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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain, and rigors that have been going on for 3 days. He also reports an increase in his frequency of urination. He has a medical history of well-controlled asthma and type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM).

      What is the most common causative agent of this condition?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by E. coli, with young females having the highest incidence. Given the patient’s symptoms and previous T1DM diagnosis, this is a likely diagnosis. While other organisms can also cause pyelonephritis, any that can ascend up the genitourinary tract, E. coli is the most frequent culprit.

      Understanding Acute Pyelonephritis

      Acute pyelonephritis is a condition that is commonly caused by an ascending infection, usually E. coli from the lower urinary tract. However, it can also be caused by the spread of infection through the bloodstream, leading to sepsis. The clinical features of acute pyelonephritis include fever, rigors, loin pain, nausea/vomiting, and symptoms of cystitis such as dysuria and urinary frequency.

      To diagnose acute pyelonephritis, patients should have a mid-stream urine (MSU) test before starting antibiotics. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered. Local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available, and the BNF currently recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone (for non-pregnant women) for 7-10 days.

      In summary, acute pyelonephritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience any of the clinical features mentioned above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination, the GP suspects a testicular tumour rather than epididymo-orchitis. What finding is most likely to have led to this suspicion?

      Your Answer: Acute onset

      Correct Answer: A painless testicular swelling

      Explanation:

      Testicular Tumours and Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Testicular tumours can present as painless or painful lumps or enlarged testicles, often accompanied by a dragging sensation and pain in the lower abdomen. Inflamed testicles are very tender, while malignant ones may lack normal sensation. Ultrasound is usually used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Acute epididymo-orchitis, on the other hand, is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, often caused by infections spreading from the urethra or bladder. Symptoms may include urethral discharge, hydrocele, erythema, oedema of the scrotum, and pyrexia. Orchitis, limited to the testis, is less common.

      The differential diagnosis of a testicular mass includes not only tumours and epididymo-orchitis but also testicular torsion, hydrocele, hernia, hematoma, spermatocele, and varicocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After referral and kidney biopsy, a diagnosis of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is made.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this condition.

      Your Answer: It may present as a nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glomerulonephritis: Types, Symptoms, and Causes

      Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation in the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can be primary or secondary, and may present with various symptoms such as haematuria, proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, nephritic syndrome, acute or chronic renal failure.

      Primary glomerulonephritis can be classified based on clinical syndrome, histopathological appearance, or underlying aetiology. One common type is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, which causes segmental scarring and podocyte fusion in the glomerulus. It often leads to nephrotic syndrome and may progress to end-stage renal failure, but can be treated with corticosteroids.

      Another type is IgA nephropathy, which is characterised by IgA antibody deposition in the glomerulus and is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults worldwide. It usually presents with macroscopic haematuria but can also cause nephrotic syndrome.

      Interstitial nephritis, on the other hand, affects the area between the nephrons and can be acute or chronic. The most common cause is a drug hypersensitivity reaction.

      In summary, understanding the types, symptoms, and causes of glomerulonephritis is crucial in diagnosing and managing this group of kidney disorders.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old lady presents to your clinic with complaints of urine leakage when...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old lady presents to your clinic with complaints of urine leakage when she sneezes and coughs. She denies dysuria but reports seeing blood in her urine. She has no gastrointestinal symptoms. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urinalysis reveals the presence of blood, and an MSU shows RBC>100/mm3. She has no known allergies. What would be your approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to urology

      Explanation:

      Managing Urinary Incontinence and Haematuria in Women

      Stress urinary incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as fluid and caffeine intake reduction, and pelvic floor muscle training. If medical or surgical treatment is preferred, duloxetine can be used as a second-line option. However, trimethoprim is not appropriate in the absence of urinary infection. Routine referral to urology may be necessary for surgical management, but only if there are no red flags.

      On the other hand, nephrology referral is indicated for women under 50 years old with microscopic haematuria, proteinuria, or decreased eGFR. In this case, an urgent urology referral is necessary due to the patient’s macroscopic haematuria without urinary tract infection and unexplained microscopic haematuria at her age.

      Managing urinary incontinence and haematuria in women requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Proper diagnosis and referral to the appropriate specialist can help ensure effective treatment and management of these conditions.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old male presents with a testicular mass.

    On examination the mass is painless,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents with a testicular mass.

      On examination the mass is painless, approximately 2 cm in diameter, hard, with an irregular surface and doesn't transilluminate.

      What is the most likely cause of the lump?

      Your Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Tumour Diagnosis Based on Lump Characteristics

      The lump’s characteristics suggest that it is a tumour, specifically due to its hard and irregular nature. However, the patient’s age is a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour. Teratomas are more commonly found in patients aged 20-30, while seminomas are prevalent in those aged 30-50. Teratomas are gonadal tumours that originate from multipotent cells present in the ovaries.

      In summary, the characteristics of a lump can provide valuable information in diagnosing a tumour. However, age is also a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour, as different types of tumours are more prevalent in certain age groups.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). He is feeling unwell and has had mild generalised abdominal pain for 2 days and a cloudy effluent.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial action.

      Your Answer: Send effluent fluid for cell count, microscopy and microbiological culture

      Explanation:

      Peritonitis in CAPD Patients: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a common complication in patients undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), occurring once per patient-year on average. Symptoms include generalized abdominal pain and cloudy effluent. Localized pain and tenderness may indicate a local process, while severe peritonitis may be due to a perforated organ. Fever is often absent.

      To diagnose peritonitis, a sample of the dialysate effluent should be obtained for laboratory evaluation, including a cell count with differential, Gram stain, and culture. An elevated dialysate count of white blood cells (WBC) of more than 100/mm3, of which at least 50% are neutrophils, supports the diagnosis of microbial-induced peritonitis and requires immediate antimicrobial therapy. In asymptomatic patients with only cloudy fluid, therapy may be delayed until test results are available.

      Empiric antibiotic treatment should cover both gram-negative and gram-positive organisms, including Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus, which are common causes of peritonitis. Candida albicans may also be the cause in rare cases. Antibiotics can be administered intraperitoneally by adding them to the dialysis fluid. Hospital admission is not usually necessary for this complication.

      In summary, CAPD patients should be aware of the symptoms of peritonitis and seek prompt medical attention if they occur. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 7 - A 65 year-old man visits your clinic following a blood test that revealed...

    Correct

    • A 65 year-old man visits your clinic following a blood test that revealed an elevated prostate specific antigen (PSA) level. He inquires if this indicates the presence of cancer. Can you provide an estimate of the proportion of men with an elevated PSA who have prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: 1-Mar

      Explanation:

      The PSA blood test is used to screen for prostate cancer, but it lacks specificity as only one-third of patients with elevated levels are actually diagnosed with the disease. Therefore, it is crucial to inform patients about this before they undergo the test.

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.

      The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.

      PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination,...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination, painful urination, and discomfort in the pelvic area. Upon examination, his prostate is tender. A dipstick test of his urine shows the presence of white blood cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute bacterial prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostatitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Prostatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland. There are different types of prostatitis, including acute bacterial prostatitis, chronic bacterial prostatitis, non-bacterial prostatitis, and asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis. In this article, we will focus on the symptoms and differential diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis.

      Symptoms of Acute Bacterial Prostatitis
      Acute bacterial prostatitis is characterized by a sudden onset of feverish illness, irritative urinary voiding symptoms (dysuria, frequency, urgency), perineal or suprapubic pain, and a very tender prostate on rectal examination. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also common. It is important to note that prostatic massage should not be done as it could lead to complications.

      Differential Diagnosis
      It is important to differentiate acute bacterial prostatitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Chronic bacterial prostatitis is more common but symptoms must last for more than three months before this diagnosis can be made. Benign prostatic hyperplasia typically presents with progressive obstructive symptoms, while cystitis doesn’t involve tenderness of the prostate on examination. Non-bacterial prostatitis is associated with chronic pain around the prostate.

      Conclusion
      Acute bacterial prostatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis and rule out other conditions with similar symptoms. If you suspect acute bacterial prostatitis, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 9 - You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results of a 75-year-old man. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his results are as follows:

      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 92 µmol/l

      You look back through his notes and see that he had blood taken as part of his annual review two weeks ago when his eGFR was at 58 (mL/min/1.73 m2). These current blood tests are a repeat organised by another doctor.

      He takes 10 mg of Lisinopril for hypertension but he has no other past medical history.

      You plan to have a telephone conversation with him regarding his renal function.

      What is the correct information to give this man?

      Your Answer: If her eGFR remains below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 on at least 2 occasions separated by at least 30 days you can then diagnose CKD

      Correct Answer: If her eGFR remains below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 on at least 2 occasions separated by at least 90 days you can then diagnose CKD

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where there is an abnormality in kidney function or structure that lasts for more than three months and has implications for health. Diagnosis of CKD requires an eGFR of less than 60 on at least two occasions, separated by a minimum of 90 days. CKD can range from mild to end-stage renal disease, with associated protein and/or blood leakage into the urine. Common causes of CKD include diabetes, hypertension, nephrotoxic drugs, obstructive kidney disease, and multi-system diseases. Early diagnosis and treatment of CKD aim to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to end-stage renal disease. Testing for CKD involves measuring creatinine levels in the blood, sending an early morning urine sample for albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) measurement, and dipping the urine for haematuria. CKD is diagnosed when tests persistently show a reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. This requires an eGFR persistently less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and/or ACR persistently greater than 3 mg/mmol. To confirm the diagnosis of CKD, a repeat blood test is necessary at least 90 days after the first one. For instance, a lady needs to provide an early morning urine sample for haematuria dipping and ACR measurement, and another blood test after 90 days to confirm CKD diagnosis.

      Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal but urine dipstick testing shows blood ++. Her mother had also been hypertensive and had died prematurely aged 37 years of a cerebral haemorrhage.
      Select the single most likely cause of this patient’s hypertension.

      Your Answer: A nephropathy

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypertension with Renal Involvement

      Hypertension with renal involvement has various causes, with renal impairment being the most common identifiable cause. Dipstick haematuria is a strong indicator of glomerulonephritis, particularly IgA nephropathy. However, if there is a family history and cerebral haemorrhage, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a likely cause. ADPKD is the most common inherited cause of serious renal disease and often presents with hypertension and microscopic haematuria. Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries, which is autosomal dominant, may also cause hypertension but doesn’t present with haematuria. Renovascular atherosclerosis, on the other hand, causes hypertension but doesn’t show abnormal dipstick testing. A bruit may be audible in both fibromuscular dysplasia and renovascular atherosclerosis.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is agitated and unable to find a position that relieves the pain. On physical examination, there is tenderness in the right lumbar region, but her abdomen is soft. She has no fever.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Presentations of Various Kidney Conditions

      Kidney conditions can present with a variety of symptoms and presentations. Renal colic, caused by the passage of stones into the ureter, is characterized by severe flank pain that radiates to the groin, along with haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Acute pyelonephritis presents with fever, costovertebral angle pain, and nausea/vomiting, while acute glomerulonephritis doesn’t cause severe loin pain. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease can cause chronic loin pain, but it is not as severe as renal colic unless there is a stone present. Renal cell carcinoma may present with haematuria, loin pain, and a flank mass, but the pain is not as severe as in renal colic and pyrexia is only present in a minority of cases.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 12 - A 58-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with painless macroscopic haematuria. He...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with painless macroscopic haematuria. He works in an industrial paint plant. He is normally fit and well and takes no regular medications. He is a smoker.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of the bladder

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Haematuria: A Brief Overview

      Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. It can be a sign of a variety of conditions, ranging from benign to potentially life-threatening. Here, we will discuss some of the common causes of haematuria.

      Carcinoma of the bladder is a type of cancer that commonly presents with painless haematuria in those over the age of 60. Occupational exposure to aromatic amines is a risk factor for this condition.

      Renal-cell carcinoma is another type of cancer that can cause haematuria. It is associated with smoking and obesity and typically presents with vague symptoms such as fatigue or weight loss.

      Membranous nephropathy is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome, but it is rarely associated with haematuria.

      Renal stones can cause painful haematuria, along with other symptoms such as loin pain, dysuria, and nausea.

      Urinary tract infections can also cause haematuria, but they are typically associated with urinary frequency, dysuria, and abdominal pain.

      It is important to note that haematuria should always be evaluated by a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 13 - You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is in their 60s. The patient is currently taking simvastatin 20 mg, metformin 1g twice daily, and gliclazide 80 mg twice daily. The patient's latest renal function results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 141 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 3.9 mmol/l
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 115 µmol/l

      What is the creatinine threshold at which NICE recommends considering a change in metformin dosage?

      Your Answer: > 110 µmol/l

      Correct Answer: > 130 µmol/l

      Explanation:

      If the creatinine level is above 130 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 45 ml/min), NICE suggests that the dosage of metformin should be reevaluated. Additionally, if the creatinine level is above 150 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 30 ml/min), NICE recommends that metformin should be discontinued.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man with stable chronic renal impairment has routine blood tests and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with stable chronic renal impairment has routine blood tests and urine testing for proteinuria. The results show an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 42 ml/min/1.73m2 and an albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 1.3 mg/mmol.
      According to NICE guidance, select the optimal clinical blood pressure in this patient.

      Your Answer: < 130/80 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Blood Pressure in Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      According to NICE guidance, patients with chronic kidney disease should aim for a target blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or less if they do not have proteinuria. However, if they have an albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, the target should be 130/80 mmHg or less.

      For those with chronic kidney disease and diabetes with an ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more, or hypertension with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, or an ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more (regardless of hypertension or cardiovascular disease), an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should be used.

      It is important to note that microalbuminuria is defined as an ACR > 2.5 mg/mmol (men) or > 3.5 mg/mmol (women), while proteinuria is defined as an ACR > 30 mg/mmol. Without knowing if the patient is hypertensive, it is unclear if they meet the criteria for medication use. Proper management of blood pressure is crucial in the care of patients with chronic kidney disease.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 15 - A 79-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of worsening lower urinary tract...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of worsening lower urinary tract symptoms that have been affecting his quality of life for the past three months. He reports experiencing increased hesitancy, weak urine stream, and a feeling of incomplete emptying. Upon examination, his abdomen and genitals appear normal, while a PR exam reveals a smooth, enlarged prostate. His urine dipstick is negative, and his PSA level is 1.3ng/mL. He denies experiencing any weight loss, fevers, or new bone or back pain. He is currently taking tamsulosin to alleviate his symptoms. What is the most appropriate additional medical therapy to offer this patient?

      Your Answer: Alfuzosin

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Management of Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms

      Managing lower urinary tract symptoms is a crucial aspect of general practice. It is essential to distinguish between the causes of these symptoms to make the correct management decisions. For obstructive symptoms, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors such as finasteride play a vital role in causing prostatic shrinkage by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which is an important prostatic growth factor.

      However, alpha blockers such as alfuzosin and doxazosin would not be appropriate choices as they are already present in the form of tamsulosin. On the other hand, antimuscarinic medications like oxybutynin and tolterodine are used in the management of overactive bladder, which is more likely to present with symptoms of urgency and frequency rather than obstructive symptoms.

      In summary, understanding the underlying cause of lower urinary tract symptoms is crucial in determining the appropriate management strategy. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are effective in managing obstructive symptoms, while alpha blockers and antimuscarinic medications are more suitable for other types of symptoms.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old lady presents with urinary incontinence. Her history appears to be consistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old lady presents with urinary incontinence. Her history appears to be consistent with stress incontinence. She describes large leaks of urine over the past six months. She often leaks urine when coughing or climbing up stairs and sometimes wakes up a few times at night to urinate. She doesn't complain of dysuria or haematuria. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender and urinalysis is normal. Her BMI is 25.1 and she doesn't smoke. She has tried pelvic floor exercises for 9 months which haven't worked. She is not keen on surgery.
      What medication is licensed for urinary stress incontinence in this patient?

      Your Answer: Oxybutynin

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence

      Urinary stress incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine intake, maintaining steady fluid intake, losing weight, and quitting smoking. Pelvic floor exercises can also be helpful. If these measures are not effective, surgical options may be considered. Duloxetine can be used as a second-line treatment if the patient prefers medical grounds or if surgery is not an option. For urge incontinence, first-line medications include solifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine. Desmopressin is used for conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and haemophilia and von Willebrand’s disease. By following these treatment options, patients can manage their urinary incontinence and improve their quality of life.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for a check-up. Upon routine examination, he is discovered to have hypertension with a blood pressure of 166/82 mmHg, which is confirmed by two separate readings. His urine dipstick is negative and his renal function is normal. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity may be caused by diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and angiotensin II receptor antagonists. According to the BNF, the combination of lithium with diltiazem or verapamil may increase the risk of neurotoxicity, but there is no significant interaction with amlodipine. Although alpha-blockers are not known to interact with lithium, they are not recommended as the first-line treatment for hypertension. The NICE guidelines for hypertension suggest that amlodipine could be a suitable initial option, even if the patient is taking lithium.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old man presents with unprovoked, painless, macroscopic haematuria. Dipstick testing confirms the...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with unprovoked, painless, macroscopic haematuria. Dipstick testing confirms the presence of blood but no leukocytes or nitrites.
      Select the most likely cause of these symptoms.

      Your Answer: Bladder tumour

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Macroscopic Haematuria by Age

      Macroscopic haematuria, or visible blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom that may indicate a serious underlying condition. The causes of macroscopic haematuria can vary depending on the age and gender of the patient. In general, painless macroscopic haematuria in an adult should be considered a potential sign of renal tract cancer until proven otherwise.

      For patients under 20 years old, glomerulopathies (especially IgA nephropathy), thin basement membrane disease, urinary infection, congenital malformation, hereditary nephritis (Alport’s Syndrome), and sickle cell disease are the most likely causes.

      For patients between 20 and 60 years old, urinary infection, nephrolithiasis, endometriosis, bladder, prostate, and renal cancers are the most common causes. The risk of cancer increases significantly after the age of 35-50.

      For patients over 60 years old, the most likely causes of macroscopic haematuria differ by gender. In males, cancer and prostatitis are the most common causes, while in females, cancer and urinary infection are the most common causes.

      It is important to note that while these age-related trends can be helpful in guiding diagnostic testing and treatment, almost any disease can affect anyone at any age. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the underlying cause of macroscopic haematuria.

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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old patient comes to the surgery with suspected renal colic. The patient's...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient comes to the surgery with suspected renal colic. The patient's pain is managed with oral naproxen and hospitalization is not necessary. What imaging technique is the most suitable for examining the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Non-contrast CT

      Explanation:

      Non-contrast CT is now directly accessible to many GPs.

      Management and Prevention of Renal Stones

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.

      Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intra corporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.

      Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.

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  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old man comes to see you after his recent prostatectomy for localised...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to see you after his recent prostatectomy for localised prostate cancer. He was diagnosed after presenting with minimal symptoms and as such he is worried about relapse and recurrence of his prostate cancer.

      He tells you that his specialist mentioned that he would have a PSA blood test performed periodically as a means of monitoring for recurrence. How often should he have his PSA checked?

      Your Answer: Every three months for a year then at least annually thereafter

      Correct Answer: At six weeks, then at least six monthly for two years, then at least annually thereafter

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Prostate Cancer Patients

      Patients who have had prostate cancer require regular monitoring to check for any signs of recurrence or progression. This is usually done through PSA blood tests, which can be done at the GP surgery. However, it is important to note that patients should be under the direction of a specialist for monitoring and follow-up appointments.

      As a GP, it is important to have an understanding of the monitoring process so that you can effectively counsel and advise patients who may have concerns about recurrence. Fear of recurrence is a common issue amongst cancer survivors, and they may feel more comfortable discussing this with their GP.

      NICE has provided guidance on active surveillance and monitoring post-treatment, which can help inform your consultations with patients. By understanding the necessary monitoring, you can provide better support and care for patients who have been affected by prostate cancer.

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  • Question 21 - A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
      What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer: Overwhelming sepsis

      Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis

      Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.

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  • Question 22 - A 66-year-old man undergoes routine blood tests at his General Practice Surgery. These...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man undergoes routine blood tests at his General Practice Surgery. These reveal an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 64 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min).
      A repeat test three months later gives an eGFR result of 62 ml/min. A urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.5 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol). He is otherwise well with no symptoms.
      What is the most appropriate interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: No CKD

      Explanation:

      Understanding eGFR Results and CKD Stages

      When interpreting eGFR results, it is important to consider other markers of kidney damage such as albuminuria. An eGFR of 60-89 ml/min is considered mild and not indicative of CKD in the absence of albuminuria.

      A sustained reduction in eGFR over three months is not indicative of acute kidney injury, which typically involves a sudden and drastic reduction in eGFR.

      CKD stage 1 is diagnosed when eGFR is >90 ml/min and there is proteinuria (urine ACR >3 mg/mmol). This patient’s eGFR result of 62 ml/min and ACR of 2.5 mg/mmol doesn’t meet these criteria.

      CKD stage 2 is diagnosed when eGFR is 60-89 ml/min and ACR is >3 mg/mmol. While the patient’s eGFR result fits this criteria, the sustained drop and normal ACR exclude this diagnosis.

      CKD stage 3a is diagnosed when eGFR is 45-59 ml/min with or without other markers of kidney damage. This patient doesn’t meet this diagnostic marker.

      In summary, understanding eGFR results and other markers of kidney damage is crucial in determining CKD stages.

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  • Question 23 - A 22-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She had an episode of acute cystitis...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She had an episode of acute cystitis 4 weeks ago, which was successfully treated without any complications. Her urine culture did not show any resistant or atypical organisms. However, she has a history of recurrent lower UTIs and is feeling frustrated as she has had 6 episodes in the past year, which has put a strain on her new relationship. She has tried cranberry juice and probiotics, but they did not provide any relief.

      You ordered an abdominal ultrasound, which came back normal, and her post-void volume was 25 ml. After reviewing her behavioral and self-hygiene measures, you have identified sexual intercourse as the only trigger.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Refer to secondary care for further investigations such as urodynamic studies

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotic prophylaxis for single-dose use with sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      For women who experience regular urinary tract infections (UTIs) following sexual intercourse, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a single-dose oral antibiotic prophylaxis to be taken with sexual intercourse. This is in line with NICE guidance, which also advises first-line measures such as avoiding douching and occlusive underwear, wiping from front to back after defecation, and maintaining adequate hydration. Daily antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended for premenopausal, non-pregnant women with an identifiable trigger, but may be considered for those who continue to have recurrences with single-dose antibiotic prophylaxis regimens. Vaginal oestrogen cream is recommended for postmenopausal women, while referral to secondary care is only necessary for certain groups, such as those with suspected cancer or persistent haematuria. A self-taken vulvovaginal swab for STIs is not necessary unless there are symptoms of vulvovaginitis, cervicitis, or pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 24 - A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She denies any dysuria or haematuria and reports no gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and urinalysis is unremarkable. She reports drinking 7 glasses of water daily and abstaining from caffeinated beverages. Her BMI is 23.5, and she is a non-smoker. You decide to refer her to a physiotherapist for pelvic floor exercises. How long should she continue these exercises before seeing a benefit?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Referral for Pelvic Floor Exercises

      Referral for supervised pelvic floor exercises is recommended for women who experience urinary stress incontinence after making lifestyle changes. This referral can be made to a continence advisor, specialist nurse, or physiotherapist. The program is tailored to the individual’s needs and lasts for at least three months, with the option to continue if benefits are observed. Patients are advised to perform a minimum of eight pelvic floor muscle contractions three times a day.

      It is important to be aware of the evidence-based approach to inform patients of what they may expect in secondary care. For more information on pelvic floor exercises, visit pogp.csp.org.uk.

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  • Question 25 - An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He reports no dysuria, fever, or other symptoms and feels generally well. He is currently taking apixaban, atenolol, simvastatin, and ramipril due to a history of myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. A urine dipstick test shows positive for blood but negative for leukocytes and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Refer him under the 2-week wait pathway to urology for suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      Management of Painless Haematuria: Choosing the Right Pathway

      When a patient presents with painless haematuria, it is important to choose the right management pathway. In this case, a 2-week wait referral to urology for suspected cancer is the appropriate course of action for a patient over 45 years old with unexplained haematuria. Routine referral to urology is not sufficient in this case.

      Sending a mid-stream urine sample for culture and sensitivity and starting antibiotics is not recommended unless there are accompanying symptoms such as dysuria or fever. Referring for an abdominal X-ray and ultrasound is also not the best option as a CT scan is more appropriate for ruling out bladder or renal carcinoma.

      It is also important to note that while anticoagulants like apixaban can increase the risk of bleeding, they do not explain the underlying cause of haematuria. Therefore, reviewing the use of apixaban alone is not sufficient in managing painless haematuria.

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  • Question 26 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in his groin area. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor observes a reducible lump with a cough impulse above and medial to the pubic tubercle. The patient reports no pain or other symptoms.

      What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Routine surgical referral

      Explanation:

      Referral for surgical repair is the recommended course of action for inguinal hernias, even if they are not causing any symptoms. This patient, who has an inguinal hernia, should be referred for surgery as they are fit and well. Physiotherapy referral, reassurance and safety netting, and ultrasound scan are not appropriate in this case.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man is found to have an eGFR of 65 ml/min/1.73 m2...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is found to have an eGFR of 65 ml/min/1.73 m2 on routine testing. This is the first time this test has been done.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about his management.

      Your Answer: Traces of blood and protein on stick testing of his urine are indications for referral

      Correct Answer: His eGFR should be repeated in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      This man is likely to have stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD). If an initial abnormal eGFR result is detected, it is important to conduct clinical assessment and repeat the test within 2 weeks to evaluate the rate of change in GFR. If CKD is confirmed, at least three eGFR assessments should be made over a period of not less than 90 days to monitor the rate of change in GFR. The frequency of eGFR monitoring will depend on the severity of kidney impairment. Significant progression of CKD is defined as a decline in eGFR of > 5 ml/min/1.73 m² within 1 year or >10 ml/min/1.73 m² within 5 years.

      Proteinuria should be assessed by measuring the protein:creatinine or albumin:creatinine ratio, ideally on an early-morning urine specimen. Proteinuria (ACR ≥30 mg/mmol) together with haematuria may indicate glomerulonephritis and is an indication for referral. However, dipstick testing for haematuria is a screening tool that requires microscopy to make a definitive diagnosis. Haematuria is defined as >3 RBC/high power field of centrifuged sediment under the microscope. If there is only a trace, a sample needs to be sent to confirm haematuria. Patients with CKD should have their proteinuria level assessed at least annually.

      To manage CKD, systolic blood pressure should be lowered to <140 mm Hg (target range 120-139 mmHg) and diastolic blood pressure to <90 mm Hg. Atorvastatin 20 mg should be offered for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD to people with CKD.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a serum creatinine level of 160 µmol/l (60-120 µmol/l).
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome rather than nephrotic syndrome.

      Your Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic and Nephritic Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, oedema, and hyperlipidaemia, while nephritic syndrome is defined by acute kidney injury, hypertension, oliguria, and urinary sediment. Both syndromes can be caused by various renal diseases and are a constellation of several symptoms.

      In nephritic syndrome, increased cellularity within the glomeruli and a leucocytic infiltrate cause an inflammatory reaction that injures capillary walls, leading to red cells in urine and decreased glomerular filtration rate. Hypertension is likely due to fluid retention and increased renin release. Examples of conditions causing nephritic syndrome include diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, and lupus nephritis.

      Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious and requires immediate referral to secondary care, while patients with nephrotic syndrome will also be referred but usually do not require acute admission.

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  • Question 29 - You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been...

    Correct

    • You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been trying to conceive with his wife for the last 12 months without success.

      The results are as follows:

      Semen volume 1.8 ml (1.5ml or more)
      pH 7.4 (7.2 or more)
      Sperm concentration 12 million per ml (15 million per ml or more)
      Total sperm number 21 million (39 million or more)
      Total motility 40% progressively motile (32% or more)
      Vitality 68% live spermatozoa (58% or more)
      Normal forms 5% (4% or more)

      His partner is also currently undergoing investigations. You plan on referring him to fertility services.

      What is the appropriate course of action based on these semen analysis results?

      Your Answer: Repeat test in 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a semen sample shows abnormalities, it is recommended to schedule a repeat test after 3 months to allow for the completion of the spermatozoa formation cycle. In cases where there is a severe deficiency in spermatozoa (azoospermia or a sperm concentration of less than 5 million per ml), an immediate recheck may be necessary. Based on World Health Organisation criteria, this man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia with a sperm concentration of 10 to 15 million per ml, thus requiring a confirmatory test after 3 months.

      Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

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  • Question 30 - A previously healthy 8-year-old girl presents generally unwell, with reduced volumes of smoky-coloured...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 8-year-old girl presents generally unwell, with reduced volumes of smoky-coloured urine.

      She had a sore throat two weeks previously. Immunisations up to date. There is no FH/SH of note.

      On examination her temperature is 37.6°C. She looks quiet and unwell, with slight periorbital oedema. Respiratory rate 15/min, pulse 90/min, blood pressure is 130/100 mmHg. Her JVP is elevated and she has tenderness in both loins.

      Urine dipstick show 3+ haematuria and 3+ proteinuria. Red cell casts are seen on urine microscopy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephritis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Nephritis, also known as acute nephritic syndrome, is a condition characterized by haematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, and oedema with elevated blood pressure. In most cases, the antecedent throat infection makes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis the most likely cause. While blood tests such as ASOT may be useful in confirming the diagnosis, the clinical picture is usually clear.

      The severity of nephritis varies from transient asymptomatic haematuria to severe nephritis with acute renal and heart failure. Treatment is supportive, with close attention to fluid balance. Penicillin is often prescribed, but it may not influence the disease course or spread to family members. Fortunately, 95% of patients recover completely.

      In some cases, uraemia may accompany oliguria, but the clinical and dipstick findings are usually enough for a presumptive diagnosis. In children, the prognosis is excellent, with complete recovery in the vast majority of cases. Fewer than 1% of children experience elevated creatinine levels 10-15 years after an episode.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of nephritis is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

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  • Question 31 - A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his annual check-up. His most recent eGFR is 50 mL/min/1.73m2 and his urine albumin creatinine ratio is 42 mg/mmol. He reports feeling well and adhering to the aspirin and atorvastatin prescribed to him last year. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home and provides a week's worth of readings, which indicate an average blood pressure of 143/95 mmHg.

      What recommendations would you make for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      For patients with chronic kidney disease, the urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) is an important measure of protein loss in the urine. If the ACR is 30 or more, the first line of treatment should be an ACE inhibitor, as it can reduce proteinuria and provide renal protection beyond its use as an antihypertensive. However, if the ACR is less than 30, current NICE guidelines on hypertension should be followed for treatment.

      In the case of this patient, an ACE inhibitor should be considered as the first line of treatment since their ACR is greater than 30. Thiazide-like diuretics are a suitable alternative to calcium channel blockers for non-diabetic patients with hypertension and can be used as a second line option. Beta blockers are not a first line option for blood pressure control in non-diabetic patients and are only recommended as a step 4 treatment for hypertension.

      If there is doubt about the validity of the patient’s home readings or if they prefer lifestyle management, monitoring without medication changes may be a viable option. However, tight blood pressure control is essential to slow the rate of deterioration of chronic kidney disease and reduce cardiovascular risk.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

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  • Question 32 - A 7-month-old girl presents with a fever (38 oC) for 48 hours and...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old girl presents with a fever (38 oC) for 48 hours and occasional vomiting. A urine sample was sent to the laboratory and you receive the following result:
      White cells
      > 100 cells per µl
      Red blood cells
      > 100 cells per µl
      Organisms
      3+
      Epithelial cells
      1+
      Culture
      Escherichia coli> 108
      Which of the following would be the single most appropriate initial management for this child?

      Your Answer: Refer immediately for an urgent ultrasound scan of the kidneys

      Correct Answer: Start antibiotics immediately

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Urine Test Results in Children with Suspected Urinary Tract Infection

      Interpretation of urine test results in children with suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) is crucial in determining the appropriate course of treatment. A positive result for bacteriuria and fever of 38oC or higher suggests a typical bacterial infection, which may progress to an upper UTI. In such cases, referral to a paediatric specialist is recommended. However, if there are no indications of an atypical infection or serious illness, treatment with an antibiotic showing a low resistance pattern is reasonable.

      It is important to note that routine prophylaxis with antibiotics after a first infection is not necessary, nor is imaging required if the child responds to treatment within 48 hours. However, imaging is necessary during and after atypical infections and after recurrent infections for a child of this age. Therefore, careful interpretation of urine test results and appropriate follow-up measures are essential in managing UTIs in children.

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  • Question 33 - A 29-year-old woman who is 38+6 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 38+6 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She denies experiencing any vaginal bleeding or discharge and reports no contractions. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis reveals the presence of nitrates and 3+ leucocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.

      What is the next best course of action in primary care?

      Your Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral nitrofurantoin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure

      Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure

      Explanation:

      When treating a suspected urinary tract infection in pregnant women, it is important to follow NICE CKS guidance. This includes sending urine for culture and sensitivity before and after treatment, and starting treatment before awaiting culture results. Local antibiotic prescribing guidelines should be followed, but nitrofurantoin should be avoided at term due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. Cefalexin is a safe alternative. The recommended course of antibiotics is seven days.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 34 - A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic with his partner seeking evaluation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic with his partner seeking evaluation for infertility. He gives a specimen that shows azoospermia. He has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Partial retrograde ejaculation

      Correct Answer: Varicocoele

      Explanation:

      Retrograde Ejaculation as a Cause of Infertility

      Retrograde ejaculation is a condition that can lead to infertility in men. It may occur after surgery for benign prostatic hyperplasia or due to chronic urethral scarring caused by recurrent infections. In retrograde ejaculation, semen is redirected to the bladder instead of being expelled through the penis during ejaculation. This can make it difficult or impossible for sperm to reach the female reproductive system and fertilize an egg, leading to infertility. It is important to note that there are no other known causes of infertility in this case, based on the patient’s history and examination findings.

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  • Question 35 - You see a 70-year-old patient with diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (CKD)....

    Incorrect

    • You see a 70-year-old patient with diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). He had an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) 2 months ago for which he had a stent. He is having his annual review when he mentions that he has suffered from erectile dysfunction for the last 2 years. He says that it came on gradually and that he now never has erections anymore, in any situation. He has been married for 45 years and this is having an effect on his relationship with his wife.

      His blood pressure today is 135/85 mmHg. Recent blood tests reveal that his blood glucose levels are well controlled on oral medications and his CKD is stable. He takes regular exercise.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice only

      Correct Answer: A vacuum erection device along with lifestyle advice

      Explanation:

      The NICE clinical knowledge summary (CKS) guidelines recommend phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitors, such as sildenafil and tadalafil, as the first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction (ED) unless there are contraindications. However, those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors may benefit from vacuum erection devices, which are recommended as the first-line treatment for well-informed older men with infrequent sexual intercourse and comorbidity requiring non-invasive, drug-free management of ED. Lifestyle changes and risk factor modification should also be considered, but this patient already has good control of his risk factors and regularly exercises. Intracavernous injections may be a second-line option for men with pelvic trauma or spinal cord injury. Vasculogenic causes, such as cardiovascular disease, are the most common organic cause of ED, and lifestyle changes and drug treatment can be effective in managing this condition.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 36 - Karen, a 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes, visits her practice diabetic nurse...

    Correct

    • Karen, a 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes, visits her practice diabetic nurse for her annual diabetes review. The nurse informs her that her HbA1c has increased since her last visit. Karen's results are as follows:

      HbA1c 7.9% (63 mmol/mol)

      Karen assures the nurse that she has been taking all her medications as prescribed, which include metformin 1g twice daily, gliclazide 160 mg twice daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg once daily.

      The nurse suggests that gliclazide may not be effective in controlling her hyperglycaemia at this point and recommends that Karen switch to empagliflozin. Karen agrees but asks about the common side effects of the new medication.

      What are the potential side effects of empagliflozin that should be discussed with Karen?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of urinary tract infections

      Explanation:

      Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, have been linked to an increased risk of urinary tract infections, which is a common side effect that should be discussed with patients, especially females. While hypoglycemia is possible with SGLT2 inhibitors, it is typically only a concern when taken in combination with insulin or sulfonylurea, and may not require stopping other medications. Clinical studies have not shown any increase in renal calculi, and some studies suggest that SGLT2 inhibitors may even be renoprotective. Additionally, SGLT2 inhibitors do not cause weight gain and may even lead to weight loss. However, it is important to note that these medications can rarely cause serious conditions such as Fournier’s gangrene and atypical ketoacidosis, and patients should be warned about the symptoms of these conditions and advised to seek prompt medical attention if necessary.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

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  • Question 37 - A 45-year-old woman with stage 3a chronic kidney disease visits her primary care...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with stage 3a chronic kidney disease visits her primary care physician to receive the results of her yearly eGFR test. The following are her eGFR results from the past three years:

      Date 10/31/17 10/31/18 10/31/19
      eGFR (ml/min/1.73m²) 59 51 35

      What would be the most suitable course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Referral to nephrologist

      Explanation:

      CKD is diagnosed when there is evidence of kidney damage or a decrease in kidney function for at least three months. This can be determined by a persistent eGFR of less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 or a change in GFR category or sustained decrease in eGFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 or more within 12 months. Additionally, a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless proteinuria is known to be associated with diabetes mellitus and is managed appropriately, or a urinary ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more together with persistent haematuria, after exclusion of a urinary tract infection (UTI), can also indicate CKD. Other indications include hypertension that remains uncontrolled despite the use of at least four antihypertensive drugs at therapeutic doses, a suspected or confirmed rare or genetic cause of CKD, such as polycystic kidney disease, suspected renal artery stenosis, or a suspected complication of CKD.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

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  • Question 38 - A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.

    Whilst examining himself he noticed...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.

      Whilst examining himself he noticed that he had a hard nodule in the shaft of his penis and has been concerned. His erectile function is normal but he is aware of some discomfort in his penis during intercourse.

      On examination you note that he has a firm fibrous nodule in the mid-shaft of his penis with no other abnormalities noted.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Peyronie’s Disease: A Common Condition with Asymptomatic Presentation

      This otherwise healthy man has recently discovered a nodule in the middle of his penis shaft, with no other abnormalities. This finding is suggestive of Peyronie’s disease, a common condition that affects approximately 1-3% of the population. Interestingly, many individuals with Peyronie’s disease are initially unaware of any deviation in their penis, as the condition is often asymptomatic.

      Despite its asymptomatic presentation, Peyronie’s disease can be associated with erectile dysfunction or painful intercourse due to curvature.

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  • Question 39 - A 53-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with a swollen, tender, and...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with a swollen, tender, and red glans penis that he has been experiencing for the past five days. He is unable to retract his foreskin fully and is experiencing pain while urinating. He has no history of sexual activity and has been treated for balanitis three times in the past year with saline baths and topical clotrimazole, despite testing negative for sexually transmitted and bacterial infections. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus.

      After treating the acute episode with saline baths and topical clotrimazole, what is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for circumcision

      Explanation:

      Recurrent balanitis can be effectively treated with circumcision.

      Balanitis, which is characterized by inflammation of the glans penis, can be caused by various factors such as sexually transmitted infections, dermatitis, bacterial infections, or fungal infections like Candida. In this case, the patient’s diabetes has made them susceptible to opportunistic fungal infections.

      For acute infections, treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and using saline baths. Topical treatments like hydrocortisone, clotrimazole, miconazole, or nystatin cream may also be recommended depending on the cause of the infection.

      However, if the balanitis keeps recurrent, circumcision is the most appropriate treatment option. This procedure can effectively prevent the condition from happening again.

      Understanding Circumcision

      Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.

      The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.

      Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.

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  • Question 40 - A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts you over the phone, requesting antibiotics for a suspected UTI. She complains of dysuria and frequency for the past two days and had a confirmed UTI with the same symptoms last year. As per GMC guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Antibiotics should not be prescribed during a telephone consultation

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics can be prescribed, with normal safeguards and advice

      Explanation:

      GMC Guidelines for Prescribing and Managing Medicines and Devices

      Prescribing and managing medicines and devices is a crucial aspect of a doctor’s role. The General Medical Council (GMC) has published guidelines for good practice in prescribing medicines, which were last updated in 2008. The principles of prescribing include only prescribing drugs to meet the identified needs of patients and avoiding treating oneself or those close to them. Doctors with full registration may prescribe all medicines except those in Schedule 1 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.

      To ensure that doctors prescribe in patients’ best interests, the guidelines recommend keeping up to date with the British National Formulary (BNF), National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), and Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN). Doctors should also report adverse reactions to medicines to the Committee on the Safety of Medicines through the Yellow Card Scheme. If a nurse or other healthcare professional without prescribing rights recommends a treatment, the doctor must ensure that the prescription is appropriate for the patient and that the professional is competent to have recommended it.

      The guidelines also address doctors’ interests in pharmacies, emphasizing the importance of ensuring that patients have access to information about any financial or commercial interests the doctor or their employer may have in a pharmacy. When it comes to prescribing controlled drugs for oneself or someone close, doctors should avoid doing so whenever possible and should be registered with a GP outside their family. If no other person with the legal right to prescribe is available, doctors may prescribe a controlled drug only if it is immediately necessary to save a life, avoid serious deterioration in the patient’s health, or alleviate otherwise uncontrollable pain.

      Finally, the guidelines provide recommendations for remote prescribing via telephone, email, fax, video link, or a website. While this is supported, doctors must give an explanation of the processes involved in remote consultations and provide their name and GMC number to the patient if they are not providing continuing care. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they prescribe and manage medicines and devices in the best interests of their patients.

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  • Question 41 - A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating from his left flank down to his groin. The pain is severe, comes in waves and the patient looks visibly restless. He has not taken any analgesia.
      He has a past medical history of hypertension and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate initial analgesia to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: IV paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Appropriate Analgesia for a Patient with Renal/Ureteric Colic

      When treating a patient with renal or ureteric colic, it is important to consider their medical history and current condition before prescribing analgesia. In this case, the patient has severe kidney disease, which rules out the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they can cause further harm to the kidneys.

      The most appropriate initial analgesia for this patient is IV paracetamol. While opioids such as IV morphine can be considered, they should be reserved as a third-line option. Oral codeine may also be used, but only after NSAIDs and IV paracetamol have been ruled out.

      It is important to note that NSAIDs such as oral naproxen and per rectal diclofenac are typically the first-line analgesics for renal/ureteric colic. However, they are contraindicated in this patient due to their severe kidney disease.

      In summary, when choosing the appropriate analgesia for a patient with renal/ureteric colic, it is crucial to consider their medical history and current condition. In this case, IV paracetamol is the most appropriate initial option due to the patient’s severe kidney disease.

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  • Question 42 - What is an accurate epidemiological statement about prostate cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an accurate epidemiological statement about prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer is responsible for 0.5% of cancer deaths in men

      Correct Answer: Lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 250 men

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer in England and Wales

      Approximately 10,000 men die of prostate cancer each year in England and Wales, making it the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men after lung cancer. The lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 14 men. However, one of the difficulties with investigating and diagnosing prostate cancer in older men is that as we age, most men have detectable prostate cancer. But, three-quarters of them will grow older and die of something else, and the prostate cancer itself will not impact their life expectancy.

      The five-year survival rate from prostate cancer in the UK is 81%, which is relatively high compared to other types of cancer. However, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of the symptoms of prostate cancer and to undergo regular screenings, especially if they are at higher risk due to factors such as age, family history, or ethnicity. By detecting prostate cancer early, men can receive timely treatment and improve their chances of survival.

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  • Question 43 - A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites+
      leucocytes++
      blood++

      She has had four urinary tract infections in the last six months, with each episode confirmed by laboratory testing. On each occasion, urine dipstick testing has shown microscopic blood as well as nitrite and leucocyte positivity. After treatment with antibiotics, the infections have settled, but on the last occasion, she experienced visible haematuria.

      The patient asks if there is anything she can do to prevent these infections. She had only one previous UTI about six years ago. What is the best approach in this case?

      Your Answer: Refer her to a urologist as urgent suspected cancer at this point in time

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Recurrent UTI with Non-Visible Haematuria

      Recurrent UTI is defined as three or more episodes in a year. In the case of a woman with her fourth episode in the last six months, it is important to investigate further. If visible or non-visible haematuria is present on dipstick testing when a UTI is suspected, a urine sample should be sent to the laboratory for mc+s testing in all patients. If infection is confirmed, a urine sample should be dipstick tested for blood after antibiotic treatment has been completed. If haematuria persists, further investigation is warranted.

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent referral is necessary for bladder cancer if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. For renal cancer, urgent referral is necessary if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection.

      In the case of a woman with recurrent UTIs associated with non-visible haematuria each time, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer.

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  • Question 44 - You are working in a GP surgery when you have been asked to...

    Correct

    • You are working in a GP surgery when you have been asked to review a urine result of a 26-year-old woman who is currently 12 weeks pregnant. The urine sample was collected during her recent appointment with her midwife and the result has returned showing the presence of Escherichia coli. You speak to the patient on the phone to discuss the results and learn that she is well with no history of urinary symptom, abdominal pain or temperature.

      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Antibiotic prescription for 7 days

      Explanation:

      The immediate treatment of antibiotics is recommended for pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria. This condition is prevalent and poses a risk for pyelonephritis, premature delivery, and low birth weight, according to NICE guidelines. Treatment for seven days is currently advised. Escherichia coli, which can cause urinary tract infections and gastroenteritis, is a pathogenic organism.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 45 - You receive a fax through from urology. One of your patients in their...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a fax through from urology. One of your patients in their 50s with a raised PSA recently underwent a prostatic biopsy. The report reads as follows:

      Adenocarcinoma prostate, Gleason 3+4

      Which one of the following statements regarding the Gleason score is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Used to predict prognosis in patients with prostatic cancer

      Correct Answer: The lower the Gleason score the worse the prognosis

      Explanation:

      Prognosis of Prostate Cancer Based on Gleason Score

      Prostate cancer prognosis can be predicted using the Gleason score, which is determined through histology following a hollow needle biopsy. The Gleason score is based on the glandular architecture seen on the biopsy and is calculated by adding the most prevalent and second most prevalent patterns observed. This results in a Gleason grade ranging from 1 to 5, which is then added together to obtain a Gleason score ranging from 2 to 10. The higher the Gleason score, the worse the prognosis for the patient. Therefore, the Gleason score is an important factor in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients with prostate cancer.

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  • Question 46 - A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of haematospermia over the past few weeks. He denies any urinary symptoms or pain and reports no other unusual bleeding. He is generally healthy and not on any regular medications.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Prostatitis

      Correct Answer: Chlamydial infection

      Explanation:

      Causes of Haematospermia in a Young Adult

      Haematospermia, the presence of blood in semen, can be a distressing symptom for men. In those under 40 years of age, infections are the most common cause, with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as chlamydia being a likely culprit, especially in the absence of urinary symptoms. Haemophilia A, a genetic disorder that affects blood clotting, is unlikely to present with haematospermia as the first symptom, especially in a young adult. Malignant hypertension, a rare and severe form of high blood pressure, can cause end-organ damage but is an unusual cause of haematospermia. Prostate cancer, which is more common in older men, can also cause haematospermia, but is usually associated with urinary symptoms and erectile dysfunction. Prostatitis, an inflammation of the prostate gland, can cause haematospermia and other symptoms such as pain and fever, but is less common than UTIs or STIs. A thorough medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations can help identify the underlying cause of haematospermia and guide treatment.

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  • Question 47 - A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of...

    Correct

    • A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of the following patients?

      Your Answer: A 62-year-old man with unexplained lower back pain

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men experiencing unexplained symptoms such as erectile dysfunction, haematuria, lower back pain, bone pain, and weight loss (especially in the elderly) should be offered a PR and PSA test. However, before conducting a PSA test, a urine dipstick/MSU should be done to rule out any infection. If a UTI is treated, PSA testing should be avoided for at least a month.

      If the age-specific PSA is high or increasing, even in asymptomatic patients with a normal PR examination, an urgent referral should be made. In cases where the PSA is at the upper limit of normal in asymptomatic patients, a repeat PSA should be conducted after 1-3 months. If the PSA is increasing, an urgent referral should be made. These guidelines are outlined in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer.

      Understanding Prostate Cancer: Features and Risk Factors

      Prostate cancer is a prevalent type of cancer among adult males in the UK, and it is the second leading cause of cancer-related deaths in men, next to lung cancer. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing prostate cancer, including increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease. In fact, around 5-10% of cases have a strong family history.

      Localised prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, which means that it doesn’t show any symptoms. This is because the cancer cells tend to develop in the periphery of the prostate, which doesn’t cause obstructive symptoms early on. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, hesitancy, urinary retention, haematuria, haematospermia, pain in the back, perineal or testicular area, and an asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus during a digital rectal examination.

      Understanding the features and risk factors of prostate cancer is crucial in detecting and treating the disease early on. In some cases, prostate cancer may metastasize or spread to other parts of the body, such as the bones. A bone scan using technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates can detect multiple osteoblastic metastasis, which is a common finding in patients with metastatic prostate cancer.

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  • Question 48 - You are seeing a 60-year-old woman in your afternoon clinic for her annual...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old woman in your afternoon clinic for her annual review. She feels well, although over the last 6 months she has been more tired than usual. She puts this down to starting a new job with increased hours.

      Her past medical history includes hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine 5mg once a day. She was diagnosed with mild chronic kidney disease (CKD) last year. She is a non-smoker and drinks 5-10 units of alcohol a week.

      Her blood pressure today is 130/82 mmHg. A respiratory and cardiovascular examination are both normal. A urine dip is also normal.

      Her blood results today show an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 57 mL/min/1.73 m2. An early morning albumin: creatinine ratio is 25 mg/mmol. The rest of her blood test results are as follows:


      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9mmol/l
      Urea 6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 µmol/l

      Looking back through her notes, her eGFR was 77 mL/min/1.73 m2 12 months ago and >90 mL/min/1.73 m2 2 years ago.

      What would be a correct next step for this woman?

      Your Answer: Nephrology referral

      Explanation:

      Referral to a nephrologist is necessary if there is a sustained decrease in eGFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 or more within 12 months. However, in the case of this patient with a normal urine dip, a urology referral would not be necessary. According to NICE guidelines, treatment for hypertension should be followed if the patient has an ACR of <30 mg/mmol, and ACE-i can be started in non-diabetic patients. Aspirin is not recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

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  • Question 49 - A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He has been lethargic and anorexic. He describes his urine is frothy. Dipstick testing of urine reveals a trace of blood but is strongly positive for protein. His blood pressure is 140/85. There are no other abnormal physical signs. He takes no medication apart from ibuprofen for intermittent backache.
      Select the single most likely cause for this.

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome: Causes and Mechanisms

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. The primary causes of nephrotic syndrome include minimal-change nephropathy, focal glomerulosclerosis, and membranous nephropathy, while secondary causes include systemic diseases and drugs. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults.

      The glomerular structural changes that may cause proteinuria involve damage to the endothelial surface, the glomerular basement membrane, or the podocytes. In membranous glomerulonephritis, immune complexes localize between the outer aspects of the basement membrane and the podocytes.

      If left untreated, nephrotic syndrome can progress to end-stage renal failure in 30-50% of patients. However, some patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy may experience complete or partial spontaneous remission of nephrotic syndrome with stable renal function.

      It is important to differentiate nephrotic syndrome from other kidney conditions such as diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, acute tubular necrosis, and acute interstitial nephritis. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of nephrotic syndrome can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 50 - A 68-year-old woman is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease.
    Which complication is most...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease.
      Which complication is most likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Nausea and headache

      Explanation:

      Complications of Dialysis: Understanding the Risks and Symptoms

      Dialysis is a life-saving treatment for patients with end-stage renal disease, but it is not without its risks and complications. One of the most common side effects of removing too much fluid or removing it too rapidly is hypotension, fatigue, chest pains, leg cramps, nausea, and headaches. These symptoms can persist after treatment and are sometimes referred to as the dialysis hangover or dialysis washout.

      Another rare but serious neurological complication is dialysis disequilibrium syndrome, which is characterized by weakness, dizziness, headache, and mental status changes. Hypertension, hyperkalemia, infection, amyloidosis, and malnutrition are other potential complications.

      Contrary to popular belief, hyperkalemia is more commonly seen in dialysis patients than hypokalemia. Patients who undergo hemodialysis are also at an increased risk of contracting hepatitis B, but vaccination has significantly reduced the incidence of this complication.

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism and associated osteodystrophy have been major causes of morbidity in long-term dialysis patients, but better management of calcium and phosphorus metabolism and the availability of new drugs have improved outcomes. Malnutrition and weight loss are more commonly seen than weight gain, which may be due to loss of amino acids and peptides in the dialysate, sodium restriction, and dialysis-induced hypercatabolism.

      In conclusion, understanding the risks and symptoms of dialysis complications is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to ensure the best possible outcomes.

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