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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old female presents with a long history of obstructed defecation and chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents with a long history of obstructed defecation and chronic constipation. She often strains to open her bowels for long periods and occasionally notices that she has passed a small amount of blood. On examination, she has an indurated area located anteriorly approximately 3cm proximal to the anal verge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Correct Answer: Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome

      Explanation:

      Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome is a rare disorder that involves straining during defecation, a sense of incomplete evacuation, and sometimes passage of blood and mucus by rectum.
      The syndrome is poorly named because associated lesions may be solitary or multiple and ulcerated or nonulcerated; they range from mucosal erythema to ulcers to small mass lesions.
      Lesions are typically located in the anterior rectal wall within 10 cm of the anal verge.
      It is probably caused by localized ischemic injury or prolapse of the distal rectal mucosa. Diagnosis is clinical with confirmation by flexible sigmoidoscopy and biopsy. Treatment is a bowel regimen for mild cases, but surgery is sometimes needed if rectal prolapse is the cause.

      The cardinal symptom of Fissure in ano is pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      115.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50 year old man develops a colocutaneous fistula after having reversal of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man develops a colocutaneous fistula after having reversal of a loop colostomy fashioned for the defunctioning of an anterior resection. Pre-operative Gastrografin enema showed no distal obstruction or anastomotic stricture. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Make the patient nil by mouth and commence total parenteral nutrition

      Correct Answer: Provide local wound care and await spontaneous resolution

      Explanation:

      Containment of fistula output and skin protection should be instituted as soon as the diagnosis is made as it will decrease local skin excoriation and inflammation, pain and infection. While low output fistulas may be controlled with a simple absorbent dressing, complex fistulas often require advanced techniques including barrier creams, powders, and sealants to protect the skin from auto-digestion as well as bridging for fistula isolation, topographical enhancements, and complex pouching systems with or without sump drainage
      Fistulas arising from the oesophagus, duodenal stump after gastric resection, pancreaticobiliary tract, and jejunum are more likely to close without operative intervention. Additionally, those with long tracts and small enteric wall defects are associated with higher spontaneous closure rates. Fistulas in the colon show favourable rates of spontaneous resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      1061.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles? ...

    Incorrect

    • The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer: Superior gemellus

      Correct Answer: Obturator externus

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve supplies both gemellae, quadratus femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, both heads of the biceps femoris, the hamstring half of abductor magnus and obturator internus. Obturator externus is supplied by the obturator nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the correct order of structures a needle must pass before it...

    Correct

    • What is the correct order of structures a needle must pass before it enters the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer: External intercostals – internal intercostals – innermost intercostals – parietal pleura

      Explanation:

      The correct order of structures from superficial to deep are: the skin and subcutaneous tissue, the external intercostals followed by internal intercostals, innermost intercostals and finally parietal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      59.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - C5a (a complement component) is a potent? ...

    Correct

    • C5a (a complement component) is a potent?

      Your Answer: Anaphylotoxin

      Explanation:

      C5a is a strong chemoattractant as well as an anaphylotoxin and is involved in the recruitment of inflammatory cells such as neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and T lymphocytes. It is also involved in activation of phagocytic cells, release of granule-based enzymes and generation of oxidants. All of which contribute to innate immune functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which among the following vertebrae marks the lowest extent of the superior mediastinum?...

    Correct

    • Which among the following vertebrae marks the lowest extent of the superior mediastinum?

      Your Answer: Fourth thoracic

      Explanation:

      The superior mediastinum lies between the manubrium anteriorly and the upper vertebrae of the thorax posteriorly. Below, it is bound by a slightly oblique plane that passes backward from the sternal angle to the lower part of the body of T4 and laterally by the pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      96.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old male who was admitted due to cerebrovascular disease on his 5th...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male who was admitted due to cerebrovascular disease on his 5th hospital stay developed pneumonia. The most likely organism that causes hospital acquired pneumonia is pseudomonas aeruginosa. What is the most likely mechanism for the pathogenesis on pseudomonas infection?

      Your Answer: Endotoxin

      Correct Answer: Exotoxin

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium that can cause disease in plants and animals, including humans. It is citrate, catalase, and oxidase positive. P. aeruginosa uses the virulence factor exotoxin A to inactivate eukaryotic elongation factor 2 via ADP-ribosylation in the host cell, much the same as the diphtheria toxin does. Without elongation factor 2, eukaryotic cells cannot synthesize proteins and necrotise. The release of intracellular contents induces an immunologic response in immunocompetent patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      884.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a direct inguinal hernia on the right side. He had undergone and appendicectomy 6 months prior. The examining doctor correlated the development of the hernia to iatrogenic nerve injury that happened during the operation. Which nerve had been injured?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      Direct inguinal hernias occur because of weakness in the abdominal muscles. The ilioinguinal nerve is important for innervating the muscles of the lower abdominal wall and damage during appendicectomy therefore prevents the man from being able to contract abdominal muscles to pull the falx inguinalis over the weak fascia.
      The genitofemoral nerve innervates the cremaster muscle and injury to it would cause inability to elevate the testes.
      The subcostal nerve and the ventral primary ramus of T10 innervate the muscles, skin and fascia of the upper abdominal wall.
      The iliohypogastric nerve supplies the skin over the upper part of the buttock behind the area supplied by the subcostal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 56 year old man, on his 8th day following a left hemicolectomy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old man, on his 8th day following a left hemicolectomy, complains of swinging pyrexia over the past 48 hours. Clinical examination is significant for an ileus. Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Erect chest x-ray

      Correct Answer: Abdominal CT scan with IV contrast

      Explanation:

      Abdominal CT with IV contrast would be carried out in this case and this presentation has most likely resulted due to an anastomotic leak with abscess formation which is a common complication following surgery. This can occur in any of the branches and anticipating the likely complication and appropriate avoidance will minimize their occurrence. Detailed imaging is required to allow accurate diagnosis and further planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      88.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient under went repair of a lingual artery aneurysm in the floor...

    Incorrect

    • A patient under went repair of a lingual artery aneurysm in the floor of the mouth. During surgical dissection from the inside of the mouth which muscle would you have to pass through to reach the main portion of the lingual artery?

      Your Answer: Mylohyoid

      Correct Answer: Hyoglossus

      Explanation:

      The lingual artery first runs obliquely upward and medialward to the greater horns of the hyoid bone. It then curves downward and forward, forming a loop which is crossed by the hypoglossal nerve, and passing beneath the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle it runs horizontally forward, beneath the hyoglossus, and finally, ascending almost perpendicularly to the tongue, turns forward on its lower surface as far as the tip, to become the deep lingual artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 33 year old mechanic presents to the A&E department with epigastric pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old mechanic presents to the A&E department with epigastric pain. An endoscopy is done which shows that he has a punched out ulcer on the anterior wall of the stomach which is shallow and measures 0.8cm in diameter. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Acute peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Peptic ulcer disease can involve the stomach or duodenum. Gastric and duodenal ulcers usually cannot be differentiated based on history alone, although some findings may be suggestive. Epigastric pain is the most common symptom of both gastric and duodenal ulcers, characterized by a gnawing or burning sensation and that occurs after meals—classically, shortly after meals with gastric ulcers and 2-3 hours afterward with duodenal ulcers.

      Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is the preferred diagnostic test in the evaluation of patients with suspected peptic ulcer disease. At endoscopy, gastric ulcers appear as discrete mucosal lesions with a punched-out smooth ulcer base, which often is filled with whitish fibrinoid exudate. Ulcers tend to be solitary and well circumscribed and usually are 0.5-2.5 cm in diameter.
      Treatment of peptic ulcers varies depending on the aetiology and clinical presentation. The initial management of a stable patient with dyspepsia differs from the management of an unstable patient with upper gastrointestinal (GI) haemorrhage. In the latter scenario, failure of medical management not uncommonly leads to surgical intervention.

      Treatment options include empiric antisecretory therapy, empiric triple therapy for H pylori infection, endoscopy followed by appropriate therapy based on findings, and H pylori serology followed by triple therapy for patients who are infected. Breath testing for active H pylori infection may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became worse after he started playing basket ball over the last three months. He was admitted to the orthopaedic ward to have elbow braces fitted. What type of synovial joint is the elbow joint?

      Your Answer: Hinge

      Explanation:

      The elbow joint is one of the many synovial joints in the body. This joint is an example of the hinge joint as the humerus is received into the semilunar notch of the ulna and the capitulum of the humerus articulates with the fovea on the head of the radius, together acting as a hinge in one plane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum...

    Incorrect

    • The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum are all located on which bone at the base of the skull?

      Your Answer: Frontal

      Correct Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The sphenoid bone consists of two parts, a central part and two wing-like structures that extend sideways towards each side of the skull. It forms the base of the skull, and floor and sides of the orbit. On its central part lies the optic foramen. The foramen ovale, foramen spinosum and foramen rotundum lie on its great wing while the superior orbital fissure lies on its lesser wing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 34-year-old man presents with a five-week history of painful, bright red bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man presents with a five-week history of painful, bright red bleeding that typically occurs after defecation and is noted on the toilet paper. External inspection of the anal canal shows a small skin tag at six o'clock position. The patient does not give consent for internal palpation. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoidal disease

      Correct Answer: Fissure-in-ano

      Explanation:

      Painful, bright red rectal bleeding is usually due to a fissure. Presence of pain and the sentinel tag suggests a posterior fissure-in-ano.

      Anal fissures are a common cause of painful, bright red, rectal bleeding. Most fissures are idiopathic and present as a painful mucocutaneous defect in the posterior midline (90% cases). Fissures are more likely to be anteriorly located in females, particularly if they are multiparous. Diseases associated with fissure-in-ano include:
      1. Crohn’s disease
      2. Tuberculosis
      3. Internal rectal prolapse

      Diagnosis:
      In most cases, the defect can be visualised as a posterior midline epithelial defect. Where symptoms are highly suggestive of the condition and examination findings are unclear, an examination under anaesthesia may be helpful. Atypical disease presentation should be investigated with colonoscopy and EUA with biopsies of the area.

      Treatment:
      1. Stool softeners are important as hard stools may tear the epithelium and result in recurrent symptoms. The most effective first-line agents are topically applied GTN (0.2%) or Diltiazem (2%) paste. Side effects of diltiazem are better tolerated.
      2. Resistant cases may benefit from injection of botulinum toxin or lateral internal sphincterotomy. Advancement flaps may be used to treat resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each...

    Incorrect

    • The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each side of its lateral ends, the right and left. The left colic flexure found on the side of the descending colon is attached to an organ superiorly by a mesenteric ligament. Which organ is this?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure is the bend of the transverse colon as it continues to form the descending colon on the left upper quadrant. The spleen is located on the superior aspect of the left colic flexure. It is commonly referred to as the splenic flexure because of its relation o the spleen superiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      82.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 72 year old man suffered a MI. What is the approximate time...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old man suffered a MI. What is the approximate time needed by the scar tissue of the MI to recover and attain full strength?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: Several months

      Explanation:

      A week following a MI attack, a little collagen starts to form and deposit. By the end of the 2nd week, neovascularisation of the scar occurs, with some collagen being laid down in a haphazard fashion. By this time the scar attains some strength. During the next 6 months, collagen is constantly being laid down and is rearranged in order to shrink the scar. Most of the blood vessels by this time have regenerated, decreasing vascularity of the scar reaching full maturity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A butcher accidentally cut himself on his right index finger. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A butcher accidentally cut himself on his right index finger. Which of the following substances when in contact with the basement membrane of the injured vasculature will activate the coagulation cascade as well as the kinin system in a first response to this injury?

      Your Answer: Thromboxane

      Correct Answer: Hageman factor

      Explanation:

      Hageman factor/factor XII in the intrinsic pathway activates prekallikrein and factor XI. Deficiency will not cause excessive bleeding as other coagulation factors will be utilized but the PTT will be greater than 200 seconds.
      Thromboxane promotes platelet aggregation and causes vasoconstriction.
      Plasmin, which is cleaved from plasminogen acts as an anticoagulant which breaks down thrombi.
      Platelet activating factor promotes platelet aggregation and is also chemotactic to neutrophils.
      Histamine acts as a vasodilator.
      Platelet inhibiting factor acts an anticoagulant.
      Renin is a hormone released from the kidney that causes vasoconstriction and water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 3 month old baby boy is taken to the hospital for recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 month old baby boy is taken to the hospital for recurrent colicky abdominal pain and intermittent intestinal obstruction. The transverse colon is herniated into the thoracic cavity, through a mid line defect and this is shown when imaging is done. What is the cause of this defect?

      Your Answer: Paraoesophageal hernia

      Correct Answer: Morgagni hernia

      Explanation:

      Morgagni hernias are one of the congenital diaphragmatic hernias (CDH), and are characterized by herniation through the foramen of Morgagni. When compared to Bochdalek hernias, Morgagni hernias are:
      -anterior
      -more often right-sided (,90%)
      -small
      -rare (,2% of CDH)
      -at low risk of prolapse

      Only ,30% of patients are symptomatic. Newborns may present with respiratory distress at birth similar to a Bochdalek hernia. Additionally, recurrent chest infections and gastrointestinal symptoms have been reported in those with previously undiagnosed Morgagni hernia.
      The image of the transverse colon is herniated into the thoracic cavity, through a mid line defect and this indicates that it is a Morgagni hernia since the foramen of a Morgagni hernia occurs in the anterior midline through the sternocostal hiatus of the diaphragm, with 90% of cases occurring on the right side.

      Clinical manifestations of congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) include the following:
      Early diagnosis – Right-side heart; decreased breath sounds on the affected side; scaphoid abdomen; bowel sounds in the thorax, respiratory distress, and/or cyanosis on auscultation; CDH can often be diagnosed in utero with ultrasonography (US), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or both

      Late diagnosis – Chest mass on chest radiography, gastric volvulus, splenic volvulus, or large-bowel obstruction

      Congenital hernias (neonatal onset) – Respiratory distress and/or cyanosis occurs within the first 24 hours of life; CDH may not be diagnosed for several years if the defect is small enough that it does not cause significant pulmonary dysfunction

      Congenital hernias (childhood or adult onset) – Obstructive symptoms from protrusion of the colon, chest pain, tightness or fullness the in chest, sepsis following strangulation or perforation, and many respiratory symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 42 year old man presents with end stage renal failure and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man presents with end stage renal failure and is prepared to receive a kidney from his best friend. HLA testing showed that they are not a 100% match and he is given immunosuppressant therapy for this. Three months later when his renal function is assessed, he showed signs of deteriorating renal function, with decreased renal output, proteinuria of +++ and RBCs in the urine. He was given antilymphocyte globulins and his condition reversed. During the crisis period the patient is likely to be suffering from?

      Your Answer: Graft-versus-host disease

      Correct Answer: Acute rejection

      Explanation:

      This patients is most likely experiencing an acute rejection. It is a cell mediated attack against the organ that has been transplanted. Antigens are either presented by blood borne cells with in the graft or antigen presenting cells in the body may be presenting class I and class II molecules that have been shed by the graft. Class I will activate CD8 and class II, CD4 cells, both of which will attack the graft.
      Chronic rejection is a slow process which occurs months to years after the transplant. The exact mechanism is not very well understood but it probably involves a combination of Type III and Type IV hypersensitivity directed against the foreign MHC molecules which look like self-MHC presenting a foreign antigen.
      Hyperacute Transplant Rejection occurs almost immediately and is often evident while you are still in surgery. It is caused by accidental ABO Blood type mismatching of the donor and recipient which almost never happens anymore. This means the host has preformed antibodies against the donated tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?

      Your Answer: Scurvy

      Explanation:

      Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which foramen contains the vertebral artery? ...

    Correct

    • Which foramen contains the vertebral artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa. It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata. Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges, spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop...

    Correct

    • A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop of bowel protruding through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia. When this is viewed from the side of the abdomen with a laparoscope, in which region would the hernial sac be?

      Your Answer: Medial inguinal fossa

      Explanation:

      In a direct inguinal hernia, visceral contents exit the abdomen through a weak point in the fascia in the medial inguinal fossa i.e. the area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds. Such a hernia doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring or the lateral inguinal fossa. Note that direct hernias can go through the superficial inguinal ring, although rarely. The supravesical fossa, between the median and medial umbilical folds, is formed by a peritoneal reflection from the anterior abdominal wall onto the bladder and the retrovesical fossa is the region behind the urinary bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old professional tennis player presents to the A&E department with a swollen,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old professional tennis player presents to the A&E department with a swollen, painful right arm. On examination, his fingers are dusky. Out of the following, which is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Arterial duplex scan

      Correct Answer: Venous duplex scan

      Explanation:

      This patient has an axillary vein thrombosis. It classically presents with pain and swelling of the affected limb. Venous duplex scan is needed to exclude a thrombus.

      Primary proximal upper-extremity deep vein thrombosis (UEDVT) is less common than its secondary forms. The most common primary form is effort-related thrombosis, also called Paget-Schroetter syndrome. It usually occurs in, otherwise, healthy young men who report, before the onset of thrombosis, vigorous arm exercise such as lifting weights, playing badminton/tennis, pitching a baseball, or performing repetitive overhead activities, such as painting or car repair. Most patients with effort-related UEDVT have an underlying venous thoracic outlet syndrome (VTOS). Secondary causes of UEDVT include central line insertion, malignancy, or pacemakers.

      Patients with UEDVT typically present with heaviness, discomfort, pain, paraesthesia, and swelling of the affected arm. Physical examination may reveal pitting oedema, redness, or cyanosis of the involved extremity; visible collateral veins at the shoulder or upper arm; and fever.

      Diagnosis is made by:
      1. FBC: platelet function
      2. Coagulation profile
      3. Liver function tests
      4. Venous duplex scan: investigation of choice, provides information relating to flow and characteristics of the vessels.
      5. D-dimer testing
      6. CT scan: for VTOS

      Treatment options for primary UEDVT are as follows:
      1. Anticoagulation therapy should be undertaken with a once-daily regimen of LMWH or fondaparinux for at least five days, followed by vitamin K antagonists for at least three months. Unfractionated heparin instead of LMWH is recommended for patients with renal failure or for those treated with CDT.

      2. Early thrombus removal and restoration of venous patency aim should be done immediately after starting the patient on heparin. Catheter-based therapy is recommended for patients with proximal UEDVT of recent onset and severe symptoms, low risk for bleeding complications, and good functional status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      401.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The muscle that stabilizes the stapes is innervated by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that stabilizes the stapes is innervated by which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Chorda tympani nerve

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The stapedius is the smallest skeletal muscle in the human body. At just over one millimetre in length, its purpose is to stabilize the smallest bone in the body, the stapes and is innervated by a branch of the facial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      59
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65 year old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension presented...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension presented with a stroke a few months ago severely affecting his speech and movement in the right arm and leg. A cerebral angiogram revealed a middle cerebral artery occlusion. A recent CT scan was done which revealed a 5 cm cystic space in his left parietal lobe. This lesion is a result of which of the following forms of resolution?

      Your Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Characteristically, the brain will undergo liquefactive necrosis following ischaemic injury. This leaves a cystic space in that region which would show up on a CT scan. Atrophy would result in a generalized decrease in the brain size. Coagulative necrosis typically occurs in parenchymal organs e.g. the spleen or kidney which have a lower lipid content. Caseous necrosis is typical in granulomatous tuberculosis infection. Apoptosis will not form a cystic area as it is programmed cell death involving a individual cells. Gangrenous necrosis is characteristic of ischaemic injury of the lower limb and GI tract. Fibrinous necrosis results from necrotic damage to the blood vessels with the leaking of proteins into the vessel, appearing bright pink on H & E staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      501.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 6-year-old boy undergoes a closure of a loop colostomy. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy undergoes a closure of a loop colostomy. Which of the following should be used as a thromboprophylaxis?

      Your Answer: Daily low dose low molecular weight heparin for 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Clinical characteristics associated with increased venous thromboembolism (VTE) risk in children (listed alphabetically, owing to the current lack of expert consensus or robust data regarding relative risk contributions)
      -Anticipated hospitalization > 72 h
      -Cancer (active, not in remission)
      -Central venous catheter presence
      -Oestrogen therapy started within the last 1 month
      -Inflammatory disease (newly diagnosed, poorly controlled, or flaring)
      -Intensive care unit admission
      -Mechanical ventilation
      -Mobility decreased from baseline (Braden Q‐score < 2)
      -Obesity (BMI > 99th percentile for age)
      -Post pubertal age
      -Severe dehydration, requiring intervention
      -Surgery > 90 min within last 14 days
      -Systemic or severe local infection (positive sputum/blood culture or viral test result, or empirical antibiotics)
      -Trauma as admitting diagnosis

      Pharmacological prophylaxis may be instituted in the following risk groups:
      Children in an ICU with a CVC and one other risk factor fit a high‐risk profile and may benefit from pharmacological thromboprophylaxis in the absence of strong contraindications.
      For children with either a CVC or admission to an ICU (but not both), two risk factors are recommended before the initiation of pharmacological thromboprophylaxis.
      For children with neither a CVC nor ICU admission, at least three risk factors should be present before the initiation of pharmacological thromboprophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness....

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness. A CT scan reveals subarachnoid haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Ruptured berry aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Saccular aneurysms, also known as berry aneurysms, appear as a round outpouching and are the most common form of cerebral aneurysm. They are a congenital intracranial defect, and haemorrhage can occur at any age, but is most common between the ages of 40-65 years. A second rupture (rebleeding) sometimes occurs, most often within about 7 days of the first bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 26 year old man is admitted for severe anorexia nervosa and he...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old man is admitted for severe anorexia nervosa and he is given nasogastric feeding which is initially tolerated well. Four days later, he becomes acutely agitated and confused. On examination, his heart rate is 121/min with regular rhythm and a blood pressure of 97/86 mmHg. despite all this, he appears adequately hydrated and has no fever. Which investigation would be the best one for this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum urea and electrolytes

      Correct Answer: Serum phosphate

      Explanation:

      Answer: Serum phosphate

      Refeeding syndrome can be defined as the potentially fatal shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding (whether enterally or parenterally. These shifts result from hormonal and metabolic changes and may cause serious clinical complications. The hallmark biochemical feature of refeeding syndrome is hypophosphatemia. However, the syndrome is complex and may also feature abnormal sodium and fluid balance; changes in glucose, protein, and fat metabolism; thiamine deficiency; hypokalaemia; and hypomagnesaemia.
      During refeeding, glycaemia leads to increased insulin and decreased secretion of glucagon. Insulin stimulates glycogen, fat, and protein synthesis. This process requires minerals such as phosphate and magnesium and cofactors such as thiamine. Insulin stimulates the absorption of potassium into the cells through the sodium-potassium ATPase symporter, which also transports glucose into the cells. Magnesium and phosphate are also taken up into the cells. Water follows by osmosis. These processes result in a decrease in the serum levels of phosphate, potassium, and magnesium, all of which are already depleted. The clinical features of the refeeding syndrome occur as a result of the functional deficits of these electrolytes and the rapid change in basal metabolic rate.

      Symptoms of hypophosphatemia include:

      confusion or hesitation
      seizures
      muscle breakdown
      neuromuscular problems
      acute heart failure

      Deficiency in thiamine can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome (retrograde and anterograde amnesia, confabulation) and Wernicke’s encephalopathy (ocular abnormalities, ataxia, confusional state, hypothermia, coma). These symptoms are not present in the patient so Thiamine deficiency can be ruled out and there is no need to do tests for Serum vitamin B.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?...

    Incorrect

    • The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?

      Your Answer: Inferior pubic rami

      Correct Answer: Ischial tuberosities

      Explanation:

      The perineum has it’s deep boundaries in front of the pubic arch and the arcuate ligament of the pubis, behind the tip of the coccyx and on either side of the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium and the sacrotuberous ligament. It also corresponds to the outlet of the pelvis. A line drawn transversely across, in front of the ischial tuberosities divides the space into two portions, the posterior contains the termination of the anal canal and the anterior, contains the external urogenital organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      29.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Colorectal Surgery (0/2) 0%
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The Abdomen (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (7/13) 54%
Basic Sciences (11/21) 52%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (3/7) 43%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (0/3) 0%
Surgical Technique And Technology (0/1) 0%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Vascular (0/1) 0%
Peri-operative Care (0/2) 0%
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