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  • Question 1 - The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the...

    Incorrect

    • The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the postganglionic sympathetic fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Spinal cord (T1–L2)

      Correct Answer: Superior cervical ganglion

      Explanation:

      The postganglionic sympathetic axons are derived from the superior cervical ganglion and innervate the eye and lacrimal gland allowing for vasoconstriction of the iris and sclera, pupillary dilation, widening of the palpebral fissure, and a reduction in tear production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 41 year old lecturer is admitted with abdominal pain. He has suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old lecturer is admitted with abdominal pain. He has suffered from repeated episodes of this colicky right upper quadrant pain. On examination, he has a fever with right upper quadrant peritonism. His blood tests show a white cell count of 22. An abdominal ultrasound scan shows multiple gallstones in a thick walled gallbladder, the bile duct measures 4mm. Tests show that his liver function is normal. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Administration of broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics and perform a delayed laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 3 months

      Correct Answer: Undertake a laparoscopic cholecystectomy

      Explanation:

      This individual has acute cholecystitis. This is demonstrated by well-localized pain in the right upper quadrant, usually with rebound and guarding; frequent presence of fever and peritonism. Ultrasonography is the procedure of choice in suspected gallbladder or biliary disease. A bile duct measuring 4mm is usually normal.
      Once gallstones become symptomatic, definitive surgical intervention with cholecystectomy is usually indicated (typically, laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the first-line therapy at centres with experience in this procedure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30 year old welder presents to his family doctor with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old welder presents to his family doctor with symptoms of chronic ear discharge and a left-sided facial nerve palsy. On examination, he has foul smelling fluid draining from his left ear and a complete left-sided facial nerve palsy. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      A cholesteatoma consists of squamous epithelium that is trapped within the skull base and that can erode and destroy important structures within the temporal bone. They often become infected and can result in chronically draining ears. Treatment almost always consists of surgical removal. The majority (98%) of people with cholesteatoma have ear discharge or conductive hearing loss or both in the affected ear.

      Other more common conditions (e.g. otitis externa) may also present with these symptoms, but cholesteatoma is much more serious and should not be overlooked. If a patient presents to a doctor with ear discharge and hearing loss, the doctor should consider cholesteatoma until the disease is definitely excluded.

      Other less common symptoms (all less than 15%) of cholesteatoma may include pain, balance disruption, tinnitus, earache, headaches and bleeding from the ear. There can also be facial nerve weakness. Balance symptoms in the presence of a cholesteatoma raise the possibility that the cholesteatoma is eroding the balance organs in the inner ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old woman has had persistent diarrhoea for a week. A stool test...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has had persistent diarrhoea for a week. A stool test reveals an infection by Clostridium difficile. Which of the following antibiotics could be used to treat the infection?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Three antibiotics are effective against Clostridium difficile:
      Metronidazole 500 mg orally three times daily is the drug of choice, because of superior tolerability, lower price and comparable efficacy.
      Oral vancomycin 125 mg four times daily is second-line therapy in particular cases of relapse or where the infection is unresponsive to metronidazole treatment.
      Thirdly, the use of linezolid might also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A brain tumour causing blockage of the hypophyseal portal system is likely to...

    Correct

    • A brain tumour causing blockage of the hypophyseal portal system is likely to result in an increased secretion of which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The hypophyseal portal system links the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. With the help of this system, the anterior pituitary receives releasing and inhibitory hormones from the hypothalamus and regulates the action of other endocrine glands. One of the inhibitory hormones carried by this system is the prolactin-inhibitory hormone. In the absence of this hormone which might occur in case of a blockage of the system, prolactin secretion increases to about three times normal levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other...

    Correct

    • A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other drugs. What is the mechanism of action of tazobactam?

      Your Answer: Inhibits beta-lactamase

      Explanation:

      Tazobactam is a compound which inhibits the action of bacterial beta-lactamases. It is added to the extended-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic piperacillin to broaden the spectrum of piperacillin by making it effective against organisms that express beta-lactamase and would normally degrade piperacillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to: ...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to:

      Your Answer: Decreased level of angiotensin II

      Correct Answer: Increased level of angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Thirst is the basic need or instinct to drink. It arises from a lack of fluids and/or an increase in the concentration of certain osmolites such as salt. If the water volume of the body falls below a certain threshold or the osmolite concentration becomes too high, the brain signals thirst. Excessive thirst, known as polydipsia, along with excessive urination, known as polyuria, may be an indication of diabetes. Angiotensin II is a hormone that is a powerful dipsogen (i.e. it stimulates thirst) that acts via the subfornical organ. It increases secretion of ADH in the posterior pituitary and secretion of ACTH in the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the role of factor VII in coagulation? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of factor VII in coagulation?

      Your Answer: Initiates the process of coagulation in conjunction with tissue factor

      Explanation:

      The main role of factor VII is to initiate the process of coagulation along with tissue factor (TF). TF is found in the blood vessels and is not normally exposed to the bloodstream. When a vessel is injured tissue factor is exposed to blood and circulating factor VII. Factor VII is converted to VIIa by TF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site....

    Correct

    • A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site. The patient is conscious but complains of inability to feel his legs. A neurological examination reveals that he has no cutaneous sensation from his umbilicus to his toes. What is the likely level of the spinal cord that is injured?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus has a relatively consistent position in humans and thus serves as an important land mark. The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is supplied by the tenth thoracic spinal nerve (T10 dermatome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A biopsy is performed on a 67-year-old-man with testicular seminoma; it reveals that...

    Correct

    • A biopsy is performed on a 67-year-old-man with testicular seminoma; it reveals that the tumour affects the tunica vaginalis. The tumour stage in this case is:

      Your Answer: T2

      Explanation:

      The primary tumour staging for testicular seminoma is as follows, according to AJCC guidelines:
      Tis: intratubular germ cell neoplasia (carcinoma in situ)
      T1: tumour limited to testis/epididymis without vascular or lymphatic invasion; the tumour can invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis
      T2: tumour limited to testis/epididymis with vascular or lymphatic invasion or tumour extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis
      T3: tumour invading the spermatic cord, with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion
      T4: tumour invading the scrotum, with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.
      According to these guidelines, the tumour in this case has a T2 stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 56 year old man, on his 8th day following a left hemicolectomy,...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old man, on his 8th day following a left hemicolectomy, complains of swinging pyrexia over the past 48 hours. Clinical examination is significant for an ileus. Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Abdominal CT scan with IV contrast

      Explanation:

      Abdominal CT with IV contrast would be carried out in this case and this presentation has most likely resulted due to an anastomotic leak with abscess formation which is a common complication following surgery. This can occur in any of the branches and anticipating the likely complication and appropriate avoidance will minimize their occurrence. Detailed imaging is required to allow accurate diagnosis and further planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which...

    Incorrect

    • Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Testis

      Correct Answer: Sacrococcygeal area

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which tumour marker is associated with medullary carcinoma of thyroid? ...

    Correct

    • Which tumour marker is associated with medullary carcinoma of thyroid?

      Your Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      Medullary carcinoma of thyroid accounts for 3% of thyroid cancers. It arises from the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid gland that produce calcitonin. It is often familial and caused by mutation of ret proto-oncogene, but can occasionally be sporadic. The familial cases can also occur as part of MEN syndromes IIA and IIB. The high calcitonin leads to down-regulation of the receptors, which does not affect the calcium levels significantly. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid shows characteristic amyloid deposits that stain positively with Congo red. The initial presentation consists of an asymptomatic thyroid nodule. Many cases are diagnosed due to routine screening of relatives of patients with MEN IIA and IIB. Medullary carcinoma can also cause ectopic production of other hormones/peptides such as adrenocorticotrophic hormone, vasoactive intestinal polypeptide, kallikreins and serotonin.
      Metastasis from medullary carcinoma spread via the lymphatics to cervical and mediastinal nodes, and can also affect the liver, lungs and bone. Diagnosis is by raised serum calcitonin levels. A provocative test with calcium (15 mg/kg intravenously over 4 hours) also aids in diagnosis by leading to excessive secretion of calcitonin. X-ray might also show dense, conglomerate calcification.
      CA-125 is frequently elevated in ovarian carcinomas. CA 15-3 is often associated with breast carcinomas. Alpha-fetoprotein is seen raised in hepatomas and gonadal tumours. Elevated HCG is associated with normal pregnancies, gonadal tumours, and choriocarcinomas. Thyroglobulin is used for surveillance in papillary carcinoma of thyroid. CA 19-9 is used in the management of pancreatic cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30 year old female chef is taken to the hospital after complaining...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female chef is taken to the hospital after complaining of abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa with fever and diarrhoea. She is taken to the theatre for an appendicectomy but her appendix appears normal. However, her terminal ileum appears thickened and engorged. Which of the following has most likely caused her infection?

      Your Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica

      Explanation:

      Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica

      Yersinia enterocolitica (see the image below) is a bacterial species in the family Enterobacteriaceae that most often causes enterocolitis, acute diarrhoea, terminal ileitis, mesenteric lymphadenitis, and pseudo appendicitis but, if it spreads systemically, can also result in fatal sepsis. Symptoms of Y enterocolitica infection typically include the following:

      Diarrhoea – The most common clinical manifestation of this infection; diarrhoea may be bloody in severe cases

      Low-grade fever

      Abdominal pain – May localize to the right lower quadrant

      Vomiting – Present in approximately 15-40% of cases

      Mesenteric adenitis, mesenteric ileitis, and acute pseudo appendicitis
      These manifestations are characterized by the following symptoms (although nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and aphthous ulcers of the mouth can also occur):

      Fever

      Abdominal pain

      Tenderness of the right lower quadrant

      Leucocytosis

      Pseudo appendicitis syndrome is more common in older children and young adults. Patients with Y enterocolitica infection often undergo appendectomy; several Scandinavian studies suggested a prevalence rate of 3.8-5.6% for infection with Y enterocolitica in patients with suspected appendicitis.

      Analysis of several common-source outbreaks in the United States found that 10% of 444 patients with symptomatic, undiagnosed Y enterocolitica infection underwent laparotomy for suspected appendicitis.

      Human clinical Y enterocolitica infections ensue after ingestion of the microorganisms in contaminated food or water or by direct inoculation through blood transfusion.

      Y enterocolitica is potentially transmitted by contaminated unpasteurized milk and milk products, raw pork, tofu, meats, oysters, and fish. Outbreaks have been associated with raw vegetables; the surface of vegetables can become contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms through contact with soil, irrigation water, fertilizers, equipment, humans, and animals.

      Pasteurized milk and dairy products can also cause outbreaks because Yersinia can proliferate at refrigerated temperatures.

      Animal reservoirs of Y enterocolitica include swine (principle reservoir), dogs, cats, cows, sheep, goats, rodents, foxes, porcupines, and birds.

      Reports of person-to-person spread are conflicting and are generally not observed in large outbreaks. Transmission via blood products has occurred, however, and infection can be transmitted from mother to new-born infant. Faecal-oral transmission among humans has not been proven.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 11 month old baby boy is taken to the clinic with a...

    Incorrect

    • An 11 month old baby boy is taken to the clinic with a history of a right groin swelling. A photograph on the father's mobile phone, shows what looks like an inguinal hernia. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake an open inguinal hernia repair with mesh

      Correct Answer: Undertake an open inguinal herniotomy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Undertake an open inguinal herniotomy

      Inguinal hernia is a type of ventral hernia that occurs when an intra-abdominal structure, such as bowel or omentum, protrudes through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias do not spontaneously heal and must be surgically repaired because of the ever-present risk of incarceration. Generally, a surgical consultation should be made at the time of diagnosis, and repair (on an elective basis) should be performed very soon after the diagnosis is confirmed.

      The infant or child with an inguinal hernia generally presents with an obvious bulge at the internal or external ring or within the scrotum. The parents typically provide the history of a visible swelling or bulge, commonly intermittent, in the inguinoscrotal region in boys and inguinolabial region in girls. The swelling may or may not be associated with any pain or discomfort.

      Open herniotomy is its standard treatment against which all alternative modalities of treatment are evaluated. It is credited with being easy to perform, having a high success rate, and low rate of complications.
      The use of prosthetic mesh in these patients is rare, however not uncalled for. Laparoscopic inguinal herniotomy is significantly associated with longer operative time for unilateral cases and a reduction in metachronous hernia development when compared to open inguinal herniotomy. There was a trend towards higher recurrence rate for laparoscopic repairs and shorter operative time for bilateral cases. A well conducted randomized controlled trial is warranted to compare both approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 11 month old baby develops periumbilical abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 11 month old baby develops periumbilical abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea after having a sore throat and fever for a few days. He presents to the A&E department and an ultrasound is done which shows a 'target sign' on the right side of the abdomen. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake urgent fluoroscopic reduction

      Correct Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics.

      Intussusception is a condition in which one segment of intestine telescopes inside of another, causing an intestinal obstruction (blockage). Although intussusception can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract, it usually occurs at the junction of the small and large intestines. The obstruction can cause swelling and inflammation that can lead to intestinal injury. The patient with intussusception is usually an infant, often one who has had an upper respiratory infection, who presents with the following symptoms:

      Vomiting: Initially, vomiting is nonbilious and reflexive, but when the intestinal obstruction occurs, vomiting becomes bilious

      Abdominal pain: Pain in intussusception is colicky, severe, and intermittent

      Passage of blood and mucus: Parents report the passage of stools, by affected children, that look like currant jelly; this is a mixture of mucus, sloughed mucosa, and shed blood; diarrhoea can also be an early sign of intussusception

      Lethargy: This can be the sole presenting symptom of intussusception, which makes the condition’s diagnosis challenging

      Palpable abdominal mass

      Diagnosis:
      Ultrasonography: Hallmarks of ultrasonography include the target and pseudo kidney signs.

      For all children, start intravenous fluid resuscitation and nasogastric decompression as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A young women following a road traffic accident suffered heavy blood loss and developed subsequent anaemia. Which of the following is a consequence of this?

      Your Answer: A low cardiac output

      Correct Answer: A high reticulocyte count

      Explanation:

      Anaemia refers to a decrease in the circulating levels of haemoglobin in the blood resulting in a reduced ability of the body to transport oxygen effectively. Anaemia from blood loss results in the body further compensating by releasing stored RBCs and immature RBCs from the bone marrow. Thus resulting in a high reticulocyte count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery: ...

    Incorrect

    • The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery:

      Your Answer: Radial

      Correct Answer: Brachial

      Explanation:

      The brachial artery gives rise to a small branch at the middle of the arm, which is the superior collateral artery. It descends accompanied by the ulnar nerve and anastomoses with the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic accident. He complains of lower abdominal pain. On examination, a fracture of the pelvis along with distended, tender bladder is observed. What should be the best step of management for distended bladder?

      Your Answer: 10 Ch Foley urethral catheter

      Correct Answer: Suprapubic catheter

      Explanation:

      This patient has possible urethral injury based on the history. Urethral catheterisation is contraindicated in this situation.

      Up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries. Urethral injury occurs mainly in males. It has two types.

      1.Bulbar rupture:
      a. most common
      b. mostly associated with straddle-type injury, e.g. from bicycles
      c. presentation with a triad of urinary retention, perineal haematoma, and blood at the meatus

      2. Membranous rupture:
      a. can be extra- or intraperitoneal
      b. occurs commonly due to pelvic fracture
      c. symptomology may include penile or perineal oedema/haematoma
      d. prostate displaced upwards (high-riding prostate)

      Ascending urethrogram is carried out in patients of suspected urethral injury. Suprapubic catheter is surgically placed and is indicated in:
      1. External genitalia injuries (i.e. the penis and the scrotum)
      2. Injury to the urethra caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure–enhancing devices, and mutilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old...

    Correct

    • During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old man, the surgeon asked the registrar to look at the medial inguinal fossa to identify the direct inguinal hernia. To do so, she would have to look at the area that is between the:

      Your Answer: Medial umbilical ligament and inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      The medial umbilical fold is made by the medial umbilical ligament-which is the obliterated portion of the umbilical artery, while the lateral umbilical fold is a fold of peritoneum over the inferior epigastric vessels. The median umbilical fold is a midline structure made by the median umbilical ligament i.e. the obliterated urachus. The medial inguinal fossa is the space on the inner abdominal wall between the medial umbilical fold and the lateral umbilical fold. It is place in the abdominal wall where there is an area of weak fascia i.e. the inguinal triangle through which direct inguinal hernias break through. The lateral inguinal fossa on the other hand is a space lateral to the lateral umbilical fold. Indirect inguinal hernias push through this space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      33.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (2/4) 50%
Basic Sciences (7/13) 54%
Generic Surgical Topics (1/5) 20%
Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery (0/1) 0%
Head And Neck Surgery (1/1) 100%
Pathology (3/5) 60%
Physiology (2/4) 50%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (2/2) 100%
Surgical Technique And Technology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Microbiology (1/1) 100%
The Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (0/1) 0%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Passmed