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  • Question 1 - A 66-year-old patient visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old patient visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath when climbing stairs. She reports no other health issues. During the examination, the GP notes a slow-rising pulse, a blood pressure reading of 130/100 mmHg, and detects a murmur on auscultation.
      What is the most probable type of murmur heard in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur (ESM)

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and Their Associations

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat. They can be innocent or pathological, and their characteristics can provide clues to the underlying condition. Here are some common heart murmurs and their associations:

      1. Ejection systolic murmur (ESM): This murmur is associated with aortic stenosis and is related to the ventricular outflow tract. It may be innocent in children and high-output states, but pathological causes include aortic stenosis and sclerosis, pulmonary stenosis, and hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy.

      2. Mid-diastolic murmur: This murmur is commonly associated with tricuspid or mitral stenosis and starts after the second heart sound and ends before the first heart sound. Rheumatic fever is a common cause of mitral valve stenosis.

      3. Pansystolic murmur: This murmur is associated with mitral regurgitation and is of uniform intensity that starts immediately after S1 and merges with S2. It is also found in tricuspid regurgitation and ventricular septal defects.

      4. Early diastolic murmur (EDM): This high-pitched murmur occurs in pulmonary and aortic regurgitation and is caused by blood flowing through a dysfunctional valve back into the ventricle. It may be accentuated by asking the patient to lean forward.

      5. Continuous murmur: This murmur is commonly associated with a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), a connection between the aorta and the pulmonary artery. It causes a continuous murmur, sometimes described as a machinery murmur, heard throughout both systole and diastole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      71
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central crushing chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central crushing chest pain that spreads to his arm and jaw. Upon examination, his ECG reveals ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal changes in I and aVL. Based on this information, which of the following vessels is most likely obstructed?

      Your Answer: Posterior descending artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Myocardial Infarctions Based on ECG Changes

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help differentiate the location of the MI and guide appropriate management. Here are the ECG changes expected in different types of MI:

      Right Coronary Artery (RCA) Infarction: An inferior MI affects the RCA in 80% of cases, with ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, and reciprocal changes in leads I and aVL.

      Left Circumflex Artery (LCX) Infarction: LCX infarction presents with ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 (lateral leads), and reciprocal changes in the inferior leads II, III, and aVF.

      Left Coronary Artery (LCA) Infarction: If the clot is in the LCA before bifurcation, ST changes are expected in leads I, aVL, and V1–V6 (anterolateral leads).

      Posterior Descending Artery (PDA) Infarction: PDA infarction gives ECG changes in keeping with a posterior MI, such as ST depression in the anterior leads.

      Left Anterior Descending Artery (LAD) Infarction: LAD runs in the anterior of the heart, almost parallel to the septum, and then lateralizes. Therefore, in an LAD infarction, ST changes are expected in leads V1–V6 (anteroseptal leads).

      In conclusion, recognizing the ECG changes in different types of MI can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      354.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient...

    Correct

    • An ECG shows small T-waves, ST depression, and prominent U-waves in a patient who is likely to be experiencing what condition?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Electrocardiogram Changes and Symptoms Associated with Electrolyte Imbalances

      Electrolyte imbalances can cause various changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) and present with specific symptoms. Here are some of the common electrolyte imbalances and their associated ECG changes and symptoms:

      Hypokalaemia:
      – ECG changes: small T-waves, ST depression, prolonged QT interval, prominent U-waves
      – Symptoms: generalised weakness, lack of energy, muscle pain, constipation
      – Treatment: potassium replacement with iv infusion of potassium chloride (rate of infusion should not exceed 10 mmol of potassium an hour)

      Hyponatraemia:
      – ECG changes: ST elevation
      – Symptoms: headaches, nausea, vomiting, lethargy
      – Treatment: depends on the underlying cause

      Hypocalcaemia:
      – ECG changes: prolongation of the QT interval
      – Symptoms: paraesthesia, muscle cramps, tetany
      – Treatment: calcium replacement

      Hyperkalaemia:
      – ECG changes: tall tented T-waves, widened QRS, absent P-waves, sine wave appearance
      – Symptoms: weakness, fatigue
      – Treatment: depends on the severity of hyperkalaemia

      Hypercalcaemia:
      – ECG changes: shortening of the QT interval
      – Symptoms: moans (nausea, constipation), stones (kidney stones, flank pain), groans (confusion, depression), bones (bone pain)
      – Treatment: depends on the underlying cause

      It is important to recognise and treat electrolyte imbalances promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      526.9
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP after being discharged from the hospital. She...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP after being discharged from the hospital. She was admitted three weeks ago due to chest pain and was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. During her hospital stay, she was prescribed several new medications to prevent future cardiac events and is seeking further guidance on her statin dosage. What is the most suitable advice to provide?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg od

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Statin Dose for Secondary Prevention of Coronary Events

      All patients who have had a myocardial infarction should be started on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a beta-blocker, a high-intensity statin, and antiplatelet therapy. Before starting a statin, liver function tests should be checked. The recommended statin dose for secondary prevention, as per NICE guidelines, is atorvastatin 80 mg od. Simvastatin 40 mg od is not the most appropriate drug of choice for secondary prevention, and atorvastatin is preferred due to its reduced incidence of myopathy. While simvastatin 80 mg od is an appropriate high-intensity statin therapy, atorvastatin is still preferred. Atorvastatin 20 mg od and 40 mg od are too low a dose to start with, and the dose may need to be increased to 80 mg in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.7
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man with type II diabetes, is having his annual diabetes review....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with type II diabetes, is having his annual diabetes review. During this review it is noticed that the man has a heart rate between 38–48 beats/min. On questioning, he mentions that he has noticed occasional palpitations, but otherwise has been asymptomatic.
      An ECG is performed, which shows that on every fourth beat there is a non-conducted P-wave (a P-wave without QRS complex). Otherwise there are no other abnormalities and the PR interval is constant.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Second degree heart block – Mobitz type II

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Heart Blocks on an ECG

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to monitor the electrical activity of the heart. It can help identify different types of heart blocks, which occur when the electrical signals that control the heartbeat are disrupted. Here are some common types of heart blocks and how they appear on an ECG:

      Second Degree Heart Block – Mobitz Type II
      This type of heart block is characterized by a regular non-conducted P-wave on the ECG. It may also show a widened QRS, indicating that the block is in the bundle branches of Purkinje fibers. If a patient is symptomatic with Mobitz type II heart block, permanent pacing is required to prevent progression to third degree heart block.

      Third Degree Heart Block
      An ECG of a third degree heart block would show dissociated P-waves and QRS-waves. This means that the atria and ventricles are not communicating properly, and the heart may beat very slowly or irregularly.

      Atrial Flutter
      Atrial flutter on an ECG would typically show a saw-toothed baseline. This occurs when the atria are beating too quickly and not in sync with the ventricles.

      Ectopic Beats
      Ectopic beats are premature heartbeats that occur outside of the normal rhythm. They would not result in regular non-conducted P-waves on an ECG.

      Second Degree Heart Block – Mobitz Type I
      Mobitz type I heart block would typically show progressive lengthening of the PR interval over several complexes, before a non-conducted P-wave would occur. This type of heart block is usually not as serious as Mobitz type II, but may still require monitoring and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      41.6
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  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is found to have a systolic murmur heard loudest in the aortic region. The murmur increases in intensity with deep inspiration and does not radiate. What is the most probable abnormality in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      Systolic Valvular Murmurs

      A systolic valvular murmur can be caused by aortic/pulmonary stenosis or mitral/tricuspid regurgitation. It is important to note that the location where the murmur is heard loudest can be misleading. For instance, if it is aortic stenosis, the murmur is expected to radiate to the carotids. However, the significant factor to consider is that the murmur is heard loudest on inspiration. During inspiration, venous return to the heart increases, which exacerbates right-sided murmurs. Conversely, expiration reduces venous return and exacerbates left-sided murmurs. To remember this useful fact, the mnemonic RILE (Right on Inspiration, Left on Expiration) can be used.

      If a systolic murmur is enhanced on inspiration, it must be a right-sided murmur, which could be pulmonary stenosis or tricuspid regurgitation. However, in this case, only pulmonary stenosis is an option. systolic valvular murmurs and their characteristics is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with crushing substernal chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with crushing substernal chest pain that radiates to the jaw. He has a history of poorly controlled hypertension and uncontrolled type II diabetes mellitus for the past 12 years. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST elevation, and he is diagnosed with acute myocardial infarction. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and stenting and is discharged from the hospital. Eight weeks later, he experiences fever, leukocytosis, and chest pain that is relieved by leaning forwards. There is diffuse ST elevation in multiple ECG leads, and a pericardial friction rub is heard on auscultation. What is the most likely cause of the patient's current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dressler’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Complications of Transmural Myocardial Infarction

      Transmural myocardial infarction can lead to various complications, including Dressler’s syndrome and ventricular aneurysm. Dressler’s syndrome typically occurs weeks to months after an infarction and is characterized by acute fibrinous pericarditis, fever, pleuritic chest pain, and leukocytosis. On the other hand, ventricular aneurysm is characterized by a systolic bulge in the precordial area and predisposes to stasis and thrombus formation. Acute fibrinous pericarditis, which manifests a few days after an infarction, is not due to an autoimmune reaction. Reinfarction is unlikely in a patient who has undergone successful treatment for STEMI. Infectious myocarditis, caused by viruses such as Coxsackie B, Epstein-Barr, adenovirus, and echovirus, is not the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, given his medical history.

      Complications of Transmural Myocardial Infarction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      783.2
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the visit, his blood pressure was measured at 110/90 mmHg and his carotid pulse was slow-rising. What is the most severe symptom that indicates a poor prognosis in aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Syncope

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Mortality Risk in Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and potentially fatal outcomes. Here are some common symptoms and their associated mortality risks:

      – Syncope: This is a major concern and indicates the need for valve replacement, regardless of valve area.
      – Chest pain: While angina can occur due to reduced diastolic coronary perfusion time and increased left ventricular mass, it is not as significant as syncope in predicting mortality.
      – Cough: Aortic stenosis typically does not cause coughing.
      – Palpitations: Unless confirmed to be non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, palpitations do not increase mortality risk.
      – Orthostatic dizziness: Mild decreased cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness upon standing, but this symptom alone does not confer additional mortality risk.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur, as aortic stenosis can be a life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.7
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  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old patient presents for an annual review. He has no significant past...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old patient presents for an annual review. He has no significant past medical history. He is a smoker and has a family history of ischaemic heart disease: body mass index (BMI) 27.4, blood pressure (BP) 178/62 mmHg, fasting serum cholesterol 7.9 mmol/l (normal value < 5.17 mmol/l), triglycerides 2.2 mmol/l (normal value < 1.7 mmol/l), fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l (normal value 3.9–5.6 mmol/l).
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for his cholesterol?

      Your Answer: Start atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

      The primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD) involves identifying and managing risk factors such as high cholesterol, smoking, hypertension, and family history of heart disease. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of these risk factors.

      Start Atorvastatin: NICE recommends offering atorvastatin 20 mg to people with a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD. Atorvastatin is preferred over simvastatin due to its superior efficacy and side-effect profile.

      Reassure and Repeat in One Year: NICE advises using the QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess CVD risk and starting treatment if the risk is >10%.

      Dietary Advice and Repeat in Six Months: Dietary advice should be offered to all patients, including reducing saturated fat intake, increasing mono-unsaturated fat intake, choosing wholegrain varieties of starchy food, reducing sugar intake, eating fruits and vegetables, fish, nuts, seeds, and legumes.

      Start Bezafibrate: NICE advises against routinely offering fibrates for the prevention of CVD to people being treated for primary prevention.

      Start Ezetimibe: Ezetimibe is not a first-line treatment for hyperlipidaemia, but people with primary hypercholesterolaemia should be considered for ezetimibe treatment.

      Overall, a combination of lifestyle changes and medication can effectively manage cardiovascular risk factors and prevent the development of CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      73.6
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  • Question 10 - The cardiologist is examining a 48-year-old man with chest pain and is using...

    Correct

    • The cardiologist is examining a 48-year-old man with chest pain and is using his stethoscope to listen to the heart. Which part of the chest is most likely to correspond to the location of the heart's apex?

      Your Answer: Left fifth intercostal space

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Heart: Intercostal Spaces and Auscultation Positions

      The human heart is a vital organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body. Understanding its anatomy is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various heart conditions. In this article, we will discuss the intercostal spaces and auscultation positions related to the heart.

      Left Fifth Intercostal Space: Apex of the Heart
      The apex of the heart is located deep to the left fifth intercostal space, approximately 8-9 cm from the mid-sternal line. This is an important landmark for cardiac examination and procedures.

      Left Fourth Intercostal Space: Left Ventricle
      The left ventricle, one of the four chambers of the heart, is located superior to the apex and can be auscultated in the left fourth intercostal space.

      Right Fourth Intercostal Space: Right Atrium
      The right atrium, another chamber of the heart, is located immediately lateral to the right sternal margin at the right fourth intercostal space.

      Left Second Intercostal Space: Pulmonary Valve
      The pulmonary valve, which regulates blood flow from the right ventricle to the lungs, can be auscultated in the left second intercostal space, immediately lateral to the left sternal margin.

      Right Fifth Intercostal Space: Incorrect Location
      The right fifth intercostal space is an incorrect location for cardiac examination because the apex of the heart is located on the left side.

      In conclusion, understanding the intercostal spaces and auscultation positions related to the heart is essential for medical professionals to accurately diagnose and treat various heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED)...

    Incorrect

    • A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain, has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0, and the only physical finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation. The patient has no notable medical history.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Send home with 24-h three lead ECG tape and review in 1 week.

      Correct Answer: Medical cardioversion (amiodarone or flecainide)

      Explanation:

      Management of Atrial Fibrillation: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following are the treatment options and considerations for managing AF:

      Investigations for Reversible Causes
      Before initiating any treatment, the patient should be investigated for reversible causes of AF, such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests (TFTs, FBC, U and Es, LFTs, and coagulation screen) and a chest X-ray should be performed.

      Medical Cardioversion
      If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who present within 48 hours of the onset of AF. Amiodarone or flecainide can be used for this purpose.

      DC Cardioversion
      DC cardioversion is indicated for haemodynamically unstable patients, including those with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. It is also appropriate if medical cardioversion fails.

      Anticoagulation Therapy with Warfarin
      Patients who remain in persistent AF for over 48 hours should have their CHA2DS2 VASc score calculated. If the score is equal to or greater than 1 for men or equal to or greater than 2 for women, anticoagulation therapy with warfarin should be initiated.

      Radiofrequency Ablation
      Radiofrequency ablation is not a suitable treatment for acute AF.

      24-Hour Three Lead ECG Tape
      Sending the patient home with a 24-hour three lead ECG tape and reviewing them in one week is not necessary as the diagnosis of AF has already been established.

      In summary, the management of AF involves investigating for reversible causes, considering medical or DC cardioversion, initiating anticoagulation therapy with warfarin if necessary, and avoiding radiofrequency ablation for acute AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease presents with sudden onset palpitations. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease presents with sudden onset palpitations. She has no other complaints. On examination, a regular tachycardia is present. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Chest is clear. ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a QRS width of 80 ms and a rate of 149 beats per min in a sawtooth pattern.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular tachycardia

      Correct Answer: Atrial flutter

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiac Arrhythmias: Types and Characteristics

      Cardiac arrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can cause serious health complications. Here are some common types of cardiac arrhythmias and their characteristics:

      1. Atrial Flutter: A type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG. It is caused by a premature electrical impulse in the atrium and can degenerate into atrial fibrillation. Treatment involves rate or rhythm control, and electrical cardioversion is more effective than in atrial fibrillation.

      2. Fast Atrial Fibrillation: Another type of supraventricular tachycardia that presents as an irregularly irregular tachycardia.

      3. Ventricular Tachycardia: A common arrhythmia in cardiopaths that is characterized by a wide-complex tachycardia on ECG.

      4. Mobitz Type II: A form of second-degree heart block that is characterized by intermittent non-conducted P waves on ECG without progressive prolongation of the QRS interval.

      5. Brugada Syndrome: A rare electrophysiological condition that causes sudden death in young adults. ECG findings usually show ST elevation in leads V1 to V3 with a right bundle branch block.

      It is important to identify and treat cardiac arrhythmias promptly to prevent serious health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      109
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  • Question 13 - A 63-year-old diabetic woman presents with general malaise and epigastric pain of 2...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old diabetic woman presents with general malaise and epigastric pain of 2 hours’ duration. She is hypotensive (blood pressure 90/55) and has jugular venous distension. Cardiac workup reveals ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5 and V6. A diagnosis of high lateral myocardial infarction is made, and the patient is prepared for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
      Blockage of which of the following arteries is most likely to lead to this type of infarction?

      Your Answer: Left (obtuse) marginal artery

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and their Associated ECG Changes

      The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries, and blockages in these arteries can lead to myocardial infarction (heart attack). Different coronary arteries supply blood to different parts of the heart, and the location of the blockage can be identified by changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) readings.

      Left (obtuse) Marginal Artery: This artery supplies the lateral wall of the left ventricle. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads I, aVL, V2, V5, and V6, with reciprocal changes in the inferior leads.

      Anterior Interventricular (Left Anterior Descending) Artery: This artery supplies the anterior walls of both ventricles and the anterior part of the interventricular septum. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads V2-V4, sometimes extending to V1 and V5.

      Posterior Interventricular Artery: This artery is a branch of the right coronary artery and supplies the posterior walls of both ventricles. ECG changes associated with blockages in this artery are not specific.

      Right (Acute) Marginal Artery: This artery supplies the right ventricle. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads II, III, aVF, and sometimes V1.

      Right Mainstem Coronary Artery: Inferior myocardial infarction is most commonly associated with blockages in this artery (80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (20% of cases). ECG changes in this type of infarct are seen in leads II, III, and aVF.

      Understanding Coronary Arteries and ECG Changes in Myocardial Infarction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - A 58-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of the anterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle. This has led to valve prolapse. Which structure is most likely responsible for the prolapse?

      Your Answer: Anterior and septal cusps of the tricuspid valve

      Correct Answer: Anterior and posterior cusps of the tricuspid valve

      Explanation:

      Cusps and Papillary Muscles of the Tricuspid and Mitral Valves

      The tricuspid and mitral valves are important structures in the heart that regulate blood flow between the atria and ventricles. These valves are composed of cusps and papillary muscles that work together to ensure proper function.

      The tricuspid valve has three cusps: anterior, posterior, and septal. The papillary muscles of the right ventricle attach to these cusps, with the anterior papillary muscle connecting to both the anterior and posterior cusps.

      The mitral valve, located between the left atrium and ventricle, has only two cusps: anterior and posterior.

      The posterior and septal cusps of the tricuspid valve attach to the posterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle, while the anterior and septal cusps attach to the septal papillary muscle.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of these cusps and papillary muscles is crucial in diagnosing and treating heart conditions such as mitral valve prolapse and tricuspid regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent sharp central chest...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent sharp central chest pains over the past 48 hours. The pain worsens with exertion and when he lies down. He reports no difficulty breathing. The ECG reveals widespread ST elevation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Pericarditis from Other Cardiac Conditions: A Clinical Overview

      Pericarditis is a common cause of widespread ST elevation, characterized by chest pain that is often pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include dry cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms, with the most important sign being pericardial rub. It can be caused by viral infections, post-MI, tuberculosis, or uraemia.

      While pulmonary embolism may cause similar pleuritic pain, it would not result in the same ECG changes as pericarditis. Acute MI causes ST elevation in the affected coronary artery territory, with reciprocal ST depression. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents with syncope or pre-syncope, and ECG changes consistent with left ventricular and septal hypertrophy. Ventricular aneurysm is another cause of ST elevation, but the clinical scenario and patient age align with a diagnosis of acute pericarditis.

      In summary, recognizing the unique clinical presentation and ECG changes of pericarditis is crucial in distinguishing it from other cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      33.9
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old female presents with palpitations, chest pain, and shortness of breath that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents with palpitations, chest pain, and shortness of breath that radiates to her left arm. These symptoms began six weeks ago after she witnessed her father's death from a heart attack. Over the past decade, she has undergone various investigations for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, but no significant cause has been identified for these symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation Disorder as the Most Likely Diagnosis

      Somatisation disorder is the most probable diagnosis for the given scenario, although it lacks sufficient criteria for a complete diagnosis. This disorder is characterised by recurring pains, gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudo-neurologic symptoms that persist for years. To meet the diagnostic criteria, the patient’s physical complaints must not be intentionally induced and must result in medical attention or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Typically, the first symptoms appear during adolescence, and the full criteria are met by the age of 30.

      Among the other disorders, factitious disorder is the least likely explanation. The other three disorders are possible explanations, but they are not as likely as somatisation disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - What is the most accurate statement regarding the electrocardiograph? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most accurate statement regarding the electrocardiograph?

      Your Answer: ST depression and tall R waves in leads V1 and V2 are consistent with a diagnosis of a posterior myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Common ECG Findings and Their Significance

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) is a valuable tool in diagnosing various cardiac conditions. Here are some common ECG findings and their significance:

      1. ST depression and tall R waves in leads V1 and V2 are consistent with a diagnosis of a posterior myocardial infarction.

      2. Pneumonia causes low-voltage QRS complexes. This can be caused by the dampening effect of extra layers of fat, fluid, or air between the heart and thoracic wall.

      3. The corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated by Bazett’s formula: QTc = QT interval ÷ square root of the RR interval (in seconds).

      4. A 2-mm ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF, V4, and V5 is consistent with an anterior myocardial infarction. This suggests an inferior lateral infarction, as opposed to just an inferior myocardial infarction.

      5. The S1Q3T3 pattern is seen in up to 20% of patients with a pulmonary embolism. Sinus tachycardia is the most common ECG abnormality seen in patients presenting with pulmonary emboli. Other potential findings include a right ventricular strain pattern, complete and incomplete right bundle branch block (RBBB), and P pulmonale indicating right atrial enlargement.

      Understanding these common ECG findings can aid in the diagnosis and management of various cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old man felt dizzy at work and later had a rhythm strip...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man felt dizzy at work and later had a rhythm strip (lead II) performed in the Emergency Department. It reveals one P wave for every QRS complex and a PR interval of 240 ms.
      What does this rhythm strip reveal?

      Your Answer: First-degree heart block

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Heart Block

      Heart block is a condition where the electrical signals that control the heartbeat are disrupted, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm. There are different types of heart block, each with its own characteristic features.

      First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval, but with a 1:1 ratio of P waves to QRS complexes. This type of heart block is usually asymptomatic and does not require treatment.

      Second-degree heart block can be further divided into two types: Mobitz type 1 and Mobitz type 2. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach’s phenomenon, is characterized by a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped. Mobitz type 2, on the other hand, is characterized by intermittent P waves that fail to conduct to the ventricles, leading to intermittent dropped QRS complexes. This type of heart block often progresses to complete heart block.

      Complete heart block, also known as third-degree heart block, occurs when there is no association between P waves and QRS complexes. The ventricular rate is often slow, reflecting a ventricular escape rhythm as the ventricles are no longer controlled by the sinoatrial node pacemaker. This type of heart block requires immediate medical attention.

      Understanding the different types of heart block is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of heart block, such as dizziness, fainting, or chest pain, seek medical attention right away.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes is urgently sent to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes is urgently sent to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP). The patient had seen her GP that morning and reported an episode of chest pain that she had experienced the day before. The GP suspected the pain was due to gastro-oesophageal reflux but had performed an electrocardiogram (ECG) and sent a troponin level to be certain. The ECG was normal, but the troponin level came back that afternoon as raised. The GP advised the patient to go to Accident and Emergency, given the possibility of reduced sensitivity to the symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI) in this diabetic patient.
      Patient Normal range
      High-sensitivity troponin T 20 ng/l <14 ng/l
      What should be done based on this test result?

      Your Answer: Admission to Coronary Care Unit (CCU)

      Correct Answer: Repeat troponin level

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Myocardial Infarction

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction (MI), a troponin level should be checked. If the level is only slightly raised, it does not confirm a diagnosis of MI, but neither does it rule it out. Therefore, a repeat troponin level should be performed at least 3 hours after the first level and sent as urgent.

      In an MI, cardiac enzymes are released from dead myocytes into the blood, causing enzyme levels to rise and eventually fall as they are cleared from blood. If the patient has had an MI, the repeat troponin level should either be further raised or further reduced. If the level remains roughly constant, then an alternative cause should be sought, such as pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease, acute kidney injury, pericarditis, heart failure, or sepsis/systemic infection.

      Admission to the Coronary Care Unit (CCU) is not warranted yet. Further investigations should be performed to ascertain whether an admission is needed or whether alternative diagnoses should be explored.

      Safety-netting and return to the GP should include a repeat troponin level to see if the level is stable (arguing against an MI) or is rising/falling. A repeat electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed, and a thorough history and examination should be obtained to identify any urgent diagnoses that need to be explored before the patient is discharged.

      Thrombolysis carries a risk for bleeding, so it requires a clear indication, which has not yet been obtained. Therefore, it should not be administered without proper evaluation.

      The alanine transaminase (ALT) level has been used as a marker of MI in the past, but it has been since superseded as it is not specific for myocardial damage. In fact, it is now used as a component of liver function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - Which statement about congenital heart disease is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about congenital heart disease is accurate?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great vessels is the most common congenital cyanotic heart disease

      Correct Answer: In Down's syndrome with an endocardial cushion defect, irreversible pulmonary hypertension occurs earlier than in children with normal chromosomes

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Heart Defects and their Characteristics

      An endocardial cushion defect, also known as an AVSD, is the most prevalent cardiac malformation in individuals with Down Syndrome. This defect can lead to irreversible pulmonary hypertension, which is known as Eisenmenger’s syndrome. It is unclear why children with Down Syndrome tend to have more severe cardiac disease than unaffected children with the same abnormality.

      ASDs, or atrial septal defects, may close on their own, and the likelihood of spontaneous closure is related to the size of the defect. If the defect is between 5-8 mm, there is an 80% chance of closure, but if it is larger than 8 mm, the chance of closure is minimal.

      Tetralogy of Fallot, a cyanotic congenital heart disease, typically presents after three months of age. The murmur of VSD, or ventricular septal defect, becomes more pronounced after one month of life. Overall, the characteristics of these common congenital heart defects is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe, presents to his general practitioner with a history of intermittent dizzy spells. He reports having limited exercise capacity since childhood, but this has not been investigated before. Upon examination, the patient appears slight, has a dusky blue discoloration to his lips and tongue, and has finger clubbing. A murmur is also heard. The GP refers him to a cardiologist.

      The results of a cardiac catheter study are as follows:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
      End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 58 -
      Inferior vena cava 52 -
      Right atrium (mean) 56 10
      Right ventricle 55 105/9
      Pulmonary artery - 16/8
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
      Left atrium 97 -
      Left ventricle 84 108/10
      Aorta 74 110/80

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Fallot's tetralogy

      Explanation:

      Fallot’s Tetralogy

      Fallot’s tetralogy is a congenital heart defect that consists of four features: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an over-riding aorta. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific indicators. A step-down in oxygen saturation between the left atrium and left ventricle indicates a right to left shunt at the level of the ventricles, which is a sign of ventricular septal defect. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by a significant gradient of 89 mmHg across the pulmonary valve, which is calculated by subtracting the right ventricular systolic pressure from the pulmonary artery systolic pressure. Right ventricular hypertrophy is diagnosed by high right ventricular pressures and a right to left shunt, as indicated by the oxygen saturations. Finally, an over-riding aorta is identified by a further step-down in oxygen saturation between the left ventricle and aorta. While this could also occur in cases of patent ductus arteriosus with right to left shunting, the presence of the other features of Fallot’s tetralogy makes an over-riding aorta the most likely cause of reduced oxygen saturation due to admixture of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle entering the left heart circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A patient comes to your general practice with deteriorating shortness of breath and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient comes to your general practice with deteriorating shortness of breath and ankle swelling. You have been treating them for a few years for their congestive cardiac failure, which has been gradually worsening. Currently, the patient is at ease when resting, but standing up and walking a few steps cause their symptoms to appear. According to the New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification, what stage of heart failure are they in?

      Your Answer: II

      Correct Answer: III

      Explanation:

      Understanding NYHA Classification for Heart Failure Patients

      The NYHA classification system is used to assess the severity of heart failure symptoms in patients. Class I indicates no limitation of physical activity, while class IV indicates severe limitations and symptoms even at rest. This patient falls under class III, with marked limitation of physical activity but no symptoms at rest. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand and use this classification system to properly manage and treat heart failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics...

    Incorrect

    • You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics procedure. He is having a large basal cell carcinoma removed from his nose. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, having had three stents placed 2 years ago. He is otherwise healthy and still able to walk to the shops. His preoperative electrocardiogram (ECG) showed sinus rhythm. During the procedure, his heart rate suddenly increases to 175 bpm with a narrow complex, and you cannot see P waves on the monitor. You are having difficulty obtaining a blood pressure reading but are able to palpate a radial pulse with a systolic pressure of 75 mmHg. The surgeons have been using lidocaine with adrenaline around the surgical site. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer: 100% O2, 500 ml Hartmann bolus and 0.5 mg metaraminol

      Correct Answer: 100% O2, synchronised cardioversion, 150-J biphasic shock

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Narrow-Complex Tachycardia and Low Blood Pressure

      When a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with a narrow-complex tachycardia and low blood pressure, it is likely that they have gone into fast atrial fibrillation. In this case, the first step in resuscitation should be a synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion with a 150-J biphasic shock. Administering 100% oxygen, a 500 ml Hartmann bolus, and 0.5 mg metaraminol may help increase the patient’s blood pressure, but it does not address the underlying cause of their haemodynamic instability.

      Amiodarone 300 mg stat is recommended for patients with narrow-complex tachycardia and haemodynamic instability. However, administering 10 mmol magnesium sulphate is not the first-line treatment for tachycardia unless the patient has torsades de pointes.

      Lastly, administering Intralipid® as per guideline for local anaesthetic toxicity is unlikely to be the main source of the patient’s hypotension and does not address their narrow-complex tachycardia. Therefore, it is important to prioritize the synchronised cardioversion and amiodarone administration in this patient’s treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 38-year-old man comes for his 6-week post-myocardial infarction (MI) follow-up. He was...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man comes for his 6-week post-myocardial infarction (MI) follow-up. He was discharged without medication. His total cholesterol is 9 mmol/l, with triglycerides of 1.2 mmol/l. He is a non-smoker with a blood pressure of 145/75. His father passed away from an MI at the age of 43.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: High-dose atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Hypercholesterolemia and Recent MI

      When treating a patient with hypercholesterolemia and a recent myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to choose the most appropriate treatment option. In this case, high-dose atorvastatin is the best choice due to the patient’s high cholesterol levels and family history. It is crucial to note that medication should have been prescribed before the patient’s discharge.

      While dietary advice can be helpful, it is not the most urgent treatment option. Ezetimibe would only be prescribed if a statin were contraindicated. In this high-risk patient, low-dose atorvastatin is not sufficient, and high-dose atorvastatin is required, provided it is tolerated. If cholesterol control does not improve with high-dose atorvastatin, ezetimibe can be added at a later check-up. Overall, the priority is to control the patient’s high cholesterol levels with medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - What condition would make exercise testing completely unsafe? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition would make exercise testing completely unsafe?

      Your Answer: One week following myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Severe aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Exercise Testing

      Exercise testing is a common diagnostic tool used to evaluate a patient’s cardiovascular health. However, there are certain conditions that make exercise testing unsafe or inappropriate. These conditions are known as contraindications.

      Absolute contraindications for exercise testing include acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) within the past two days, unstable angina, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias, symptomatic severe aortic stenosis, uncontrolled heart failure, acute pulmonary embolism or pulmonary infarction, acute myocarditis or pericarditis, and acute aortic dissection. These conditions are considered absolute contraindications because they pose a significant risk to the patient’s health and safety during exercise testing.

      Relative contraindications for exercise testing include left main coronary stenosis, moderate stenotic valvular heart disease, electrolyte abnormalities, severe arterial hypertension, tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, mental or physical impairment leading to an inability to exercise adequately, and high-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. These conditions are considered relative contraindications because they may increase the risk of complications during exercise testing, but the benefits of testing may outweigh the risks in certain cases.

      It is important for healthcare providers to carefully evaluate a patient’s medical history and current health status before recommending exercise testing. If contraindications are present, alternative diagnostic tests may be necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and dizziness. On examination, he...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and dizziness. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse.
      Which of the following conditions in his past medical history might be the cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Common Endocrine Disorders and their Cardiac Manifestations

      Endocrine disorders can have significant effects on the cardiovascular system, including the development of arrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia that can be caused by hyperthyroidism, which should be tested for in patients presenting with this condition. Other signs of thyrotoxicosis include sinus tachycardia, physiological tremor, lid lag, and lid retraction. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, can also present with pretibial myxoedema, proptosis, chemosis, and thyroid complex ophthalmoplegia. Mnemonics such as SHIMMERS and ABCD can be used to remember the causes and management of atrial fibrillation.

      Cushing syndrome, hyperparathyroidism, and hypothyroidism can also have cardiac manifestations, although they are not typically associated with arrhythmias. Cushing syndrome is not commonly associated with arrhythmias, while hyperparathyroidism can cause hypercalcemia, leading to non-specific symptoms such as aches and pains, dehydration, fatigue, mood disturbance, constipation, and renal stones. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, may cause bradycardia and can be caused by various factors such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, subacute thyroiditis, iodine deficiency, and iatrogenic factors such as post-carbimazole treatment, radio-iodine, thyroidectomy, and certain medications like lithium and amiodarone.

      In summary, endocrine disorders can have significant effects on the cardiovascular system, and it is important to be aware of their potential cardiac manifestations, including arrhythmias. Early detection and management of these conditions can help prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice surgery she has recently joined. She mentions she occasionally gets episodes of palpitations and light-headedness and has done so for several years. Her pulse is currently regular, with a rate of 70 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg. A full blood count is sent, which comes back as normal. The general practitioner requests an electrocardiogram (ECG), which shows a widened QRS complex with a slurred upstroke and a shortened PR interval.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ebstein’s anomaly

      Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Cardiac Conditions and Their ECG Findings

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects young people and is characterized by episodes of syncope and palpitations. It is caused by an accessory pathway from the atria to the ventricles that bypasses the normal atrioventricular node. The ECG shows a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex, known as a delta wave, which reflects ventricular pre-excitation. Re-entry circuits can form, leading to tachyarrhythmias and an increased risk of ventricular fibrillation.

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an inherited condition that presents in young adulthood and is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young. Symptoms include syncope, dyspnea, palpitations, and abnormal ECG findings, which may include conduction abnormalities, arrhythmias, left ventricular hypertrophy, and ST or T wave changes.

      First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval and may be caused by medication, electrolyte imbalances, or post-myocardial infarction. It may also be a normal variant in young, healthy individuals.

      Ebstein’s anomaly typically presents in childhood and young adulthood with fatigue, palpitations, cyanosis, and breathlessness on exertion. The ECG shows right bundle branch block and signs of atrial enlargement, such as tall, broad P waves.

      Mobitz type II atrioventricular block is a type of second-degree heart block that is characterized by a stable PR interval with some non-conducted beats. It often progresses to complete heart block. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) block, on the other hand, is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval, followed by a non-conducted beat and a reset of the PR interval back to a shorter value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe crushing pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe crushing pain in his chest and left shoulder that has been ongoing for 2 hours. Despite taking sublingual nitroglycerin, the pain persists, and his electrocardiogram shows ST elevation in multiple leads. Due to preexisting renal impairment, primary percutaneous intervention (PCI) is not an option, and he is started on medical management in the Coronary Care Unit. The following day, his serum cardiac enzymes are found to be four times higher than the upper limit of normal, and his electrocardiographic changes remain.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Unstable angina

      Correct Answer: Transmural infarction

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Myocardial Infarction and Angina

      When a patient presents with elevated serum cardiac enzymes and typical myocardial pain, it is likely that a myocardial infarction has occurred. If the ST elevation is limited to a few leads, it is indicative of a transmural infarction caused by the occlusion of a coronary artery. On the other hand, severely hypotensive patients who are hospitalized typically experience a more generalized subendocardial infarction.

      Unstable angina, which is characterized by chest pain at rest or with minimal exertion, does not cause a rise in cardiac enzymes or ST elevation. Similarly, Prinzmetal angina, which is caused by coronary artery spasm, would not result in a marked increase in serum enzymes.

      Stable angina, which is chest pain that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or medication, is not associated with ST elevation or a rise in cardiac enzymes.

      Subendocardial infarction, which affects most ECG leads, usually occurs in the setting of shock. It is important to differentiate between the different types of myocardial infarction and angina in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no symptoms of ill-health. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes

      Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:

      Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
      This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.

      Echocardiogram
      While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.

      24-Hour Urine Cortisol
      This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.

      Plasma Metanephrines
      This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.

      Renal Ultrasound
      This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.

      Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. During examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, and he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, performed 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. Which medication, if added, would provide prognostic benefit?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits

      Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.

      Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.

      Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.

      Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.

      Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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