-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing evacuation of a hydatidiform mole. She reports feeling well and has not experienced any significant issues since the procedure.
What blood test is the most effective in monitoring for the recurrence of trophoblastic disease?Your Answer: Beta-HCG
Explanation:Hydatidiform Mole and Trophoblastic Disease
A hydatidiform mole is a type of abnormal pregnancy that only generates placental tissue. However, approximately 10% of cases of hydatidiform mole can transform into malignant trophoblastic disease. To assess if there is any retained tissue or recurrence/malignant transformation, the best way is to measure the levels of HCG, which is primarily produced by the placenta. On the other hand, alpha-fetoprotein, CEA, and CA-125 are tumour markers associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, colonic carcinoma, and ovarian carcinoma, respectively. It is important to note that progesterone levels are not useful in determining the prognosis of trophoblastic disease. the characteristics and markers of hydatidiform mole and trophoblastic disease is crucial in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort and bloating that have been progressively worsening over the past few months. Upon examination, her GP discovered a complex left ovarian cyst. Which blood test would be the most useful in determining if the cyst is cancerous?
Your Answer: CA125
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Their Association with Different Cancers
Tumor markers are substances that are produced by cancer cells or by normal cells in response to cancer. These markers can be used to detect the presence of cancer, monitor the progress of treatment, and detect the recurrence of cancer. One such tumor marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian carcinoma. However, elevations in CA125 can also be seen in uterine cancer, pancreas, stomach, and colonic tumors. In some cases, benign ovarian tumors can also cause a rise in CA125 levels. If a patient has a CA125 level of over 200U/ml and an abnormal ultrasound scan, it is highly likely that they have ovarian carcinoma.
Other tumor markers include CA19-9, which is primarily associated with pancreatic tumors, beta-HCG, which is associated with germ cell tumors, alpha-fetoprotein, which is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen, which is associated with colonic carcinoma. While AFP and beta-HCG can rarely be secreted by ovarian tumors, it is important to check CA125 levels first, as they are much more frequently elevated. By monitoring tumor markers, doctors can detect cancer early and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Which autoantibody is correctly matched with its associated disease in the following list?
Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) and anti-myeloperoxidase (p-ANCA) antibody
Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
Explanation:Autoimmune Disorders and Associated Antibodies
Autoimmune disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body. These disorders are often associated with the presence of specific antibodies that can help diagnose and monitor the disease. Here are some examples:
Pernicious Anaemia and Anti-Intrinsic Factor Antibodies
Pernicious anaemia is a type of anaemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. It is associated with the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies, which bind to intrinsic factor and prevent the absorption of vitamin B12 in the gut.Primary Biliary Cholangitis and Anti-Jo-1 Antibodies
Primary biliary cholangitis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the liver. It is associated with the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies, but not anti-Jo-1 antibodies, which are associated with other autoimmune disorders like polymyositis and dermatomyositis.Myasthenia Gravis and Voltage-Gated Calcium Channel Antibodies
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. It is associated with the presence of anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies, but not anti-striated muscle antibodies, which are found in other autoimmune disorders.Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA) and Anti-Myeloperoxidase (p-ANCA) Antibody
GPA is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. It is associated with the presence of cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (c-ANCA), but not p-ANCA, which are found in other types of vasculitis.Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis and Thyroid-Stimulating Antibodies
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is associated with the presence of anti-thyroglobulin and anti-thyroperoxidase antibodies, which attack the thyroid gland and cause inflammation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after consuming 30 tablets of warfarin which belonged to her mother. She has diarrhoea but has no mucosal bleeding. She admits to previously attending a psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviour. She has no remarkable medical history. Her mother has a history of recurrent venous thrombosis for which she is taking warfarin.
What will the patient’s coagulation screen likely be?Your Answer: Decreased factor VIII levels
Correct Answer: Elevated prothrombin time, international normalised ratio, activated partial thromboplastin time and normal platelet counts
Explanation:Warfarin poisoning is characterized by elevated prothrombin time (PT), international normalized ratio (INR), and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), along with normal platelet counts. This is due to the drug’s ability to block the function of vitamin K epoxide reductase, leading to a depletion of the reduced form of vitamin K that serves as a cofactor for gamma carboxylation of vitamin-K-dependent coagulation factors. As a result, the vitamin-K-dependent factors cannot function properly, leading to elevated PT and INR, normal or elevated APTT, and normal platelet counts. Thrombocytopenia with normal PT, INR, and APTT can be caused by drugs like methotrexate and carboplatin isotretinoin, which induce direct myelosuppression. Decreased factor VIII levels are seen in haemophilia A, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and von Willebrand disease, but not in warfarin overdose. Isolated APTT elevation is seen in heparin overdose, while elevated fibrinogen levels can be seen in inflammation, acute coronary syndrome, and stroke, but not in warfarin overdose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
On examination, his left plantar response was extensor, and deep tendon jerks were increased on the left side. A computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain revealed a right-middle cerebral artery territory infarct. He was not known to have diabetes or hypertension. He was not receiving any drugs, either.
His blood count revealed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 331 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophil count 145 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Metamyelocyte 3000/mm3
Platelet 490 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Peripheral smear Many band forms, myelocytes, basophils
What is the next appropriate therapy?Your Answer: Heparin
Correct Answer: Leukapheresis
Explanation:Leukapheresis and Other Treatment Options for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia with High White Blood Cell Count and Ischaemic Stroke
Chronic myeloid leukaemia can cause an extremely high white blood cell count, leading to hyperviscosity of the blood and an increased risk of ischaemic events such as stroke. While anticoagulation medications are important, they do not address the underlying issue of the high cell count. Leukapheresis is a procedure that can reduce the white cell volume by 30-60%, making it a crucial emergency treatment option. Other treatments, such as hydroxyurea and imatinib, can also be used to control disease burden. Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is effective in treating chronic myeloid leukaemia with the Philadelphia chromosome translocation. Aspirin and heparin have limited roles in this scenario. While aspirin is recommended for long-term therapy after an ischaemic stroke, it does not address the hypercoagulable state caused by the high white blood cell count. Heparin is not used in the treatment of ischaemic strokes. Overall, leukapheresis should be the first step in emergency management for chronic myeloid leukaemia with a high white blood cell count and ischaemic stroke.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of haematuria. He has a history of chronic atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His blood tests reveal a Hb level of 112g/L and an INR of 9, but he is stable hemodynamically. The consulting physician recommends reversing the effects of warfarin. What blood product/s would be the most appropriate choice for this patient?
Your Answer: Platelets
Correct Answer: Prothrombin concentrate ('Octaplex')
Explanation:Treatment Options for Warfarin Reversal
Prothrombin concentrates are the preferred treatment for reversing the effects of warfarin in cases of active bleeding and a significantly elevated INR. While packed cells are important for managing severe bleeding, they are not the recommended treatment for warfarin reversal. Cryoprecipitate, recombinant factor VII, and platelets are also not indicated for reversing the effects of warfarin. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. Proper management of warfarin reversal can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
By how much does the haemoglobin concentration increase with the infusion of one unit of fresh blood?
Your Answer: 10 g/L
Explanation:The Effect of Fresh Blood on Haemoglobin Levels
When one unit of fresh blood is transfused, it increases the haemoglobin levels in the body by approximately 10 g/L. This is equivalent to the effect of one unit of red cell concentrate. Both fresh blood and red cell concentrate contain red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. Therefore, the increase in haemoglobin levels is due to the additional red blood cells that are introduced into the bloodstream. This information is important for medical professionals who need to monitor and manage the haemoglobin levels of their patients, particularly those who have undergone significant blood loss or have conditions that affect their red blood cell count.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 5-month history of night sweats and weight loss. He has no history of cough, shortness of breath or foreign travel. He denies any back or joint pain. He is normally fit and well, except for high blood pressure for which he takes enalapril. He continues to drink ten units of alcohol per week.
On examination, he is noted to have cervical and groin lymphadenopathy, with an enlarged spleen. The remainder of the examination and observations are normal.
Which of the following is most likely to be used in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Rituximab
Explanation:The patient in question is displaying symptoms of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, including night sweats, weight loss, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. While other symptoms may include pruritus, fever, and shortness of breath, the most common treatment for progressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a combination chemotherapy called R-CHOP, which includes rituximab. Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody used for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis. The other options, including infliximab, lenalidomide, radiotherapy, and rifampicin, are used for different conditions such as Crohn’s disease, multiple myeloma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and tuberculosis, respectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 55-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right leg, five days after having a cholecystectomy. Upon examination, the right leg is swollen, tender, and warm, while the left leg appears normal. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Venous Dopplers
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Deep Vein Thrombosis
This patient is showing typical symptoms of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). While you may not have access to the necessary investigations in your practice, it is important to have knowledge of secondary care investigations and their appropriate use, as highlighted in the latest MRCGP curriculum statement. Venous Dopplers are the most likely test to confirm the diagnosis, while a venogram is considered the gold standard.
DVTs should be treated with anticoagulation, typically with the use of DOACs due to the potential risk of embolisation. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat DVTs to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. As a healthcare professional, it is important to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines and recommendations for the diagnosis and treatment of DVTs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman presents at the clinic for evaluation. She has not experienced menstrual periods for the past six months and has taken two pregnancy tests, both of which were negative. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities were found. The patient desires a blood test to determine if she has entered menopause. What is the most sensitive hormone to test for this purpose?
Your Answer: Oestrogen
Correct Answer: FSH
Explanation:Hormone Levels and Menopausal Status
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels that are greater than 30 IU/l, repeated over a period of four to eight weeks, are typically indicative of menopause. It is important to ensure that FSH is tested when the patient is not on contraception, although this is not relevant in the current scenario. While oestrogen and progesterone levels decrease after menopause, their assay is less reliable in determining menopausal status compared to FSH levels. Beta-HCG levels are elevated during pregnancy and trophoblastic disease, while prolactin levels increase in response to certain drug therapies and the presence of a pituitary tumour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)