharged from the hospital after a flare-up of ulcerative proctosigmoiditis. His symptoms improved after a 5-day course of intravenous corticosteroids, which had since been tapered down to oral prednisolone before discharge.

      He contacts you, concerned that he was not informed by the discharging team whether he should continue taking prednisolone to prevent a relapse or not. He is running out of medication soon and is unsure of what to do. You reach out to the on-call gastroenterologist for guidance.

      What would be the recommended first-line treatment for maintaining remission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Daily rectal +/- oral mesalazine

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for maintaining remission in patients with ulcerative colitis who have proctitis or proctosigmoiditis is a daily rectal aminosalicylate, with the addition of an oral aminosalicylate if necessary. Topical and/or oral aminosalicylates are also the first-line treatment for inducing and maintaining remission in mild-moderate ulcerative colitis, with the route of administration depending on the location of the disease. If aminosalicylates fail to induce remission, a short-term course of oral or topical corticosteroids may be added. Severe colitis requires hospital admission and treatment with IV corticosteroids, with the addition of IV ciclosporin if necessary. Surgery is the last resort. Twice-weekly corticosteroid enemas, daily azathioprine, and daily low-dose oral prednisolone for 3 months are not correct treatments for maintaining remission in ulcerative colitis.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 49 - A 35-year-old man who has had asthma since childhood is seen in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man who has had asthma since childhood is seen in the asthma clinic. His asthma has been poorly controlled over the last two years and he has seen a number of different practitioners. In an attempt to gain control over his asthma, his inhaled steroids have been increased on several occasions and he has had several prolonged courses of oral steroids. He comments that he has put on a lot of weight over the last four years and bruises easily. He finds that he is tired all the time and finds it difficult to get out of a chair. On examination, he has purple striae over his abdomen and urinalysis is positive to glucose.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cushing Syndrome and its Differential Diagnosis

      Cushing syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive levels of cortisol in the body. It can be caused by prolonged use of oral corticosteroids or, in rare cases, by a tumor in the adrenal gland. Patients with Cushing syndrome may present with symptoms such as weight gain, moon face, buffalo hump, easy bruising, and thinning of the skin.

      It is important to differentiate Cushing syndrome from other conditions with similar symptoms. Addison’s disease, for example, is caused by adrenal failure and presents with weakness, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Conn syndrome, on the other hand, is characterized by hypertension and hypokalemia due to excess aldosterone secretion from an adrenal adenoma.

      Diabetes mellitus is a common complication of Cushing syndrome, as it can impair glucose metabolism. Hypothyroidism, while also causing fatigue and weight gain, doesn’t typically present with striae or glycosuria.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose Cushing syndrome and differentiate it from other conditions with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 50 - A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation takes digoxin. He visited his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation takes digoxin. He visited his General Practitioner (GP) reporting discomfort and swelling in his ankles, and was prescribed Drug X alongside his current medication. After two weeks, he experiences nausea, diarrhoea, and reports seeing yellow. What is the probable identity of Drug X?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Medications and their interactions in a case of digoxin toxicity

      Digoxin toxicity is a serious condition that can present with gastrointestinal upset, changes to vision, hypokalaemia, and cardiac arrhythmias. Co-prescribing of a thiazide or loop diuretic can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity by reducing potassium levels. Other risk factors for digoxin toxicity include age, poor renal function, and calcium-channel blockers.

      Amiodarone can be used in atrial fibrillation but should only be prescribed in secondary care and would not be prescribed for the ankle swelling that may have led to the digoxin prescription. Propranolol and sotalol do not interact with digoxin and would not have caused the symptoms of digoxin toxicity. Warfarin doesn’t interact with digoxin and would not be prescribed to treat the original symptoms of ankle swelling. It is important to consider medication interactions and risk factors when prescribing medications to avoid adverse effects such as digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 51 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a headache that woke...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a headache that woke her up from sleep this morning and blurred vision. She reports experiencing similar headaches with nausea and vomiting for the past two years, which have not responded to over-the-counter medications. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication.

      During the examination, her vital signs are stable, and her neurological examination is unremarkable. Her BMI is 36 kg/m2.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      If a young, obese female complains of headaches, blurred vision, and nausea/vomiting, it is likely that she is suffering from idiopathic intracranial hypertension. This condition may cause symptoms to improve during the day when the patient is upright, but worsen when they bend down.

      While acute angle glaucoma can also cause headaches and blurred vision, it typically presents with unilateral eye pain and abnormal pupillary reflexes on neurological examination.

      Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis is less likely as a cause of the patient’s symptoms, as it typically presents with headache as the primary symptom, along with focal or generalized neurological features such as seizures. Risk factors for clot formation should be considered in the patient’s history.

      Although migraines are a common cause of recurrent headaches, the patient’s high BMI and generalized nature of the headache, along with the positional element, suggest idiopathic intracranial hypertension as the most likely cause.

      Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.

      There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.

      Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.

      It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 52 - A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with a complaint of amenorrhea for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with a complaint of amenorrhea for the past eight months. She reports weight gain and decreased libido during this time and has noticed milk production from her breasts. Her last sexual encounter was about seven months ago. On examination, vital signs are normal, and there are no abnormalities on abdominal examination. Galactorrhea is confirmed on expression. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Signs and Symptoms of Hyperprolactinaemia

      This patient is presenting with several signs and symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia, including weight gain, loss of libido, menstrual disturbance, and galactorrhoea. While conditions such as PCOS, depression, and Cushing’s can cause weight gain and menstrual changes, galactorrhoea is only associated with pregnancy, prolactinoma, certain medications, and hypothyroidism.

      It is important to note that the patient’s normal abdominal examination after ten months of amenorrhea, with her last sexual encounter occurring nine months prior, rules out pregnancy as a potential cause for her symptoms. Further investigation and testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of her hyperprolactinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 53 - A 28-year-old woman presents to you seeking contraception. She is eager to begin...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to you seeking contraception. She is eager to begin immediately as she has no desire to conceive. Her last instance of unprotected sexual intercourse was five days ago. She has a history of migraines with aura. After assessment, you determine that the progesterone-only pill would be the most suitable option. What guidance should you provide regarding the commencement of her pill?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can start contraception straight away, as long as she is aware that there is a possibility of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Starting Contraception: Important Considerations

      When starting contraception, it is important for the clinician to ensure that the woman is likely to continue to be at risk of pregnancy or has expressed a preference to begin contraception immediately. Additionally, the woman should be aware that she may be pregnant and that there are theoretical risks from contraceptive exposure to the fetus, although evidence indicates no harm. It is also important to note that pregnancy can only be excluded once a pregnancy test is negative at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the woman should be advised to carry out a pregnancy test at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse and advised on additional contraception. While a negative pregnancy test is not required before starting contraception, the clinician should be reasonably sure that the woman is not pregnant or at risk of pregnancy. It is important to keep in mind that this practice may be outside the product licence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 54 - A 12-year-old boy has sickle cell disease.
    Which of the following complications of sickle...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy has sickle cell disease.
      Which of the following complications of sickle cell disease in a boy of this age most likely to experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Priapism

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell disease can cause priapism, a painful and persistent erection that occurs without sexual stimulation. This is due to vaso-occlusive obstruction of the venous drainage of the penis and is most common in males with sickle cell disease under the age of 20. Priapism can be classified as prolonged or stuttering, with prolonged episodes requiring urgent medical intervention and both types potentially leading to impotence. Sickle cell disease also increases susceptibility to infection, particularly from Streptococcus pneumoniae, and can cause hand-foot syndrome in infants due to vaso-occlusion. Acute stroke is a serious complication of sickle cell disease, with a prevalence of 10% by age 50, and regular blood transfusions may be necessary for those with abnormal findings on transcranial Doppler ultrasonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 55 - A 28-year-old woman developed sudden-onset severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman developed sudden-onset severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently began having episodes of nausea and vomiting, especially after trying to eat or drink. She has diminished bowel sounds exquisite tenderness in the mid-epigastrium with rebound tenderness and guarding. Her pulse is 110 and BP 130/75. She reports taking ibuprofen for dysmenorrhoea but last took it the day before the pain began.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perforated peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs and Peptic Ulceration: Risks and Symptoms

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are a common cause of gastric and duodenal ulceration, second only to Helicobacter pylori. The inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) by NSAIDs reduces the production of gastric mucosal prostaglandins, leading to decreased cytoprotection. This can result in peptic ulceration, with at least one-third to one-half of ulcer perforations being associated with NSAIDs.

      Patients at high risk of NSAID-induced peptic ulceration include the elderly, those with a history of peptic ulcer disease, and those with serious co-morbidities such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, renal or hepatic impairment. The risk varies between individual NSAIDs and is also dose-related.

      Symptoms of acute complications of NSAID-induced peptic ulceration can include peritonitis, which requires urgent surgical referral. Acute pancreatitis may present with similar symptoms, but tenderness may be less and there may be a history of Gallbladder disease or alcohol abuse. Gastritis typically doesn’t involve altered bowel sounds or signs of peritoneal irritation, while cholecystitis and appendicitis present with tenderness in the right upper quadrant and right iliac fossa, respectively.

      In summary, NSAIDs can pose a significant risk for peptic ulceration, particularly in high-risk patients. It is important to be aware of the symptoms of acute complications and to promptly refer patients for appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 56 - You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter...

    Incorrect

    • You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter at a dose of 800 units. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the equivalent dose in micrograms since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.

      Which of the following is equal to 800 units of vitamin D?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 mcg

      Explanation:

      Converting Vitamin D Units to Micrograms

      Many CCG pathways recommend taking vitamin D supplements in units, but the packaging of many vitamin D suppliers lists the dose in micrograms. To convert units to micrograms for vitamin D, simply divide by 40. For example, 400 units of vitamin D is equivalent to 10 micrograms. Remember to check the packaging for the correct dosage and always consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new supplement regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 57 - Samantha is a 9-year-old girl who complains of throat itching and mild swelling...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 9-year-old girl who complains of throat itching and mild swelling of her lips after consuming a mango. She has no other symptoms and no breathing difficulties. She has noticed similar symptoms after eating various fruits during the summer. Samantha has a history of hay fever and takes regular antihistamines. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Oral allergy syndrome is closely associated with pollen allergies and exhibits seasonal fluctuations. It occurs when allergens in certain foods cross-react with pollens, causing the body to react to the food proteins as if they were pollen. This results in a localized reaction around the mouth, such as an itchy mouth or throat, and sometimes hives. As the patient experiences symptoms with various fruits, it is not a pure kiwi allergy. Urticaria is characterized by an itchy rash triggered by an allergen, but there is no mention of a rash in this case. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that causes swelling of the throat and tongue, as well as breathing difficulties. However, since there is only mild lip swelling and no breathing difficulties, anaphylaxis is unlikely.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 58 - What term is most suitable for describing the spread of blood pressures in...

    Incorrect

    • What term is most suitable for describing the spread of blood pressures in a specific ethnic population that is larger than that of the general population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Standard Deviation

      Standard deviation is a statistical measure that helps to determine the spread of observations around the mean. It is calculated by finding the deviation of each observation from the mean value, squaring each value, summing them up, and dividing the total by the number of observations minus one. The standard deviation is then obtained by taking the square root of this value. In essence, standard deviation provides a measure of how much the observations deviate from the mean, and it is a useful tool for analyzing data in various fields, including finance, science, and engineering. By understanding standard deviation, researchers and analysts can gain insights into the variability of data and make informed decisions based on their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 59 - You encounter a 24-year-old woman at your family planning clinic who wishes to...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 24-year-old woman at your family planning clinic who wishes to initiate the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has no significant medical history, but she does smoke 5-10 cigarettes per day. Her BMI and blood pressure are both within normal ranges. Her aunt was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at the age of 55.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of combined hormonal contraceptive pills can lead to a decreased risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for many years even after discontinuation. However, for women under 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 2, indicating that the benefits of using the method generally outweigh the potential risks. For women over 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 3 if they smoke less than 15 cigarettes a day and 4 if they smoke more than 15 cigarettes a day.

      While some meta-analyses have shown a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, there is no significant risk of breast cancer after 10 years of discontinuation. Additionally, COCP can help reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 60 - A carer calls you to see a 70-year-old lady and says There is...

    Incorrect

    • A carer calls you to see a 70-year-old lady and says There is a pressure sore down below which is not getting better. There is an associated itch and occasionally she sees blood spots on her underwear.

      She has been using over-the-counter antifungal creams from the chemist for the last six weeks but it is not helping. On examination there is a shallow ulcer, 3 cm in diameter, on the labia majora. The rest of the examination is normal.

      How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Unexplained Vulval Lump or Non-Responsive Ulceration

      Any woman who discovers a new, unexplained lump or experiences ulceration that doesn’t respond to treatment should be referred urgently. It is important to note that the term pressure sore should be used with caution, as it may not accurately describe the condition.

      If the ulcer appears to be caused by thrush, fluconazole may be considered. However, if the ulcer doesn’t arise from typical intertriginous areas and lacks satellite lesions or white discharge, a fungal infection is unlikely.

      While primary syphilis can cause a solitary painless genital ulcer, it tends to resolve within four to eight weeks. Therefore, it is unlikely that this would be the first presentation of a lady with primary syphilis.

      If the condition is suspected to be a pressure ulcer on the sacrum or another pressure point, a tissue viability nurse may be consulted. However, based on the given history, this seems unlikely. Referring to dermatology is not appropriate for a strongly suspected case of vulval carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 61 - What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for a 4-year-old child with...

    Incorrect

    • What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for a 4-year-old child with eczema on both lower legs (excluding the feet) for a two-week period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 g

      Explanation:

      How to Apply Topical Corticosteroids

      Topical corticosteroids are medications that are applied to the skin to treat various skin conditions. It is important to spread the cream or ointment thinly on the affected area, but enough to cover it completely. To determine the right amount to use, the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu). One ftu is approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g, which is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand.

      When applying to a child’s lower legs, two ftus or 1 g per daily dose is recommended. To treat both lower legs for two weeks, a prescription for 15g is required. It is important to start with the lowest effective dose and apply once daily. Only if there is no improvement should the treatment be increased to twice daily. By following these guidelines, topical corticosteroids can be used safely and effectively to treat skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 62 - An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on his scalp. He mentions that they are not causing him any discomfort. Upon examination, you observe numerous rough scaly lesions on his sun-damaged skin, accompanied by extensive erythema and telangiectasia.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-fluorouracil cream

      Explanation:

      Topical diclofenac can be utilized to treat mild actinic keratoses in this individual.

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 63 - A 25-year-old university student comes to your clinic with a complaint of back...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old university student comes to your clinic with a complaint of back pain that has been bothering her for the past six months. She denies any bladder or bowel dysfunction. She reports experiencing severe pain in her left shoulder that radiates down her left arm whenever she drinks alcohol.

      Upon examination, there is no kyphosis or scoliosis, and palpation of the spine and lumbar area is unremarkable. Sensation in her legs is normal, and her reflexes are intact.

      What condition is indicated by the symptom of pain during or after alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Alcohol-Associated Pain in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      Pain during or after drinking alcohol has been linked to Hodgkin’s lymphoma since the 1950s. This pain typically occurs in affected lymph nodes and can be sharp or dull, with a radiating distribution. While it only occurs in 2-3% of people with HL, it is considered pathognomonic due to its high specificity. Alcohol-associated pain has also been noted in other conditions such as TB lymphadenitis, cervical carcinoma, and bronchial adenocarcinoma. In some cases, HL may present with nonspecific back pain. If a patient reports alcohol-associated pain, a full history and examination should be conducted to look for other symptoms of HL, including lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 64 - A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative factor of an underlying connective tissue disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent miscarriages

      Explanation:

      Bilateral symptoms in young women may indicate primary Raynaud’s disease. Recurrent miscarriages may be a sign of systemic lupus erythematous or anti-phospholipid syndrome. Chilblains, which are painful and itchy purple swellings on the fingers and toes after exposure to cold, are sometimes linked to underlying connective tissue disease, although this is uncommon.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 65 - A 5-year-old girl is brought in for surgery. Her mother reports that her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought in for surgery. Her mother reports that her stools have always been firm and for the past two weeks, she has been taking a combination of lactulose (10ml bd) and senna (2 tablets od) prescribed by a colleague. However, she is still only passing a hard stool every 2-3 days. The clinical examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch the lactulose for a macrogol (Movicol Paediatric Plain)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.

      After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.

      In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 66 - A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after undergoing catheter ablation due to unresponsive atrial fibrillation despite antiarrhythmic treatment. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with a salbutamol reliever and beclomethasone preventer inhaler, and type II diabetes, which he controls through his diet. The patient is currently receiving anticoagulation therapy in accordance with guidelines. There are no other significant medical histories.

      What should be the next course of action in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term

      Explanation:

      Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation still need to continue long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. In the case of this patient, who has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 due to age and past medical history of diabetes, it is appropriate to continue anticoagulation.

      Amiodarone is typically used for rhythm control of atrial fibrillation, but it is not indicated in this patient who has undergone catheter ablation and has no obvious recurrence of AF.

      Beta-blockers and diltiazem are used for rate control of atrial fibrillation, but medication for AF is not indicated in this patient.

      Anticoagulation can be stopped after 4 weeks post catheter ablation only if the CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 67 - You have diagnosed measles in a 7-year-old child who did not receive the...

    Incorrect

    • You have diagnosed measles in a 7-year-old child who did not receive the MMR vaccine when younger.

      The child's father has called the clinic to inquire about when his child can return to school because he needs to plan for childcare arrangements and it is affecting his work schedule.

      What is the recommended duration for a measles case to stay away from school or work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 days after the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      Measles Exclusion Guidelines for Schools and Workplaces

      Measles is a highly infectious disease that spreads through airborne or droplet transmission. To prevent the spread of the disease, individuals who have contracted measles should be excluded from school or work for four days after the onset of the rash. This exclusion period is outlined in the infection control guidelines published by Public Health England for schools and other childcare settings.

      It is important to note that individuals are infectious from the beginning of the prodromal period, when the first symptoms appear, until four days after the onset of the rash. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the exclusion guidelines to prevent the spread of measles in schools and workplaces. By doing so, we can protect the health and well-being of everyone in the community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 68 - What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to the 2014 NICE guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with mechanical knee locking symptoms should be referred for arthroscopic lavage and debridement

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance for Managing Osteoarthritis Pain

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends exercise for all patients with osteoarthritis. When analgesia is necessary, paracetamol and topical NSAIDs should be the first line of treatment, followed by oral NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors if needed. However, a proton pump inhibitor should be used alongside these medications to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.

      NICE doesn’t recommend the use of acupuncture or glucosamine for managing osteoarthritis pain. Arthroscopic debridement, a surgical procedure to remove damaged tissue from the joint, is only indicated if the patient has a clear history of mechanical locking, rather than morning joint stiffness, giving way, or X-ray evidence of loose bodies.

      Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of exercise and non-pharmacological interventions in managing osteoarthritis pain, while also providing recommendations for safe and effective use of analgesic medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 69 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.

      The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.

      Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.

      It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 70 - A 56-year-old woman complains of a continuous watery left eye that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman complains of a continuous watery left eye that has been bothering her for the last 4 days. Upon examination, there is redness and puffiness in the inner corner of her left eye. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dacryocystitis

      Explanation:

      Lacrimal Duct Problems: Dacryocystitis and Congenital Obstruction

      Lacrimal duct problems can manifest in two ways: dacryocystitis and congenital obstruction. Dacryocystitis is an infection of the lacrimal sac that causes a watering eye (epiphora) and swelling and redness at the inner corner of the eye. Treatment involves systemic antibiotics, and intravenous antibiotics may be necessary if there is associated periorbital cellulitis.

      On the other hand, congenital lacrimal duct obstruction affects 5-10% of newborns and is bilateral in 20% of cases. It causes a watering eye, even when the baby is not crying, and may lead to secondary infections. However, in 99% of cases, symptoms resolve by the time the baby reaches 12 months of age.

      It is important to identify and manage lacrimal duct problems promptly to prevent complications and ensure proper eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 71 - A man of 45 years is concerned about his family history of ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A man of 45 years is concerned about his family history of ischaemic heart disease. His father was a non-smoker and passed away due to a myocardial infarction at the age of 44 years. His paternal grandfather and a paternal uncle both suffered from myocardial infarcts in their forties.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      Inherited Cardiovascular Conditions: Understanding the Genetics Behind Familial Hypercholesterolaemia, Haemochromatosis, Factor V Leiden Mutation, Homocystinuria, and Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

      Inherited cardiovascular conditions can significantly increase the risk of heart disease and other related health issues. Here are some key genetic factors to consider:

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia affects approximately 1 in 500 people and is linked to a higher risk of cardiovascular disease. If a first-degree relative has died before the age of 60, measuring serum cholesterol is recommended.

      Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive condition that leads to excess iron accumulation in the liver and other tissues. While it is not associated with increased ischaemic heart disease, it may cause cardiomyopathy.

      Factor V Leiden mutation is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and affects clotting factor V. People with this mutation have an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.

      Homocystinuria is a rare autosomal-recessive inborn error of methionine metabolism. While elevated plasma homocysteine levels are associated with ischaemic heart disease, it is less likely to be responsible for a strong family history compared to familial hypercholesterolaemia. Individuals with homocystinuria may have a marfanoid habitus and downward lens dislocation.

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and may cause sudden death at a young age due to arrhythmia or left ventricular outlet obstruction. While heart muscle is abnormal, it is not due to ischaemia. It is important to note that myocardial infarctions are not typically associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 72 - A 55-year-old man is a frequent attender with abdominal pain that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is a frequent attender with abdominal pain that has been extensively investigated and no cause found. He still finds the symptoms very distressing. They are the focus of his attention and he says they are restricting normal activities; he also fears he may have bowel cancer.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatic symptom disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Somatic Symptom Disorder and its Distinctions from Other Conditions

      Somatic symptom disorder (SSD) is a condition characterized by distressing somatic symptoms and excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to those symptoms. These symptoms must persist for at least six months to be diagnosed with SSD. In contrast, illness anxiety disorder is a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without significant somatic symptoms. Colon cancer is unlikely in this patient as extensive investigations have found no cause. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by anxiety about a variety of things, while this patient’s focus is on his abdominal pain and fears of bowel cancer. Irritable bowel syndrome causes abdominal pain, diarrhea, and constipation, but the patient’s symptoms and concerns are more consistent with somatic symptom disorder. Understanding the distinctions between these conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 73 - As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance....

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance. Due to a recent outbreak of roseola infantum at her son's daycare, she is curious about the duration of time her child should stay away from the facility. Despite being healthy and showing no symptoms, what recommendation would you provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is no school exclusion

      Explanation:

      No need for school exclusion with roseola infantum as it is a self-limiting condition.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.

      The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.

      While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 74 - A 26-year-old woman presents with weight loss and is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with weight loss and is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. She is prescribed carbimazole but after 2 weeks reports gradual visual blurring. Her corrected visual acuities are 6/12 in both eyes and she experiences color vision impairment in both eyes. Mild proptosis is observed but her pupillary reactions are normal.
      What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic nerve compression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Thyroid Eye Disease: Symptoms, Risks, and Treatment Options

      Thyroid eye disease (TED) is an autoimmune disease that affects the eyes and can be both sight-threatening and disfiguring. The disease has an active inflammatory phase followed by an inactive fibrotic phase. Symptoms include eye irritation, ache behind the eye, red eyes, and diplopia. Exophthalmos may develop, but it doesn’t always correlate with disease severity. In some cases, patients with minimal exophthalmos are at high risk of optic nerve compression. If the optic nerve is compressed, visual loss can occur, and urgent referral is necessary. Medical management is only available in the active, early phase, and surgery is the only option when the disease becomes inactive. For severe sight-threatening disease, orbital-decompression surgery and intravenous corticosteroids are necessary. Embolic phenomena, optic nerve infiltration, and ophthalmic side-effects of carbimazole are not associated with TED. Optic atrophy is irreversible and takes several weeks to develop. Early referral is appropriate when TED is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 75 - A 52-year-old woman suffered a whiplash injury to her neck six weeks ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman suffered a whiplash injury to her neck six weeks ago when her car was struck from behind by another vehicle. She has just had a private assessment by an orthopaedic surgeon because she is pursuing a compensation claim. He has told her to come to see you to get some better treatment for her persisting neck pain. She says that until now she has been self-medicating with paracetamol with only limited benefit. She denies any symptoms of anxiety or depression.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate INITIAL management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations

      Whiplash is a common injury that can cause pain and discomfort in the neck and shoulders. If a patient has already been taking paracetamol for their symptoms, the addition of Ibuprofen or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be the next logical step. In some cases, patients may need to take both drugs regularly. Codeine is another alternative that can be added to paracetamol or ibuprofen.

      It’s important to encourage patients to return to their normal activities as soon as possible. Physiotherapy can be helpful, but it’s most effective when started soon after the injury occurs. For those with late whiplash syndrome who don’t respond well to full-dose analgesics, a trial of amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin for one month may be helpful.

      Keeping a pain diary can be useful, but it’s important to focus on function and abilities rather than pain and disability. Referral to a pain clinic is recommended at an early stage for chronic symptoms. Finally, behaviors that promote disability and enhance expectations of a poor outcome and chronic disability (such as wearing a collar) should be discouraged.

      Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 76 - A 58-year-old man presents with complaints of leg pains. He has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents with complaints of leg pains. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, and is a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day.

      He reports experiencing pain in his right calf after walking about 50 yards, which occurs every time he walks. The pain subsides when he stops and sits down, but returns upon further walking. He denies any pain at rest and has only experienced symptoms while walking.

      Upon examination, no pulses can be palpated in the right foot, but there is no evidence of acute ischaemia. Femoral and popliteal pulses are present, and capillary refill time in the right foot is three to four seconds. There are no ulcers or tissue loss affecting the feet. The patient is otherwise well, with a blood pressure of 154/92 mmHg and a regular pulse rate of 72 bpm.

      In addition to referring the patient for ankle-brachial pressure index measurements to confirm the clinical diagnosis, what other assessments should be performed as part of his primary care evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      Peripheral Arterial Disease Assessment in Primary Care

      This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of peripheral arterial disease, specifically intermittent claudication. It is important to note that peripheral arterial disease increases the risk of arteriopathy in other parts of the body, such as the heart and kidneys. Therefore, a full cardiovascular risk factor assessment should be conducted on diagnosis, with key risk factors addressed as relevant.

      In primary care, ankle brachial pressure index should be measured in all patients suspected of having peripheral arterial disease, along with an examination of peripheral pulses and palpation of the abdomen to check for the presence of an aortic aneurysm. It is important to note that the presence of peripheral vascular disease significantly increases the risk of aortic aneurysm.

      Contrast studies are not typically conducted as part of a primary care assessment. Instead, the focus should be on managing lower limb symptoms and addressing cardiovascular risk factors. By doing so, primary care providers can help reduce the risk of complications and improve overall patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 77 - A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an ECG shows he is in atrial fibrillation.

      When you take a history from him he complains of palpitations and he has also noticed some weight loss over the last two months. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse and displays a fine tremor.

      What is the next most appropriate investigation to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exercise tolerance test

      Explanation:

      Assessing Patients with Atrial Fibrillation

      When assessing patients with atrial fibrillation, it is crucial to identify any underlying causes. While some cases may be classified as lone AF, addressing any precipitating factors is the first step in treatment. Hyperthyroidism is a common cause of atrial fibrillation, and checking thyroid function tests is the next appropriate step in diagnosis. Other common causes include heart failure, myocardial infarction/ischemia, mitral valve disease, pneumonia, and alcoholism. Rarer causes include pericarditis, endocarditis, cardiomyopathy, sarcoidosis, and hemochromatosis.

      For paroxysmal arrhythmias, a 24-hour ECG can be useful, but in cases of persistent atrial fibrillation, an ECG is not necessary. Exercise tolerance tests are used to investigate and risk-stratify patients with cardiac chest pain. While an echocardiogram is useful in patients with atrial fibrillation to look for valve disease and other structural abnormalities, it is not the next most appropriate investigation in this case. Overall, identifying the underlying cause of atrial fibrillation is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 78 - A mother with a toddler on the list for his first MMR vaccination...

    Incorrect

    • A mother with a toddler on the list for his first MMR vaccination comes to the clinic for advice. She has some concerns, as there is a history of asthma in the family and her other child suffered from febrile fits. She is considering trying the three single vaccines.

      Which one of the following is true regarding the MMR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It should be given at the age of 12-15 months

      Explanation:

      MMR Vaccination and Immunoglobulin Therapy

      The MMR vaccination is not recommended for individuals with a history of anaphylaxis, concurrent febrile illness, neomycin and gelatin allergy. However, a family history of atopy is not relevant. The MMR vaccine is typically administered at around one year of age in the NHS vaccination schedule and there is no benefit in giving separate vaccines for measles, mumps, and rubella. It is important to note that the MMR vaccine contains live attenuated strains of these viruses, while vaccines for diseases such as diphtheria and tetanus are killed vaccines.

      In regards to immunoglobulin therapy, there is no indication for children with epilepsy. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate course of treatment for any medical condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 79 - A 70-year-old gentleman, with mild dementia and known alcohol excess, has been seeing...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old gentleman, with mild dementia and known alcohol excess, has been seeing his GP regularly for low mood after his wife passed away recently.

      On a routine review, he is noted to be more confused than usual.

      On examination, he is noted to be underweight, ataxic, and has a nystagmus. Cranial nerve examination is otherwise unremarkable.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call medical team

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Medical Emergency

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention. Patients with new onset confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma should be considered for this diagnosis. It is important to note that increased confusion may be mistaken for worsening dementia, highlighting the significance of a thorough examination.

      If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome, making prompt treatment essential. Oral thiamine can be administered following initial intravenous treatment.

      It is important to note that acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, have no role in the acute deterioration of cognition. Additionally, a posterior circulation stroke must also be considered, which is why the medical team would be the most appropriate referral initially.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 80 - A 50-year-old woman has a history of bipolar disorder. She is brought by...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a history of bipolar disorder. She is brought by her husband who is concerned that she is entering a manic phase.
      Select from the list the single feature that would NOT suggest a diagnosis of mania.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of interest in pleasurable activities

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mania and Hypomania in Bipolar Disorder

      Mania and hypomania are two terms used to describe the elevated mood states experienced by individuals with bipolar disorder. Mania is a more severe form of elevated mood, often accompanied by psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania without psychotic symptoms.

      To diagnose mania, at least three of the following symptoms must be present: inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, rapid and emphatic speech, flight of ideas, distractibility, psychomotor agitation, and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities without regard for consequences.

      It’s important to note that nearly all cases of mania will eventually lead to episodes of depression, which is why bipolar disorder is often grouped with mania. Understanding the symptoms of mania and hypomania can help individuals with bipolar disorder and their loved ones recognize when they may need to seek professional help.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 81 - Which one of the following statements regarding relative risk is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding relative risk is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the usual outcome measure of cohort studies

      Explanation:

      It is important to distinguish between risk and odds. For instance, if 100 individuals experience a myocardial infarction and 20 of them die, the risk of dying is 0.2 (20/100). However, the odds of dying are 0.25 (20/80).

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 82 - A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about being different from her peers who have already started menstruating. She has a history of irregular attendance but is currently in good health. On examination, she is on the 25th centile for height and the 90th centile for weight. She has no signs of secondary sexual characteristics and presents with a broad chest and webbed neck. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Short Stature and Delayed Puberty

      Short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the most common causes:

      1. Turner Syndrome
      Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females. It occurs in between 1 in 2500 and 1 in 5000 live births. Features include short stature, delayed development of secondary sexual characteristics, and absence of menses. Patients may also have mild intellectual impairment and cardiovascular defects. There is a loss of one X chromosome (chromosome pattern XO), which results in a broad (webbed neck) and widely spaced nipples.

      2. Constitutional Delay in Puberty
      Constitutional delay in puberty is often familial and is the most common cause of short stature and delayed puberty. In otherwise normal children, linear growth slows until about the age of 3 years, then proceeds normally until expected puberty, and then slows again in the absence of a growth spurt. A full catch-up may not occur.

      3. Down’s Syndrome
      Short stature occurs in Down’s syndrome, but puberty is not normally delayed. Down’s syndrome would usually have been diagnosed early in life by the presence of typical features, which do not include a webbed neck.

      4. Hypothyroidism
      Hypothyroidism occurring during prepubertal years, usually due to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, can cause delayed puberty or, in some cases, precocious puberty. Other features of hypothyroidism should be present. In contrast, treated congenital hyperthyroidism usually results in normal pubertal development.

      5. Klinefelter Syndrome
      Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is caused by an XXY genotype. The usual presentation is with delayed sexual development or infertility.

      In conclusion, short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and thyroid problems. It is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 83 - A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for 3 years seeks advice from relief medical staff at a homeless shelter concerning his sore gums.

      He has coiled body hairs with small bruises at their points of insertion as well as noting that if he cuts himself or has trauma the wounds take longer to heal than expected.

      What is the most likely problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scurvy: A Vitamin C Deficiency Syndrome

      Scurvy is a clinical syndrome that results from a lack of vitamin C in the body. This condition is primarily caused by impaired collagen synthesis, which leads to disordered connective tissue. Symptoms of scurvy can occur as early as three months after deficient intake and include ecchymoses, bleeding gums, petechiae, and impaired wound healing.

      Scurvy is most commonly found in individuals who are severely malnourished, drug and alcohol abusers, or those living in poverty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 84 - A 24-year-old-man schedules an appointment due to a nose injury he sustained while...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old-man schedules an appointment due to a nose injury he sustained while playing soccer two days ago. He reports that his nose bled for a few minutes after the injury but has not bled since. He also mentions that his nose did not appear deformed after the incident. He has not sought medical attention before this appointment and is generally healthy with no long-term medications.

      During the examination, you notice no signs of nasal bone deviation, but there is significant swelling in the surrounding soft tissue. On anterior rhinoscopy, you observe a bilateral fluctuant swelling of the nasal septum that almost blocks the nostrils.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit directly to the hospital for same day ENT assessment

      Explanation:

      If there is bilateral purple swelling of the nasal septum, it is likely that the patient has a septal haematoma. It is important to examine the nose for this condition, even if the injury seems minor. A septal haematoma can cause permanent damage to the septal cartilage within 24 hours due to obstructed blood flow. If suspected, the patient should be referred to the on-call ENT team for urgent assessment.

      If a nasal bone fracture is suspected, the patient should also be referred to the ENT emergency clinic. This type of fracture can be corrected under local anaesthetic within 2-3 weeks of the injury.

      Facial bone x-rays are not useful in diagnosing nasal bone fractures.

      If the patient has only experienced simple epistaxis without any other nasal injury, Naseptin may be appropriate.

      If there is a septal deviation, routine ENT referral may be necessary. However, if there is any uncertainty, it is best to seek advice from an ENT specialist.

      Nasal Septal Haematoma: A Complication of Nasal Trauma

      Nasal septal haematoma is a serious complication that can occur after even minor nasal trauma. It is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The most common symptom is nasal obstruction, but pain and rhinorrhoea may also be present. On examination, a bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum is typically seen. It is important to differentiate this from a deviated septum, which will be firm upon probing.

      Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent irreversible septal necrosis, which can occur within 3-4 days if left untreated. This is caused by pressure-related ischaemia of the cartilage, leading to necrosis and potentially resulting in a ‘saddle-nose’ deformity. Management typically involves surgical drainage and intravenous antibiotics. It is crucial to be aware of this complication and to promptly seek medical attention if nasal trauma occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 85 - A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are heard in the right base during examination and an antibiotic is deemed necessary. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      The BNF recommends against the use of quinolones during pregnancy due to the risk of arthropathy observed in animal studies. While there have been reports of a potential increase in the risk of necrotizing enterocolitis with the use of co-amoxiclav during pregnancy, the evidence is not conclusive. The BNF states that co-amoxiclav is currently considered safe for use during pregnancy, and provides links to both the BNF and the UK teratology information service for further information.

      Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients

      When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.

      In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 86 - A 65-year-old man has come to see you to discuss whether he requires...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has come to see you to discuss whether he requires antibiotics prior to undergoing a root canal procedure. His dentist has suggested that he consult with his GP due to his history of infective endocarditis. Upon reviewing his electronic medical record, you discover that he has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Additionally, he has native valvular heart disease and his previous infection was caused by staphylococcus. Presently, he appears to be in good health and is not experiencing any acute medical problems.

      As per NICE guidelines, what treatment is recommended in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No specific treatment

      Explanation:

      In the UK, it is not standard practice to use antibiotic prophylaxis as a preventive measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures.

      Changes in Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis

      In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released new guidelines regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis. These guidelines significantly altered the list of procedures for which prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract procedures, and respiratory tract procedures no longer require prophylaxis. However, NICE does recommend that any infections in individuals at risk of infective endocarditis be promptly investigated and treated to reduce the risk of developing endocarditis. Additionally, if an individual at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy due to a suspected infection at the site of a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis.

      It is important to note that these recommendations differ from those of the American Heart Association and European Society of Cardiology, which still advocate for antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 87 - Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 88 - A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The coil was implanted 4 years ago to treat dysfunctional uterine bleeding. She has not had any menstrual periods for 3 years and is uncertain if it should be taken out. She is currently on elleste solo 1 mg to alleviate menopausal symptoms and was informed that the Mirena was a component of her hormone replacement therapy. What is the duration of the Mirena coil's license for this purpose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      The license for using Mirena as endometrial protection for women on oestrogen-only HRT is limited to 4 years. Similarly, intrauterine contraceptives are licensed for a duration of 3 years.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 89 - A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP for her first cervical smear. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP for her first cervical smear. The GP offers a chaperone, but she declines. During the examination of the introitus, the GP observes a painless lump of 1 cm diameter in the labium. The Bartholin's gland on the right-hand side is not palpable. The woman reports that she has never noticed anything unusual before.

      What would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      If Bartholin’s cysts are asymptomatic, there is no need for any intervention. However, if they cause symptoms or affect the appearance, they can be treated by incision and drainage. In women over 40, a biopsy may be recommended by some gynaecologists to rule out carcinoma.

      If the cyst becomes infected and turns into an abscess, the initial treatment would be marsupialisation. Alternatively, a word catheter can be inserted. Antibiotics are not effective in managing a cyst that is not accompanied by an abscess.

      Bartholin’s cyst occurs when the Bartholin duct’s entrance becomes blocked, causing mucous to build up behind the blockage and form a mass. This blockage is usually caused by vulval oedema and is typically sterile. These cysts are often asymptomatic and painless, but if they become large, they may cause discomfort when sitting or superficial dyspareunia. On the other hand, Bartholin’s abscess is extremely painful and can cause erythema and deformity of the affected vulva. Bartholin’s abscess is more common than the cyst, likely due to the asymptomatic nature of the cyst in most cases.

      Bartholin’s cysts are usually unilateral and 1-3 cm in diameter, and they should not be palpable in healthy individuals. Limited data suggest that around 3000 in 100,000 asymptomatic women have Bartholin’s cysts, and these cysts account for 2% of all gynaecological appointments. The risk factors for developing Bartholin’s cyst are not well understood, but it is thought to increase in incidence with age up to menopause before decreasing. Having one cyst is a risk factor for developing a second.

      Asymptomatic cysts generally do not require intervention, but in older women, some gynaecologists may recommend incision and drainage with biopsy to exclude carcinoma. Symptomatic or disfiguring cysts can be treated with incision and drainage or marsupialisation, which involves creating a new orifice through which glandular secretions can drain. Marsupialisation is more effective at preventing recurrence but is a longer and more invasive procedure. Antibiotics are not necessary for Bartholin’s cyst without evidence of abscess.

      References:
      1. Berger MB, Betschart C, Khandwala N, et al. Incidental Bartholin gland cysts identified on pelvic magnetic resonance imaging. Obstet Gynecol. 2012 Oct;120(4):798-802.
      2. Kaufman RH, Faro S, Brown D. Benign diseases of the vulva and vagina. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Mosby; 2005:240-249.
      3. Azzan BB. Bartholin’s cyst and abscess: a review of treatment of 53 cases. Br J Clin Pract. 1978 Apr;32(4):101-2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 90 - During duty surgery (urgent care), you encounter a 54-year-old woman who is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • During duty surgery (urgent care), you encounter a 54-year-old woman who is experiencing excruciating pain around her right eye. She has tried over-the-counter drops from the chemist, but they have not provided any relief. Although she has no significant medical history, she has been working 12-hour night shifts as a bank nurse. Upon examination, you notice a mild vesicular rash on the conjunctiva, but the eye itself appears normal under direct vision. Her visual acuity is normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir and urgent ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action for suspected herpes zoster ophthalmicus is urgent referral to an ophthalmologist and a 7-10 day course of oral antiviral medication, such as aciclovir. Direct referral to the emergency department is not the best option as it introduces an unnecessary step. High dose oral steroids are not a recognised treatment for this condition. While topical corticosteroids may be used to treat secondary inflammation of the eye, they are not the primary treatment and should not be used in place of oral antivirals.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is a type of shingles that affects around 10% of cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.

      The management of HZO involves oral antiviral treatment for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be given for severe infection or if the patient is immunocompromised. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review.

      Complications of HZO include conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 91 - A young patient collapses in the car park at your GP surgery. They...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient collapses in the car park at your GP surgery. They have a pulse and are breathing. The receptionist calls an ambulance whilst you assess the patient. You rub their sternum hard and say loudly ‘can you hear me?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      When evaluating a patient’s GCS score, producing unintelligible noises is assigned a score of 2. In this case, the patient is emitting a groan, which falls under this category and would receive a score of 2 for voice. Additionally, the patient would receive a score of 5 for motor response as they are able to localize pain and push away your hand. The patient would receive a score of 2 for eyes as they are only opening them in response to pain. Overall, the patient’s GCS score would be 9 out of 15.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 pm.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 92 - A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She is having trouble retaining fluids and a urine dipstick reveals ketones ++. Which of the following is not linked to an elevated risk of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      A lower occurrence of hyperemesis gravidarum is linked to smoking.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 93 - A 50-year-old woman presents with lower back and bilateral leg pain. The lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with lower back and bilateral leg pain. The lower back pain has been present for 6 months but gradually getting worse. Recently she has noticed that her legs ache when she walks further than about 300 meters. She is normally very active and enjoys hiking. The pain radiates to her buttocks, thighs and legs bilaterally (but her right leg is worse than the left). She describes the pain as 'aching' and 'tingling'. If she walks further than about 300 meters her legs become weak and numb. If she sits down and leans forward the symptoms go, and she can then carry on for another 300 meters. She says that the pain is better if she walks downhill. She finds standing exacerbates the symptoms but she can swim without any problems.

      The patient has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, but is otherwise healthy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case, and what is the first line investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal MRI

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with gradual onset leg and back pain, weakness, and numbness that is triggered by walking, spinal stenosis is the most probable diagnosis, especially if the clinical examination is normal. Patients with spinal stenosis typically experience relief from pain when sitting, leaning forward, or crouching, and walking uphill is less painful than walking on flat ground. Cycling doesn’t usually cause pain. The preferred imaging modality for spinal stenosis is an MRI.

      Peripheral vascular disease causing claudication is the most likely differential diagnosis, but this patient has good pulses and no risk factors. Lower limb dopplers would be used if vascular disease is suspected.

      While a spinal CT can be used if an MRI is contraindicated, it is not the first choice. An abdominal USS and a spinal x-ray are not appropriate for evaluating a patient with suspected spinal stenosis, so both of these options are incorrect.

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 94 - John is a 91 year old man with severe dementia. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 91 year old man with severe dementia. He has been relatively stable over the past two years with a gradual decline in cognition. The nursing home contacts you to report that he has been exhibiting more aggressive behavior, including swearing and hitting staff, over the past month and requests a review. What would be the most suitable approach to managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assess for a cause of delirium

      Explanation:

      Janet’s recent change in behavior may be a result of her dementia progression, but it is crucial to rule out any physical causes, including delirium. Neglecting to do so could lead to a high risk of mortality associated with delirium.

      The Alzheimer’s Society recommends investigating the following potential causes when dealing with challenging behavior in the elderly:

      – Infections, such as chest infections and urinary tract infections (UTIs)
      – Pre-existing injuries, such as cuts or bruises
      – Constipation
      – Pain
      – Existing conditions, such as arthritis
      – Being in an uncomfortable position or being moved in an uncomfortable way
      – Overgrown toenails or fingernails
      – Toothache, earache, or issues with dentures.

      Understanding the Differences between Delirium and Dementia

      Delirium and dementia are two conditions that are often confused with each other. However, there are distinct differences between the two. Delirium is characterized by an acute onset, impairment of consciousness, fluctuation of symptoms, abnormal perception, agitation, fear, and delusions. On the other hand, dementia is a chronic condition that develops slowly over time and is characterized by memory loss, difficulty with language, and impaired judgment.

      Factors that favor delirium over dementia include the sudden onset of symptoms, impairment of consciousness, and fluctuation of symptoms. Delirium symptoms tend to be worse at night and may include abnormal perceptions such as illusions and hallucinations. Patients with delirium may also experience agitation, fear, and delusions.

      It is important to distinguish between delirium and dementia as they require different treatment approaches. Delirium is often reversible once the underlying cause is identified and treated, while dementia is a progressive condition that requires ongoing management. By understanding the differences between these two conditions, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 95 - A 25 year old woman visits a fertility clinic with her partner due...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman visits a fertility clinic with her partner due to oligomenorrhoea and galactorrhea. Despite having regular unprotected intercourse for 18 months, she has been unable to conceive. Upon conducting blood tests, it is discovered that her serum prolactin level is 6000 mIU/l (normal <500 mIU/l). Further investigation through a pituitary MRI reveals a microprolactinoma.

      What initial treatment options are likely to be presented to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating prolactinomas, dopamine agonists like cabergoline and bromocriptine are typically the first choice, even if the patient is experiencing significant neurological complications. Surgery may be necessary for those who cannot tolerate or do not respond to medical treatment, with a trans-sphenoidal approach being the preferred method unless there is extensive extra-pituitary extension. Radiotherapy is not commonly used, and octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is primarily used to treat acromegaly.

      Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma

      Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin.

      In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinomas may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.

      Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves medical therapy with dopamine agonists like cabergoline or bromocriptine, which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. Surgery may be necessary for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or cannot tolerate it. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical removal of the tumor.

      Overall, understanding prolactinoma is important for proper diagnosis and management of this type of pituitary adenoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 96 - A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and breathlessness. He has noticed progressively worsening symptoms over the last 1-2 years.

      On examination he has a slow rising carotid pulse on palpation.

      Which of the following is most likely to be heard on auscultation of his heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids

      Explanation:

      Valvular Heart Disorders and Their Classic Symptoms

      Aortic stenosis is a common valvular heart disorder that mainly affects older people. It is characterized by scarring and calcium build-up that narrows the valve over time. Classic symptoms include angina, dizziness/syncope, and cardiac failure. Without intervention, the condition usually deteriorates progressively.

      On examination, a slow rising pulse is a characteristic finding, and the classic murmur is that of an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Tricuspid stenosis is characterized by an early diastolic murmur heard at the left sternal edge in inspiration. Aortic regurgitation is marked by a high-pitched early diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient sitting forward. Mitral regurgitation is indicated by a pansystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Finally, mitral stenosis is characterized by a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient lying on their left side.

      In summary, understanding the classic symptoms and examination findings of valvular heart disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 97 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear response.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety when SSRIs are suddenly stopped or reduced. It is possible that the woman in question has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. On the other hand, alcohol withdrawal typically results in anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may cause fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 98 - A father brings in his 4-year-old son who has had a fever for...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings in his 4-year-old son who has had a fever for 2 days, vomited once, and the father reports foul-smelling urine. The boy is happily playing with toys in your office.

      A recent urine sample reveals: negative leukocytes, positive nitrites, negative protein, and negative blood.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start antibiotics and send a sample for culture

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, dipstick testing for leukocyte esterase and nitrite is just as effective as microscopy and culture for diagnosing UTIs in children over the age of 3. If both leukocytes and nitrites are positive, the child should be treated for a UTI with antibiotics. If the child has a high or intermediate risk of serious illness or has had a UTI in the past, a urine sample should be sent for culture. If nitrites are positive but leukocytes are negative, antibiotics should be started and a urine sample should be sent for culture. If leukocytes are positive but nitrites are negative, a urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture. It is important to only prescribe antibiotics if there is clear clinical evidence of a UTI, such as dysuria. If the dipstick is negative, another cause for the symptoms should be investigated and urine should not be sent for culture.

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 99 - A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a patient infected with the hepatitis C virus.
      Select the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for HCV RNA at 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Transmission and Treatment of Hepatitis C

      Hepatitis C virus is not as easily transmitted through a needlestick as hepatitis B virus, with a risk of transmission estimated at only 3%. Currently, there is no post-exposure vaccine available and neither immunoglobulin nor any antiviral agent has been proven effective in preventing transmission. Studies have shown that high anti-HCV titre immunoglobulin did not prevent transmission. Healthcare workers exposed to a source known to be positive for anti-HCV or HCV RNA should have their serum tested for HCV RNA at 6 and 12 weeks and for anti-HCV at 12 and 24 weeks.

      In the treatment of hepatitis C infection, peg-interferon α and ribavirin are commonly used. These treatments have been found to be particularly effective in people infected with virus of genotypes 2 and 3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 100 - You are having a conversation about contraception with a 25-year-old patient via phone....

    Incorrect

    • You are having a conversation about contraception with a 25-year-old patient via phone. She had the new Kyleena® intrauterine system (IUS) inserted yesterday at the local family planning clinic. She is not using any other form of contraception. Her menstrual cycle began 5 days ago.

      She is curious to know if she requires additional contraception and for how long?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No further contraception is required

      Explanation:

      No additional contraception is necessary if the Kyleena® IUS is inserted within the first seven days of a patient’s menstrual cycle. This form of intrauterine contraception contains a lower dose of levonorgestrel than the Mirena® IUS and is approved for use for up to five years.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 101 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of breast pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of breast pain that has been ongoing for 4 months. She reports a dull ache in both breasts that occurs 1-2 weeks before her period. She has no other medical issues and is not sexually active.

      Upon examination, there are no palpable breast lumps or skin changes.

      What is the next best course of action in managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advice on a supportive bra and simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for cyclical mastalgia is a supportive bra and basic pain relief.

      Cyclical breast pain is a common condition that affects up to two-thirds of women, typically beginning two weeks before their menstrual cycle. Breast pain, in the absence of other breast cancer symptoms such as a lump or changes in the nipple or skin, is not linked to breast cancer. Referral to a breast specialist may be considered if the pain is severe enough to impact quality of life or sleep and doesn’t respond to first-line treatment after three months, but there is no need for referral in this case.

      Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of cyclical breast pain, as there is no evidence to support their use.

      According to current NICE CKS guidelines, the combined oral contraceptive pill or progesterone-only pill should not be used to treat cyclical breast pain, as there is limited evidence of their effectiveness compared to a placebo.

      The first-line approach to managing cyclical breast pain involves advising patients to wear a supportive bra and take basic pain relief. This is based on expert consensus, which suggests that most cases of cyclical breast pain can be managed conservatively with a watchful-waiting approach, as long as malignancy has been ruled out as a cause.

      Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 102 - A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent fatigue and indigestion. He has been belching excessively at night and is bothered by constant bloating. He denies any alterations in his bowel movements and has not noticed any rectal bleeding. During the physical examination, you observe mild conjunctival pallor and a slightly distended abdomen. A rectal exam reveals no abnormalities.

      What is the most frequent underlying condition that could explain these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease is the most likely underlying diagnosis as it can present with nonspecific gastrointestinal symptoms and fatigue. Bowel cancer should also be considered and appropriate screening carried out if there is clinical suspicion or red flag symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux is unlikely to cause fatigue or anaemia, while inflammatory bowel disease is less common than irritable bowel and there are no signs of it in the stem.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 103 - A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including blood tests, electrocardiogram, and urine dip, all come back normal. His QRisk2 score is 18%. His blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/100. He has no significant medical history, but there is a family history of high blood pressure. Despite making lifestyle changes, his blood pressure remains elevated, and you both agree on treatment.

      What is your plan for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      First Step in Managing Hypertension

      Having diagnosed hypertension, the first step in management involves considering several key factors in the patient’s history. One important factor is whether the patient has diabetes, as this influences the choice of antihypertensive medication. In diabetic patients, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are preferred over calcium antagonists due to their secondary benefits in managing diabetes.

      Another important factor is the patient’s age, with a threshold of 55 years indicating the preference for a calcium antagonist over an ACE inhibitor or ARB in step 1. This is because these medications are less effective in older individuals. Other age thresholds, such as 40 and 80 years, are also important in diagnosis and monitoring.

      While not relevant to this question, it is important to note that in patients under 80 years of age, the target blood pressure should be below 140/90 in clinic or below 135/85 in home or ambulatory monitoring. Additionally, a statin may be considered for patients with a QRisk2 score above 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 104 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of persistent tinnitus in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of persistent tinnitus in her left ear for the past 5 months. She has also observed a gradual decline in her hearing ability in the same ear. Upon examination, both ears appear normal. Rinne's test shows air conduction greater than bone conduction in the left ear, and Weber's test lateralises to the right ear. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      The typical presentation of vestibular schwannoma involves a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. On the other hand, the symptoms of acoustic neuroma may vary depending on the cranial nerve affected. In this case, the patient’s tinnitus and hearing loss suggest that the vestibulocochlear nerve is affected, and vertigo may also be present. Sensorineural hearing loss is observed in acoustic neuroma, whereas otosclerosis, impacted wax, and cholesteatoma cause conductive hearing loss. Meniere’s disease is characterized by progressive hearing loss that fluctuates in severity depending on the attacks.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 105 - A 72-year-old male patient requests a house call because he has been feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male patient requests a house call because he has been feeling unwell. Upon arrival, he reports experiencing double vision and difficulty with balance.
      During the physical examination, you observe nystagmus, significant ataxia, and slurred speech.
      The patient mentions that he was recently prescribed a new medication by his hospital specialist, but he is unsure about the correct dosage.
      What medication has he been prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Side-Effects of Phenytoin

      Phenytoin is a medication used to treat seizures and epilepsy. However, it can have various undesirable side-effects, both in the long-term and with excessive dosage.

      Acute phenytoin overdose can cause nystagmus, diplopia, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and hyperglycaemia. On the other hand, common side-effects not related to acute intoxication include tremors, paraesthesia, gingival hypertrophy, rashes, acne, hirsutism, and coarse facies.

      In rare cases, serious haematological and neurological side-effects can occur with regular usage. Haematological side-effects include megaloblastic anaemia, aplastic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, and agranulocytosis. Meanwhile, neurological side-effects include peripheral neuropathy and dyskinaesias.

      It is important to monitor the dosage and usage of phenytoin to avoid these side-effects and ensure the patient’s safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 106 - A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose weight. She has been attending supervised weight loss sessions and gym classes, but has not been successful in her efforts. She was prescribed orlistat 120 mg, to be taken after each meal, 10 weeks ago when she weighed 100 kg (BMI 37 kg/m2). After 10 weeks of taking orlistat, she now weighs 97.5 kg. What would be the most appropriate management in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discontinue orlistat

      Explanation:

      Options for Managing Inadequate Weight Loss with Orlistat

      Orlistat is a medication used to aid weight loss by reducing the absorption of dietary fat. However, if a patient fails to lose at least 5% of their body weight after 12 weeks of treatment, orlistat should be discontinued. Here are some options for managing inadequate weight loss with orlistat:

      1. Discontinue orlistat: If a patient has not lost at least 5% of their starting weight, orlistat should be discontinued. A lower weight loss target may be considered for patients with type II diabetes.

      2. Increase activity levels: Increasing physical activity can help with weight loss. However, it is important to address any underlying issues that may be hindering weight loss.

      3. Refer for bariatric surgery: Bariatric surgery may be an option for patients with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more, or 35–40 kg/m2 with significant comorbidity that could be improved with weight loss. Non-surgical methods of weight loss should be attempted prior to referral.

      4. Increase the dose to 180 mg with meals: The maximum dose of orlistat is 120 mg up to three times a day. A 60 mg preparation is available over the counter. However, increasing the dose beyond the recommended maximum is not advised.

      It is important to regularly review progress and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology