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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man is admitted with a six-week history of proximal muscle weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is admitted with a six-week history of proximal muscle weakness. He has been having difficulty climbing stairs and getting up from a sitting position in a chair. He says his alcohol intake is 40 units per week.
      Which of the following results is most likely to point to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: A suppressed 0900 h serum cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test

      Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests and macrocytosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Proximal Myopathy and its Possible Causes

      Proximal myopathy is a condition characterized by weakness in the muscles closest to the body’s core. One possible cause of this condition is alcohol excess, which can lead to abnormal liver function tests and macrocytosis. Patients may underestimate or hide their alcohol consumption levels, making it important for healthcare providers to ask about this history. Chronic myopathy involves a gradual progression, while acute myopathy may follow binge drinking and result in acute renal tubular necrosis.

      Thyrotoxicosis and hypothyroidism can also cause proximal myopathy. An elevated TSH and normal free-thyroxine levels may suggest sub-clinical hypothyroidism. Cushing syndrome, indicated by failure to suppress the 0900 h serum cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test, can also cause proximal myopathy.

      While hypercalcaemia is not a common cause of proximal myopathy, osteomalacia can lead to this condition. Osteomalacia is characterized by low calcium and raised alkaline phosphatase. Rare reports suggest that hyperparathyroidism may also cause proximal myopathy.

      High vitamin B12 levels are not typically associated with proximal myopathy. In fact, low vitamin B12 levels, such as those seen in pernicious anaemia, can cause neurological symptoms like peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Excessive alcohol consumption can deplete B12 levels. Understanding the possible causes of proximal myopathy can help healthcare providers diagnose and treat this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      39.6
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  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old man who is known to have severe OA of both his...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man who is known to have severe OA of both his knees presents with increasing pain of the right knee. He is on the waiting list to see an orthopaedic surgeon, with at least a 6 month wait.

      He is currently taking 1 g of paracetamol QDS, 2400 mg of ibuprofen daily with PPI cover. He has tried taking codeine and tramadol in the past and it made him feel very unwell, he also tried numerous NSAIDs and found ibuprofen to be the most effective. He is not keen on any other opioid-based medications because he lives on his own and is afraid he may lose his balance. He uses a walking stick and wears sensible walking shoes all the time.

      A few months previously he had a very similar episode and applied ice to the knee to good effect but this time it has not helped that much. He is systemically well.

      On examination the knee is cool, there is no noticeable redness, there is a mild effusion on the right knee, no joint margin tenderness, and ligaments are intact.

      According to established guidelines, which one of the following is the best management option?

      Your Answer: Intra-articular corticosteroid injection

      Explanation:

      Management of Osteoarthritis Flare

      The patient has been diagnosed with an osteoarthritis flare, which is not uncommon for someone with severe OA of the knee. Despite having tried several NSAIDs in the past, ibuprofen has been found to be the most effective for this patient. However, since he is intolerant of opioid medications, management options are limited. Non-pharmacological options such as ice or heat have also been tried without success. According to NICE guidelines on Osteoarthritis (CG177), intra-articular corticosteroid injections are recommended as an adjunct to core therapies when pain is moderate to severe. Other options such as Traumeel injections, intra-articular hyaluronan injections, rubefacients, chondroitin, glucosamine, or chondroitin and glucosamine combinations are not recommended. However, there are other options such as topical capsaicin, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS), and assessment for bracing/joint supports/insoles that may be helpful. Expert advice from occupational therapists or disability equipment assessment centres may also be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      72.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and toes, along with scaling of the skin between her toes. Despite completing a 4-week course of topical imidazole, her symptoms have not improved since her initial presentation 4 weeks ago, which confirmed athlete's foot through a positive culture of skin scrapings. What is the recommended treatment at this point?

      Your Answer: Reassure, give advice regarding foot hygiene and prescribe a further 4 weeks of topical imidazole

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a course of oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      If the initial topical treatment for athlete’s foot is unsuccessful, it is recommended to use oral antifungal treatment. Continuing with topical treatment is not the best approach, and referring the patient to a dermatologist is another option. Topical corticosteroids should only be used in cases of severe inflammation and irritation to alleviate symptoms. Flucloxacillin, being an antibiotic, is not appropriate for this condition.

      Understanding Athlete’s Foot

      Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.

      To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A previously healthy 68-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 68-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss of lateral vision in his right eye upon waking up this morning. The symptoms have since worsened. What is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal Detachment: A Time-Critical Eye Emergency

      Retinal detachment is a serious eye emergency that occurs when the retina’s sensory and pigment layers separate. This condition can be associated with various factors such as congenital malformations, metabolic disorders, trauma, vascular disease, high myopia, vitreous disease, and degeneration. It is important to note that retinal detachment is one of the most time-critical eye emergencies that require immediate medical attention.

      Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, a grey curtain or veil moving across the field of vision, and sudden decrease of vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 5 - Injectable depot-provera ...

    Incorrect

    • Injectable depot-provera

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer due to contraindications. This applies to all hormonal contraceptive options, including Depo-Provera, which are classified as UKMEC 4. As a result, the copper intrauterine device is the only suitable contraception option available.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that Noristerat, another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, is rarely used in clinical practice. It is given every 8 weeks. The BNF gives different advice regarding the interval between injections, stating that a pregnancy test should be done if the interval is greater than 12 weeks and 5 days. However, this is not commonly adhered to in the family planning community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner to discuss becoming pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner to discuss becoming pregnant. She is aware that the chance of having a child with Down syndrome increases with maternal age. She wishes to be aware of all the facts regarding learning disabilities more generally. She asks about mental and physical health issues, employment statistics and social issues.
      Which of the following is a person with learning disabilities most likely to also experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Social inequality

      Explanation:

      Understanding Social Inequality and Health Disparities Among Individuals with Learning Disabilities in the UK

      Individuals with learning disabilities in the United Kingdom face significant social inequality and health disparities. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, approximately 60% of young people with learning disabilities live in poverty, and they are more likely to experience bullying, abuse, passive smoking, and lack of social support. Additionally, 30-40% of individuals with learning disabilities experience challenging behaviors while in a hospital setting, and only 6% of adults with learning disabilities are employed. Furthermore, around 50% of individuals with learning disabilities have physical health problems, and 24-40% experience mental health problems. It is crucial to address these disparities and provide support and resources to improve the quality of life for individuals with learning disabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 7 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of sildenafil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of sildenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She is having trouble retaining fluids and a urine dipstick reveals ketones ++. Which of the following is not linked to an elevated risk of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      A lower occurrence of hyperemesis gravidarum is linked to smoking.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 9 - A 3-year-old girl is brought in by her father with symptoms of croup....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought in by her father with symptoms of croup. You decide to administer dexamethasone. Her weight is 12kg.

      The British National Formulary recommends:

      Dexamethasone (for croup):
      A single dose of 150 micrograms/kg by mouth is effective
      Oral solution, sugar-free, dexamethasone (as sodium phosphate) 2 mg/5ml

      What is the accurate dosage of dexamethasone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3.75ml

      Explanation:

      According to instructions, a dose of dexamethasone can be administered at a rate of 150 micrograms per kilogram. This is equivalent to 0.15 milligrams per kilogram. The patient weighs 10 kilograms, so they require a single dose of 1.5 milligrams. The medication is available in an oral suspension form with a concentration of 2 milligrams per 5 milliliters. Therefore, 1.5 milligrams divided by 2 milligrams equals 0.75. Multiplying 0.75 by 5 milliliters gives a single dose of 3.75 milliliters.

      Drug Dose Calculations Made Simple

      Drug dose calculations are becoming increasingly important due to the rise of prescription errors. These errors can result in serious harm to patients, which is why it is crucial to ensure that the calculations are correct. Although the calculations themselves are relatively straightforward, it is easy to make a mistake.

      Most calculations involve drugs given as solutions or infusions. To calculate the correct dose for a patient’s weight, you need to multiply the weight by the recommended dosage. For example, if a child weighs 18kg and the recommended dosage for paracetamol is 20 mg/kg, the calculation would be 18 x 20 = 360mg.

      Paracetamol oral suspension is available in a concentration of 120mg/5ml. To determine the amount of oral suspension to give, divide the total dose by the concentration of the oral suspension. In this case, 360 mg divided by 120 mg equals 3. Multiply this by the volume of the oral suspension, which is 5ml, to get the final dose of 15ml.

      By following these simple steps, you can ensure that drug dose calculations are accurate and prevent any potential harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo that has been ongoing for 5 days. He reports having a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. The patient is in good health overall and experiences nausea but no hearing loss or tinnitus. During the examination, the doctor observes fine horizontal nystagmus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      If there is no hearing loss, it is more likely that the patient has vestibular neuronitis rather than viral labyrinthitis.

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.

      Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female complains of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. She reports feeling generally healthy with no changes to her vision or fever. The patient wears contact lenses but has not had an optician appointment recently.

      During the examination, the patient displays injected conjunctiva in the affected eye, but there is no apparent redness or swelling around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein doesn't reveal any corneal staining.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to wear contact lenses when experiencing conjunctivitis, which is likely the case for this 15-year-old with viral conjunctivitis. While it is possible that her prescription may not be up to date, this doesn’t affect her susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions. Warm compresses are more effective for treating styes or chalazion, which present as lumps on the eyelid, rather than viral conjunctivitis. Since the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, there is no need for ophthalmology referral. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had staining, they would require a visit to eye casualty as this would indicate a corneal injury. While topical antihistamine eye drops may be used for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the presentation makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.

      Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 12 - Barbara is a 78-year-old woman who lives alone and manages most activities of...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara is a 78-year-old woman who lives alone and manages most activities of daily living independently. Her GP wants to assess her frailty with a view to identifying the need for extra support.

      Which of the below is most useful for that assessment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gait speed

      Explanation:

      To accurately assess frailty, it is recommended to use specific methods such as the Gait Speed Test, self-reported health status, or the PRISMA-7 questionnaire. These standardized assessments can provide valuable information about a patient’s level of frailty. For example, the Gait Speed Test can indicate frailty if a patient takes longer than 5 seconds to walk 4 meters. While weight loss may be a sign of frailty, weight alone is not a reliable indicator. Other methods of assessing frailty are not commonly used and may not provide accurate results.

      Understanding Multimorbidity: Definition, Prevalence, Risk Factors, Complications, Assessment, and Management

      Multimorbidity is a growing public health issue that refers to the presence of two or more long-term health conditions. In 2017, NICE issued guidelines to identify and manage multimorbidity among patients. The most common comorbid conditions include hypertension, depression, anxiety, chronic pain, prostate disorders, thyroid disorders, and coronary artery disease. Risk factors for multimorbidity include increasing age, female sex, low socioeconomic status, tobacco and alcohol usage, lack of physical activity, and poor nutrition and obesity.

      Complications of multimorbidity include decreased quality of life and life expectancy, increased treatment burden, mental health issues, polypharmacy, and negative impact on carers’ welfare. The assessment of multimorbidity involves identifying patients who may benefit from a multimorbidity approach, establishing the extent of disease burden, investigating how treatment burden affects daily activities, assessing social circumstances and health literacy, and evaluating frailty.

      Management of multimorbidity aims to reduce treatment burden and optimise care. This involves maximising the benefits of existing treatments, offering alternative follow-up arrangements, reducing the number of high-risk medications, considering a ‘bisphosphonate holiday,’ using screening tools such as STOPP/START, stopping the use of medications in patients with peptic ulcer disease, developing an individualised management plan, promoting self-management, and supporting carers and families of patients. Regular medication reviews are recommended to ensure that treatments are optimised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old man is brought to surgery with confusion and pallor. His son...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is brought to surgery with confusion and pallor. His son reports that he has been getting more confused and tired for the past two months. Blood tests are reported as follows:

      Hb 9.2 g/dl
      MCV 120 fl
      Plt 152 * 109/l
      WBC 4.8 * 109/l

      In light of the macrocytic anaemia some further tests are ordered:

      Intrinsic factor antibodies Negative
      Vitamin B12 90 ng/l (200-900 ng/l)
      Folic acid 1.3 nmol/l (> 3.0 nmol/l)

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular vitamin B12 + start oral folic acid when vitamin B12 levels are normal

      Explanation:

      To prevent subacute combined degeneration of the cord, it is crucial to address the B12 deficiency before treating the folic acid deficiency in a patient who is deficient in both. Additionally, referral to secondary care may be necessary to determine the root cause of the deficiency.

      Understanding Macrocytic Anaemia

      Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia that can be classified into two categories: megaloblastic and normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells in the bone marrow. This type of anaemia can also be caused by certain medications, alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism, pregnancy, and myelodysplasia.

      On the other hand, normoblastic anaemia is caused by an increase in the number of immature red blood cells, known as reticulocytes, in the bone marrow. This can occur as a result of certain medications, such as methotrexate, or in response to other underlying medical conditions.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytic anaemia in order to provide appropriate treatment. This may involve addressing any nutritional deficiencies, managing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications. With proper management, most cases of macrocytic anaemia can be successfully treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 14 - A 62-year-old man has recently started taking a new medication for his hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man has recently started taking a new medication for his hypertension. He has noticed swelling in his ankles and wonders if it could be a side effect of the medication. Which drug is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amlodipine: A Calcium-Channel Blocker and its Side-Effects

      Amlodipine is a medication that belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers. It works by inhibiting the inward displacement of calcium ions through the slow channels of active cell membranes. The primary effect of amlodipine is to relax vascular smooth muscle and dilate peripheral and coronary arteries. However, this medication is also associated with some side-effects due to its vasodilatory properties.

      Common side-effects of amlodipine include flushing and headache, which usually subside after a few days. Another common side-effect is ankle swelling, which only partially responds to diuretics. In some cases, ankle swelling may be severe enough to warrant discontinuation of the drug. On the other hand, oedema is uncommon with losartan and not reported for any of the other options.

      If you experience oedema due to calcium-channel blockers, it is important to manage it properly. Please refer to the external links for more information on how to manage this side-effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - Your practice offers minor surgery including vasectomies. One of your elderly patients arranges...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice offers minor surgery including vasectomies. One of your elderly patients arranges to come for an initial consultation, during which he tells you he is nervous about the procedure. You answer his questions and he signs a consent form. He also says while signing: Look, whatever happens on the day, just get on with it, and don't stop!

      A couple of weeks later, he comes in for the procedure, and lies on the operating table, looking nervous. You inject the anaesthetic without difficulty, but just as you make the first incision, he calls out: No, I can't go through with it! However, he remains lying on the operating table.

      What do you do?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the procedure and check with him if he really wants you to stop

      Explanation:

      Understanding Consent in Medical Procedures

      Consent is a dynamic and reversible state in medical procedures. A patient may give their consent to a procedure at one moment and retract it the next. A signed consent form only serves as evidence that the patient agreed to the procedure at the time of signing. Implied consent can also be given through a patient’s actions, such as lying down on an operating table. However, the absence of action doesn’t necessarily imply continued consent.

      It is important to note that a patient cannot consent to relinquishing their right to self-determination. Even if a patient says just get on with it, it is not a valid consent to proceed. If a patient consents to a sedative, it can be administered, but only after the patient has given explicit consent. It is crucial to respect a patient’s autonomy and ensure that they are fully informed and consenting before proceeding with any medical procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 16 - A 4-year-old girl from a Turkish family is brought to the local paediatric...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl from a Turkish family is brought to the local paediatric unit by her GP due to recurrent fatigue and paleness. The parents report no other symptoms such as fever, pain, or poor appetite. She had received treatment with a course of amoxicillin for a throat infection three weeks ago. Upon admission, her blood tests reveal:

      Hb 5.5 g/dl
      WBC 11.2 *109/l
      Platelets 320 *109/l
      Reticulocytes 4%

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency may experience haemolysis as a result of taking ciprofloxacin.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 17 - You want to advise an elderly patient on a new treatment for angina;...

    Incorrect

    • You want to advise an elderly patient on a new treatment for angina; she brought a newspaper cutting about it and you have looked up the original paper.

      The paper discusses the benefit of the new treatment in terms of number needed to treat (NNT).

      What is the meaning of the term number needed to treat for a drug therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The number of patients that need to be treated with a therapy for one to benefit

      Explanation:

      Understanding NNT: A Measure of Treatment Effectiveness

      The NNT, or Number Needed to Treat, is a measure of treatment effectiveness that indicates the number of patients who need to be treated over a certain period of time in order for one patient to benefit from the treatment. A low NNT indicates a more effective treatment, as fewer patients need to be treated for one to benefit.

      In other words, the NNT helps healthcare professionals and researchers understand the impact of a treatment on a group of patients. It is a useful tool for evaluating the effectiveness of different treatments and comparing their benefits and risks. By calculating the NNT, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about which treatments to recommend to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 18 - A 75-year-old obese woman had a deep venous thrombosis several years ago. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old obese woman had a deep venous thrombosis several years ago. She has an ulcer over the left medial malleolus with fibrosis and purpura of the surrounding skin.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A venous ulcer

      Explanation:

      Understanding Venous Leg Ulcers: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Venous leg ulcers are a common condition in the UK, accounting for approximately 3% of new cases seen in dermatological clinics. These ulcers are more prevalent in patients who are obese, have a history of varicose veins, or have experienced deep vein thrombosis. The underlying cause of venous leg ulcers is venous stasis, which leads to an increase in capillary pressure, fibrin deposits, and poor oxygenation of the skin. This, in turn, can result in poorly nourished skin and minor trauma, leading to ulceration.

      Treatment for venous leg ulcers focuses on reducing exudates and promoting healing using dressings such as Granuflex® or Sorbisan®. Compression bandaging is the primary treatment option, and preventive therapy may include weight loss, wearing support stockings, or surgical treatment of varicose veins.

      It is important to note that other conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as absent pulses, widespread purpura on the legs, injury, or diabetes. Therefore, a proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to the local vascular unit. Peripheral arterial disease is diagnosed and his blood pressure is measured at 130/80 mmHg with a fasting cholesterol level of 3.9 mmol/l. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel + statin

      Explanation:

      Managing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is closely associated with smoking, and patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit. Comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity should also be treated. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with atorvastatin 80 mg currently recommended. In 2010, NICE recommended clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients over aspirin.

      Exercise training has been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. Severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia may be treated with endovascular or surgical revascularization, with endovascular techniques typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. Surgical techniques are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should be reserved for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      Drugs licensed for use in PAD include naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life, and cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, which is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old previously healthy medical student presents to his GP a few weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old previously healthy medical student presents to his GP a few weeks after returning from his elective in South America. He reports experiencing ongoing watery diarrhea and has observed some weight loss. Despite submitting a stool sample, the results come back negative. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis: A Common Cause of Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Giardiasis is a type of infection caused by the flagellate protozoan Giardia lamblia, which is usually acquired from contaminated water supplies. The infection is spread through the faecal-oral route and typically causes watery diarrhoea. Unlike other types of diarrhoea, giardiasis doesn’t cause haemorrhagic diarrhoea.

      Diagnosing giardiasis can be difficult, even when looking for cysts in stool cultures, which are frequently negative. As a result, repetitive samples are often required. Chronic infection can lead to malabsorption, and a duodenal biopsy can demonstrate partial villous atrophy. The infection is treated with metronidazole.

      Traveller’s diarrhoea in a previously healthy person with a negative stool sample is a typical presentation of giardiasis. While Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis can also present in this way, even without abdominal pain or bloody diarrhoea, the travel history makes giardiasis a much more likely diagnosis. Amoebic dysentery and shigellosis, on the other hand, typically cause profuse, bloody diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 21 - You see a 14-year-old girl who has never previously attended medical care. Her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 14-year-old girl who has never previously attended medical care. Her mother is concerned that she has short stature (below the 50th centile for height) and has not begun menstruating. She appears to have excess skin around her neck and has poor development of secondary sexual characteristics. There is a murmur suggestive of aortic stenosis. After referral, you are informed that her chromosome pattern is XO.
      Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders: Overview and Characteristics

      Genetic disorders are conditions caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These disorders can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including growth and development, organ function, and susceptibility to certain diseases. Here are some common genetic disorders and their characteristics:

      Turner Syndrome: This disorder occurs in females when one of the X chromosomes is missing. Symptoms include short stature, delayed development of secondary sexual characteristics, and absence of menses. Patients may also have dyspraxia, poor spatial awareness, or mild intellectual impairment. Associated cardiovascular defects may include aortic stenosis, bicuspid aortic valve, or coarctation of the aorta. Patients also have an increased risk of hypothyroidism.

      Noonan Syndrome: This disorder presents with a similar phenotype to Turner syndrome, but the X chromosome is not absent. It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant manner and affects both men and women.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia: This disorder is due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which is needed for cortisol synthesis. Symptoms in girls may include ambiguous genitalia at birth, infertility, hirsutism, oligomenorrhoea, or amenorrhoea with polycystic ovaries and acne. Boys may appear normal but may experience salt-losing crisis early in life.

      Congenital Lymphoedema: This disorder, also known as Milroy’s disease, is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. Lymphatic vessels are small or absent, leading to oedema in the feet at birth or soon after. Lymphoedema, mainly of the hands, feet, and neck, is present in about 70% of people with Turner syndrome.

      Androgen-Insensitivity Syndrome: This disorder affects XY males who are unresponsive to androgens. They are born looking externally like females with a short blind-ending vagina and no uterus. Testes are in the abdomen or inguinal canal. The condition is X-linked recessive, and complete androgen-insensitivity syndrome is often not diagnosed until puberty.

      In conclusion, genetic disorders can have a significant impact on an individual’s health and well-being. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes and quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining that her vision has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining that her vision has become blurred in her right eye over the course of a few days. She has been rubbing the eye a lot, and now she also mentions that there is a dull ache in the eye. She has previously been fit and well. Her only medication is the oral contraceptive pill, which she has been taking for eight years.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Demyelinating optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Subacute Onset of Unilateral Blurred Vision with Aching

      When presented with a patient experiencing subacute onset of unilateral blurred vision with aching, there are several potential diagnoses to consider. Demyelinating optic neuritis is a likely cause, as it can cause reduced acuity, central scotoma, impaired color appreciation, and a relative afferent pupillary defect. Glaucoma may also be a possibility, but it typically presents with halos around bright lights and may affect both eyes in the case of open-angle glaucoma. Ischaemic optic neuritis and occipital lobe infarction are less likely causes, as they would have a more rapid onset of symptoms. Optic nerve compression may also be a consideration, but it would likely be associated with a space-occupying lesion and a history of headaches. Overall, the presence of aching in the affected eye suggests demyelinating optic neuritis as the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit....

    Incorrect

    • Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: What percentage of patients taking ACE inhibitors have their U&E checked in a year?

      Explanation:

      Clinical Care Audit

      A clinical care audit is a process that evaluates the performance of healthcare providers against specific guidelines on therapy. The aim is to determine if the care provided meets a pre-specified standard. For instance, a typical audit may assess if all patients taking ACE inhibitors have had at least a yearly U&E. The standard is set high, at around 90%+, and if not met, measures are implemented to improve performance. These measures may include adding reminders to GP prescription systems, education sessions on the use of ACE inhibitors, and more.

      Closing the loop is an essential part of the audit process. This involves reassessing the percentage of clinical episodes that meet the audit standard to determine if improvements have been made. By conducting clinical care audits, healthcare providers can identify areas for improvement and implement measures to enhance the quality of care provided to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7 mmol/l on testing by the GP. His father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 60-years old. He has no other risk factors and is well. However, he himself has three daughters.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a lipid specialist

      Explanation:

      Management of Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol in the blood, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Here are some management options for a patient suspected of having FH:

      Refer to a lipid specialist: If there is strong evidence of FH, NICE recommends referral to a specialist for confirmation of the diagnosis and cascade testing. This is important to identify affected relatives and provide appropriate management.

      Prescribe atorvastatin: Atorvastatin 20 mg daily is the drug of choice for a patient with confirmed heterozygous FH. It is a high-intensity statin that effectively lowers cholesterol levels.

      Provide dietary advice: Patients with FH should be offered individualised advice from a dietician to help manage their cholesterol levels. This may include reducing saturated fat intake and increasing consumption of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.

      Avoid simvastatin: Simvastatin is only a moderate-intensity statin and is not recommended as the first-line treatment for FH. High-intensity statins such as atorvastatin and rosuvastatin are preferred.

      Avoid combination therapy with a fibrate: While fibrates can lower cholesterol levels, they are not recommended for use in FH management. Statins and/or ezetimibe are the drugs of choice, and treatment should be initiated by a lipid specialist if needed.

      In summary, FH requires careful management to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Referral to a lipid specialist, prescribing atorvastatin, providing dietary advice, and avoiding certain medications can all help to effectively manage FH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 25 - You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit and well 36-year-old woman who has come to see you in your GP clinic. She developed her symptoms over a few hours yesterday and now can not hear at all through her left ear. Her examination shows no obvious external or middle ear causes.

      What is your next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her for assessment within 24 hours by an ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      Immediate referral to an ENT specialist or emergency department is necessary for individuals experiencing acute sensorineural hearing loss. This is considered an emergency and requires urgent audiology assessment and a brain MRI. According to NICE CKS guidelines, individuals with sudden onset hearing loss (unilateral or bilateral) within the past 30 days, without any external or middle ear causes, should be referred within 24 hours. Additionally, those with unilateral hearing loss accompanied by focal neurology, head or neck injury, or severe infections such as necrotising otitis externa or Ramsay Hunt syndrome should also be referred urgently. Referral to a specialist other than ENT or non-urgent referral options are incorrect.

      When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 26 - A 19-year-old man is concerned about blood-borne viruses after getting a tattoo while...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is concerned about blood-borne viruses after getting a tattoo while backpacking abroad. He wants to get tested for HIV and hepatitis B and C, but you advise him that the tests may not show any infection yet. When should he return for an HIV blood test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to conduct HIV testing in asymptomatic patients 4 weeks after a potential exposure. This is the optimal time frame for detecting most infections through tests for antibodies and p24 antigen. Additionally, it may be beneficial to perform an HIV test upon presentation in case of a prior infection (although 1 week may be too soon for detection), and a follow-up test at 12 weeks should be offered to confirm the absence of infection.

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 27 - A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful ulcer in her genital area. She has recently returned from her gap year in Thailand where she engaged in unprotected sexual activities with multiple partners. During the examination, the GP observes a sharp undermined border around the ulcer and painful lymph node enlargement in her left inguinal area.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Chancroid should be considered as a possible cause of genital ulcers if the patient has a history of foreign travel, especially if accompanied by painful swelling of the inguinal lymph nodes on one side.

      Chancroid is a disease commonly found in tropical regions that causes painful ulcers in the genital area with a distinct, jagged border. It is often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin on one side.

      Behcet’s disease is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. It can also cause thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, and abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis.

      Primary genital herpes typically presents with multiple painful ulcers and fever. Subsequent outbreaks are usually less severe and localized to one area.

      It is important to consider non-infectious causes such as psoriasis, which can cause a sore, itchy, and red plaque in the genital area. On examination, the area will appear shiny, flat, and smooth, and psoriatic scales are not typically present in the genital area.

      Understanding Chancroid

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - A 54-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review. He is currently taking metformin 500 mg twice daily.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/84 mmHg. His glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is 63 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol), while his urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 1.2 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
      What is the most appropriate action to take to minimise his risk of kidney disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase metformin to 1 g twice daily

      Explanation:

      Optimizing Glycemic Control in Type II Diabetes: Treatment Options for Renal Protection

      The prevalence of kidney disease is increasing in those with type II diabetes, making primary prevention crucial. Optimal control of blood glucose and blood pressure are key factors in preventing renal disease. In a patient with normal blood pressure but elevated HbA1c, increasing metformin to optimize glycemic control is appropriate. While ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor antagonists are useful for renoprotection in diabetic patients, they should be reserved for those with evidence of kidney failure. Insulin therapy should also be considered only after trying other oral diabetic medications. Low-protein diets are recommended for patients with established renal disease, but not for those without microalbuminuria. Overall, optimizing glycemic control is the priority in preventing renal disease in type II diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 29 - Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.

      The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.

      In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 30 - You are on rotation at a sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male comes...

    Incorrect

    • You are on rotation at a sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male comes in with symptoms of mucopurulent urethral discharge and dysuria. He provides samples for testing. You suspect a possible diagnosis of Chlamydia.

      What laboratory methods are typically utilized to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification testing

      Explanation:

      When Chlamydia is suspected in a patient, the preferred method of investigation is nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs). Samples can be collected through swabs or first-catch urine. Direct culture is no longer commonly utilized for diagnosing Chlamydia.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
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