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  • Question 1 - Who is the originator of the term 'cheese effect' in reference to the...

    Incorrect

    • Who is the originator of the term 'cheese effect' in reference to the negative effects associated with MAOI antidepressants?

      Your Answer: Kuhn

      Correct Answer: Blackwell

      Explanation:

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.1
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  • Question 2 - Which antidepressant is known for having a lower occurrence of sexual dysfunction as...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant is known for having a lower occurrence of sexual dysfunction as a side effect?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about Torsades de pointes? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Torsades de pointes?

      Your Answer: It is often transient

      Explanation:

      Torsades de pointes may not be present on an ECG even if the patient experiences recurring episodes, as it has a tendency to appear and disappear.

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Acamprosate provides a benefit to individuals with alcohol dependence by acting as an...

    Incorrect

    • Acamprosate provides a benefit to individuals with alcohol dependence by acting as an allosteric modulator at a specific receptor.

      Your Answer: AMPA

      Correct Answer: GABA-A

      Explanation:

      Allosteric modulators are substances that bind to a receptor and alter the way the receptor responds to stimuli.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16.5
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  • Question 5 - What substance acts as an antagonist for GABA-A? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance acts as an antagonist for GABA-A?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flumazenil

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil acts as an antagonist for GABA-A receptors and is known to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines. While there is some speculation that it may also have an effect on alcohol, this has not been definitively proven.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 6 - A middle-aged patient remembers taking a medication for schizophrenia some time ago but...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient remembers taking a medication for schizophrenia some time ago but cannot recall its name. They were cautioned that it could cause sun sensitivity and advised to use ample sun protection while on it. What medication do you think they might have been given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Chlorpromazine: Photosensitivity Reactions and Patient Precautions

      Chlorpromazine, the first drug used for psychosis, is a common topic in exams. However, it is important to note that photosensitivity reactions are a known side effect of its use. Patients taking chlorpromazine should be informed of this and advised to take necessary precautions. Proper education and awareness can help prevent potential harm from photosensitivity reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. What class of medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. What class of medication would be the most suitable for her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzodiazepine

      Explanation:

      The preferred initial treatment for alcohol withdrawal syndrome is benzodiazepines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following drugs is mainly a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NARI)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is mainly a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NARI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      Medication Types:

      Atomoxetine (Strattera) is a medication used to treat ADHD by inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline. It has a similar structure to some antidepressants.

      Acamprosate is a medication that acts as an antagonist at NMDA receptors and is the only medication licensed for the relief of cravings in alcohol dependence.

      Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine medication.

      Amisulpride is an atypical (second generation) antipsychotic medication that works as a serotonin and dopamine antagonist.

      Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic medication that acts as a partial agonist at dopamine receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 9 - A newly admitted elderly patient with dementia has an ECG which shows a...

    Incorrect

    • A newly admitted elderly patient with dementia has an ECG which shows a prolonged QT interval. You request some routine bloods, which of the following would best explain his ECG finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcemia

      Explanation:

      The Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition state that there are several independent risk factors for QT prolongation, including being female, having hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and having anorexia nervosa.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 10 - Which statement accurately defines bioavailability? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately defines bioavailability?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The fraction of an administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bioavailability in Drug Trials

      Bioavailability is a crucial factor in drug trials, as it determines the percentage of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation after administration. This can be affected by factors such as absorption and metabolic clearance. For example, if a drug called X is administered orally and only 60% reaches the systemic circulation, its bioavailability is 0.6 of 60%. However, if the same drug is administered intravenously, plasma levels may reach 100%.

      One way to potentially increase bioavailability is through the rectal route, which bypasses around two thirds of the first-pass metabolism. This is because the rectum’s venous drainage is two thirds systemic (middle and inferior rectal vein) and one third portal (superior rectal vein). As a result, drugs administered rectally may reach the circulatory system with less alteration and in greater concentrations. Understanding bioavailability and exploring different administration routes can help optimize drug efficacy in clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 11 - What is a true statement about thiamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about thiamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is required for carbohydrate catabolism

      Explanation:

      A lack of vitamin C is commonly linked to gum inflammation and bleeding.

      Thiamine Deficiency and Alcohol-Related Brain Disease

      Thiamine deficiency is a well-known cause of a neurological disorder called Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS) in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is an essential nutrient that cannot be produced by the body and must be obtained through the diet. Thiamine is required for the proper functioning of enzymes involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates, the synthesis of neurotransmitters, nucleic acids, fatty acids, and complex sugar molecules, and the body’s defense against oxidative stress.

      Three enzymes that require thiamine as a cofactor are transketolase, pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH), and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (KGDH), all of which participate in the breakdown of carbohydrates. Thiamine deficiency leads to suboptimal levels of functional enzymes in the cell, which can cause cell damage in the central nervous system through cell necrosis, cellular apoptosis, and oxidative stress.

      Alcoholism can contribute to thiamine deficiency through inadequate nutritional intake, decreased absorption of thiamine from the gastrointestinal tract, and impaired utilization of thiamine in the cells. Giving thiamine to patients with WKS can reverse many of the acute symptoms of the disease, highlighting the importance of this nutrient in the prevention and treatment of alcohol-related brain disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 12 - What is the meaning of a drug's half-life? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of a drug's half-life?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drugs which follow first order kinetics have a fixed half life

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 13 - Which group is most commonly affected by pseudo-parkinsonism caused by typical antipsychotics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which group is most commonly affected by pseudo-parkinsonism caused by typical antipsychotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elderly females

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 14 - Which medication does not create a significant active metabolite? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication does not create a significant active metabolite?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxazepam

      Explanation:

      Oxazepam is a significant metabolite found in various benzodiazepines, but it does not produce any significant metabolites of its own. It is occasionally prescribed to individuals with liver impairment because it does not necessitate hepatic oxidation and is instead metabolized through glucuronidation (which is often preserved even in severe liver disease).

      The Significance of Active Metabolites in Drug Discovery and Development

      Certain drugs are classified as prodrugs, which means that they are inactive when administered and require metabolism to become active. These drugs are converted into an active form, which is referred to as an active metabolite. Some drugs have important active metabolites, such as diazepam, dothiepin, fluoxetine, imipramine, risperidone, amitriptyline, and codeine, which are desmethyldiazepam, dothiepin sulfoxide, norfluoxetine, desipramine, 9-hydroxyrisperidone, nortriptyline, and morphine, respectively.

      The role of pharmacologically active metabolites in drug discovery and development is significant. Understanding the active metabolites of a drug can help in the development of more effective and safer drugs. Active metabolites can also provide insights into the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of a drug, which can aid in the optimization of dosing regimens. Additionally, active metabolites can have different pharmacological properties than the parent drug, which can lead to the discovery of new therapeutic uses for a drug. Therefore, the study of active metabolites is an important aspect of drug discovery and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 15 - What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine inhibits butyrylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 16 - A client who needs to begin taking an antipsychotic expresses worry about the...

    Incorrect

    • A client who needs to begin taking an antipsychotic expresses worry about the potential for weight gain. They inquire about which antipsychotic is linked to the highest amount of weight gain. What would you say in response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 17 - Which drug interacts with an ionotropic receptor to produce its effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug interacts with an ionotropic receptor to produce its effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 18 - What is the most probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Their Effects on EEG

      The use of antipsychotics has been found to have an impact on the EEG of patients taking them. A study conducted on the subject found that clozapine had the highest percentage of EEG changes at 47.1%, followed by olanzapine at 38.5%, risperidone at 28.0%, and typical antipsychotics at 14.5%. Interestingly, quetiapine did not show any EEG changes in the study. However, another study found that 5% of quetiapine users did experience EEG changes. These findings suggest that antipsychotics can have varying effects on EEG and should be monitored closely in patients taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 19 - What is the presumed cause of the sexual dysfunction associated with SSRIs? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the presumed cause of the sexual dysfunction associated with SSRIs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-HT2 agonism

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of sexual behavior is caused by the activation of 5-HT2 receptors. However, this effect can be reversed by using 5-HT2 antagonists like cyproheptadine and 5-HT1a agonists like buspirone. These drugs are effective in treating sexual dysfunction caused by selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 20 - What is a true statement about valproate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about valproate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If using sodium valproate rather than semi-sodium valproate higher doses are required

      Explanation:

      The liver is responsible for metabolizing valproate, and drugs that disrupt the CYP enzymes can greatly impact its levels. Valproic acid and semi-sodium valproate are approved for treating bipolar disorder, while sodium valproate is solely approved for epilepsy.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 21 - Which route of administration is known to have the highest degree of first...

    Incorrect

    • Which route of administration is known to have the highest degree of first pass effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 22 - Among the listed antipsychotics, which one has the greatest likelihood of causing extrapyramidal...

    Incorrect

    • Among the listed antipsychotics, which one has the greatest likelihood of causing extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 23 - Which SSRI is commonly linked to withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which SSRI is commonly linked to withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 24 - What is the most common cause of amenorrhoea? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of amenorrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic use can lead to high levels of prolactin, which can cause amenorrhea. To address hyperprolactinemia, aripiprazole, quetiapine, and olanzapine are recommended. However, clozapine typically does not impact prolactin release.

      Hyperprolactinemia is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medication, but it is rare with antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, so dopamine antagonists, such as antipsychotics, can increase prolactin levels. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related, and some antipsychotics cause more significant increases than others. Hyperprolactinemia can cause symptoms such as galactorrhea, menstrual difficulties, gynecomastia, hypogonadism, and sexual dysfunction. Long-standing hyperprolactinemia in psychiatric patients can increase the risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer, although there is no conclusive evidence that antipsychotic medication increases the risk of breast malignancy and mortality. Some antipsychotics, such as clozapine and aripiprazole, have a low risk of causing hyperprolactinemia, while typical antipsychotics and risperidone have a high risk. Monitoring of prolactin levels is recommended before starting antipsychotic therapy and at three months and annually thereafter. Antidepressants rarely cause hyperprolactinemia, and routine monitoring is not recommended. Symptomatic hyperprolactinemia has been reported with most antidepressants, except for a few, such as mirtazapine, agomelatine, bupropion, and vortioxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 25 - What precautions should be taken for a patient with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid...

    Incorrect

    • What precautions should be taken for a patient with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid potential complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Pseudocholinesterase Deficiency

      Pseudocholinesterase deficiency, also known as butyrylcholinesterase deficiency, is a medical condition that can lead to increased sensitivity to certain drugs. This condition affects approximately 1 in 3200 to 1 in 5000 people, with higher prevalence in certain populations such as the Persian Jewish community and Alaska Natives. Interestingly, this condition does not cause any noticeable symptoms until an abnormal drug reaction occurs.

      It is important for individuals with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid certain drugs, including donepezil, galantamine, procaine, succinylcholine, and pilocarpine. By avoiding these drugs, individuals with this condition can reduce their risk of experiencing adverse reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman who is taking antiepileptic medication reports experiencing visual field defects...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is taking antiepileptic medication reports experiencing visual field defects three months after starting a new anticonvulsant. Which specific drug is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vigabatrin

      Explanation:

      Vigabatrin is an anticonvulsant drug that has been associated with irreversible concentric visual field loss in 30-50% of patients with long-term exposure. This visual field loss can vary in severity and is often asymptomatic, making regular visual field testing essential for patients taking this medication. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for any signs of visual field loss and to consider alternative treatment options if necessary. For more information on anticonvulsant drugs, please refer to GP Notebook.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 27 - What factor is most strongly linked to an increased likelihood of experiencing sexual...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most strongly linked to an increased likelihood of experiencing sexual dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management

      Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 28 - Which drug experiences the most substantial first-pass metabolism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug experiences the most substantial first-pass metabolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 29 - What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibiting dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man undergoing treatment for generalised tonic clonic epilepsy, exhibits symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man undergoing treatment for generalised tonic clonic epilepsy, exhibits symptoms of hepatic failure shortly after commencing medication. Which medication is the probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Valproate is an anticonvulsant drug that is used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. However, it can cause several side effects that patients should be aware of. Some of the common side effects of valproate include weight gain, nausea, vomiting, and hair loss. Patients may also experience easy bruising, tremors, and hepatic failure. In rare cases, valproate can cause pancreatitis, which is a serious inflammation of the pancreas. Patients should talk to their doctor if they experience any of these side effects while taking valproate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 31 - What is the most frequent adverse effect of atomoxetine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent adverse effect of atomoxetine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 32 - A 45-year-old male with a prolonged history of generalized anxiety disorder has not...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male with a prolonged history of generalized anxiety disorder has not shown improvement with standard antidepressants. The specialist suggests trying pregabalin. What is the mechanism of action of pregabalin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha 2 delta voltage-sensitive calcium channel

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Antiepileptic Drugs

      Pregabalin, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Lamotrigine, Riluzole, and Valproate are all antiepileptic drugs that work through different mechanisms of action. Pregabalin specifically binds to the alpha 2 delta site of voltage-sensitive calcium channels, which prevents the release of neurotransmitters such as glutamate, thereby reducing pain and anxiety.

      Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Lamotrigine, and Riluzole, on the other hand, act on the alpha unit of voltage-sensitive sodium channels. Valproate, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Lamotrigine, and Riluzole all act on nonspecific voltage-sensitive sodium channels. Topiramate, Valproate, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Lamotrigine, and Riluzole act on nonspecific voltage-sensitive calcium channels.

      Finally, calcium itself acts on L-channel voltage-sensitive calcium channels. These different mechanisms of action allow for a variety of treatment options for epilepsy and other neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 33 - What is an example of an adverse drug reaction that is related to...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of an adverse drug reaction that is related to the immune system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytotoxic

      Explanation:

      Out of these options, only the cytotoxic reaction is immunologic and specifically mediated by antibodies.

      Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) refer to the harmful effects associated with the use of a medication at a normal dose. These reactions are classified into two types: Type A and Type B. Type A reactions can be predicted from the pharmacology of the drug and are dose-dependent, meaning they can be reversed by withdrawing the drug. On the other hand, Type B reactions cannot be predicted from the known pharmacology of the drug and include allergic reactions.

      Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ADRs, while Type B reactions are less common. Allergic reactions are a type of Type B reaction and are further subdivided by Gell and Coombs into four types: Type I (IgE-mediated) reactions, Type II (cytotoxic) reactions, Type III (immune complex) reactions, and Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions. Proper identification and management of ADRs are crucial in ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 34 - A geriatric patient in a nursing home becomes confused and agitated within 1...

    Incorrect

    • A geriatric patient in a nursing home becomes confused and agitated within 1 hour of starting a new medication. On examination you note dilated pupils, a temperature of 39 ºC, myoclonus, and hyperreflexia. Which of the following medications would be least likely to cause this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      The symptoms observed in the presentation are indicative of serotonin syndrome, which can be caused by various medications such as antidepressants, lithium, opioids, olanzapine, and risperidone. However, benzodiazepines are not associated with serotonin syndrome and are actually used as part of the treatment.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 35 - What is the term used to describe the process of a drug moving...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the process of a drug moving from the site of administration to the systemic circulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absorption

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 36 - Which drug was discovered by Nathan Kline and how is it utilized in...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug was discovered by Nathan Kline and how is it utilized in treating depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iproniazid

      Explanation:

      Initially used to treat tuberculosis, iproniazid was found to have a positive impact on patients’ moods. Kline’s publication provided the first evidence supporting its effectiveness in treating depression.

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 37 - When is the optimal time to collect blood samples for monitoring therapeutic lithium...

    Incorrect

    • When is the optimal time to collect blood samples for monitoring therapeutic lithium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 hours after last dose

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 38 - Which of the following factors is believed to have no negative effect on...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is believed to have no negative effect on sexual function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lurasidone

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management

      Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 39 - What factor is most likely to cause delirium in an elderly patient when...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most likely to cause delirium in an elderly patient when administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diphenhydramine

      Explanation:

      Due to their increased vulnerability to anticholinergic side effects, elderly individuals are at a higher risk of experiencing delirium. The first generation of H1 antihistamines, which have a greater tendency for anticholinergic side effects, are more likely to trigger delirium in the elderly. Benadryl, an over-the-counter medication in the UK used to treat hay fever, contains diphenhydramine as its active ingredient.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 40 - Which SSRI medications have a higher likelihood of causing QTc interval prolongation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which SSRI medications have a higher likelihood of causing QTc interval prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      While the majority of SSRIs are believed to have minimal impact on the QTc interval, studies have demonstrated that citalopram and escitalopram can lead to QTc prolongation.

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 41 - Which of the options requires the most time to achieve a stable state?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options requires the most time to achieve a stable state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Due to its long half-life, aripiprazole requires the longest time (2 weeks) to achieve a steady state among the atypical antipsychotics. As a result, any assessments of dosage adjustments should be delayed until 2-3 weeks after the changes have been made.

      Antipsychotic Half-life and Time to Steady State

      Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Understanding the half-life and time to steady state of these medications is important for determining dosing and monitoring their effectiveness.

      Aripiprazole has a half-life of 75 hours and takes approximately 2 weeks to reach steady state. Olanzapine has a half-life of 30 hours and takes about 1 week to reach steady state. Risperidone has a half-life of 20 hours when taken orally and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Clozapine and Amisulpride both have a half-life of 12 hours and take 2-3 days to reach steady state. Ziprasidone has a shorter half-life of 7 hours and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Quetiapine has the shortest half-life of 6 hours and also takes 2-3 days to reach steady state.

      Knowing the half-life and time to steady state of antipsychotic medications can help healthcare providers determine the appropriate dosing and frequency of administration. It can also aid in monitoring the effectiveness of the medication and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 42 - Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of lithium toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic impairment

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 43 - Zopiclone is thought to exert its effects by targeting which type of receptor?...

    Incorrect

    • Zopiclone is thought to exert its effects by targeting which type of receptor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GABA

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines and Z-drugs (such as zopiclone and zolpidem) have a common mechanism of action on the GABA receptor. It is noteworthy that alcohol also affects this receptor, which explains the similar effects observed in alcohol and benzodiazepine use. Additionally, benzodiazepines play a role in managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 44 - What is the duration of time it takes for half of the olanzapine...

    Incorrect

    • What is the duration of time it takes for half of the olanzapine to be eliminated from the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 hours

      Explanation:

      Given that olanzapine is a once daily medication, it is reasonable to estimate its half-life to fall within the range of 20-30 hours. As it happens, the actual half-life of olanzapine is 30 hours.

      Antipsychotic Half-life and Time to Steady State

      Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Understanding the half-life and time to steady state of these medications is important for determining dosing and monitoring their effectiveness.

      Aripiprazole has a half-life of 75 hours and takes approximately 2 weeks to reach steady state. Olanzapine has a half-life of 30 hours and takes about 1 week to reach steady state. Risperidone has a half-life of 20 hours when taken orally and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Clozapine and Amisulpride both have a half-life of 12 hours and take 2-3 days to reach steady state. Ziprasidone has a shorter half-life of 7 hours and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Quetiapine has the shortest half-life of 6 hours and also takes 2-3 days to reach steady state.

      Knowing the half-life and time to steady state of antipsychotic medications can help healthcare providers determine the appropriate dosing and frequency of administration. It can also aid in monitoring the effectiveness of the medication and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 45 - What is the mechanism of action of bupropion? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of bupropion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 46 - What is the definition of priapism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of priapism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A persistent and painful erection

      Explanation:

      Priapism: A Painful and Persistent Erection

      Priapism is a condition characterized by a prolonged and painful erection, which can occur in males and even in the clitoris. Although rare, certain medications such as antipsychotics and antidepressants have been known to cause priapism. The primary mechanism behind this condition is alpha blockade, although other mechanisms such as serotonin-mediated pathways have also been suggested. Some of the drugs most commonly associated with priapism include Trazodone, Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine. Treatment involves the use of alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can be administered orally of injected directly into the penis. Priapism is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as penile amputation, although such cases are extremely rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 47 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Their Effects on EEG

      The use of antipsychotics has been found to have an impact on the EEG of patients taking them. A study conducted on the subject found that clozapine had the highest percentage of EEG changes at 47.1%, followed by olanzapine at 38.5%, risperidone at 28.0%, and typical antipsychotics at 14.5%. Interestingly, quetiapine did not show any EEG changes in the study. However, another study found that 5% of quetiapine users did experience EEG changes. These findings suggest that antipsychotics can have varying effects on EEG and should be monitored closely in patients taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 48 - What is the lowest daily amount of citalopram that is effective for treating...

    Incorrect

    • What is the lowest daily amount of citalopram that is effective for treating depression in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 mg

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses

      According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:

      – Citalopram: 20 mg/day
      – Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
      – Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Sertraline: 50 mg/day
      – Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
      – Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
      – Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
      – Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
      – Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
      – Trazodone: 150 mg/day

      Note that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 49 - In an elderly patient with decreased kidney function, which substance is most likely...

    Incorrect

    • In an elderly patient with decreased kidney function, which substance is most likely to build up in their body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Patients with renal impairment should avoid taking amisulpride and sulpiride. This is because amisulpride is eliminated through the kidneys, and in cases of renal insufficiency, the dosage should be reduced, and intermittent treatment should be considered.

      Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.

      In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 50 - Which symptom of serotonin syndrome poses the highest risk for causing a life-threatening...

    Incorrect

    • Which symptom of serotonin syndrome poses the highest risk for causing a life-threatening situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Muscle rigidity

      Explanation:

      While myoclonus can be scary for patients, it is typically not a danger to their lives. On the other hand, the muscle stiffness that occurs in serotonin syndrome is extremely severe and can result in the failure of multiple organs (Ahuja 2009).

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 51 - Which of the following is classified as a phenothiazine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as a phenothiazine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pipotiazine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 52 - How does bupropion work? ...

    Incorrect

    • How does bupropion work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NDRI (noradrenaline dopamine reuptake inhibitor)

      Explanation:

      Bupropion is classified as a noradrenaline dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) and functions by elevating the levels of neurotransmitters such as noradrenaline and dopamine. It has been utilized as an antidepressant and a smoking cessation aid.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 53 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of QTc prolongation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Some additional risk factors for QTc prolongation include being female and having a slow heart rate (bradycardia).

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 54 - What is a true statement about interactions involving lithium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about interactions involving lithium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NSAIDS can increase lithium levels

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

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  • Question 55 - What is the most appropriate antipsychotic medication for a patient with liver failure...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate antipsychotic medication for a patient with liver failure who has developed a psychotic illness and has a normal GFR of 120?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Out of the given options, amisulpride is the most suitable medication as it is not extensively metabolized by the liver. However, it should be avoided in individuals with established renal failure as a normal glomerular filtration rate is considered to be >90 ml/min/1.73m2.

      Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs

      Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:

      Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride

      Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)

      Mood stabilizers: Lithium

      Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 56 - Which statement accurately describes the pharmacokinetics during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the pharmacokinetics during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The glomerular filtration rate increases during pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are significant changes in maternal physiology that can affect the pharmacokinetics of drugs. These changes are most pronounced in the third trimester. One of the most notable changes is an increase in plasma volume, which can lead to haemodilution and a decrease in the concentration of plasma albumin. As a result, the total plasma concentrations of albumin-bound drugs may decrease during pregnancy. Additionally, lipophilic drugs may have an increased volume of distribution due to the increase in plasma volume.

      Progesterone levels are also elevated during pregnancy, which can lead to delayed gastric emptying and reduced small intestine motility. This may affect the absorption of drugs, but the overall impact on bioavailability is likely to be relatively small.

      The activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes can also change during pregnancy. Estrogens and progesterone can induce some CYP enzymes and inhibit others, leading to altered drug metabolism.

      Finally, renal blood flow and the glomerular filtration rate increase during pregnancy, which can enhance the elimination of some drugs. The GFR can increase by up to 50% during pregnancy. These changes in pharmacokinetics during pregnancy must be taken into account when prescribing drugs to pregnant women.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 57 - What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: RR interval

      Explanation:

      The Bazett formula adjusts the QT interval for heart rate by taking the square root of the R-R interval and dividing the QT interval by it.

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

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  • Question 58 - A teenager with schizophrenia is started on clozapine and experiences a complete response....

    Incorrect

    • A teenager with schizophrenia is started on clozapine and experiences a complete response. However, they gain a considerable amount of weight and are eager to find a solution. Despite attempts to lower the dosage, relapse occurs. What medication has been proven to decrease weight when combined with clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 59 - Which of the following is a side effect that is not associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a side effect that is not associated with tricyclic antidepressants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic antidepressants are known to cause various side effects, which can be attributed to their mechanisms of action. These include antimuscarinic effects, which can lead to dry mouth and urinary retention, antihistaminergic effects, which can cause weight gain and drowsiness, antiadrenergic effects, which can result in postural hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and cognitive impairment, and antiserotonergic effects, which can lead to weight gain. Additionally, tricyclic antidepressants can cause cardiotoxicity and reduce the seizure threshold due to their membrane stabilizing effects. Other important side effects of these drugs include arrhythmias and ECG changes, black tongue, tremor, altered liver function tests, paralytic ileus, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Black hairy tongue, a harmless condition where the tongue appears black and hairy due to elongated filiform papillae, is also a possible side effect of tricyclic antidepressants.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 60 - A 55-year-old man complains of frequent nighttime urination. He has been taking lithium...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man complains of frequent nighttime urination. He has been taking lithium for his bipolar disorder for more than two decades without any notable adverse effects.
      His eGFR is 34 mL/min, and his serum creatinine level is slightly above the normal range.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Water intoxication can cause polyuria and dilutional hyponatremia, but it does not typically lead to renal impairment. It is important to differentiate this condition from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which can develop in a significant percentage of patients on long-term lithium therapy and may present with nocturia as an early sign. While elevated calcium levels may occur in some patients on lithium, hyperparathyroidism is not a common clinical symptom. Tubulointerstitial nephritis is a rare complication of lithium therapy. The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is not typically associated with polyuria of renal impairment and is not commonly linked to lithium therapy.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 61 - What drug acts as a partial agonist for the D2 receptor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What drug acts as a partial agonist for the D2 receptor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole exhibits partial agonism at D2 receptors and acts as an agonist at 5HT1A receptors while antagonizing 5HT2A receptors.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

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  • Question 62 - What is an example of a first generation H1 antihistamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a first generation H1 antihistamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      Promethazine is utilized for its sedative properties in cases of agitation due to the fact that first generation H1 antihistamines easily penetrate the BBB and induce drowsiness.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

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  • Question 63 - What antidepressant belongs to the NaSSA classification? ...

    Incorrect

    • What antidepressant belongs to the NaSSA classification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine and Mianserin are significant NaSSA’s (Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants) that function by blocking adrenergic and serotonergic receptors. In contrast to the majority of antidepressants, they do not impact the reuptake of serotonin.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

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  • Question 64 - On which of the following does CYP2D6 have a notable impact in terms...

    Incorrect

    • On which of the following does CYP2D6 have a notable impact in terms of metabolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

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  • Question 65 - What is the enzyme that is inhibited by disulfiram and responsible for its...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme that is inhibited by disulfiram and responsible for its effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

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  • Question 66 - What intervention is most effective in improving disrupted sleep-wake patterns in individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • What intervention is most effective in improving disrupted sleep-wake patterns in individuals with major depressive disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Agomelatine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants typically interfere with the natural pattern of sleep, especially by reducing REM sleep. However, Agomelatine has been found to enhance disrupted sleep-wake cycles in individuals with major depressive disorder.

      Agomelatine: A New Drug for Depression Treatment

      Agomelatine is a recently developed medication that is used to treat depression. Its mechanism of action involves acting as an agonist at melatonin M1 and M2 receptors, while also acting as an antagonist at 5HT2C receptors. The effects of melatonin appear to promote sleep, while the 5HT2C antagonism leads to the release of dopamine and norepinephrine in the frontal cortex. Interestingly, serotonin levels do not appear to be affected by this medication.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 67 - What is the extrapyramidal side-effect that is identified by a feeling of restlessness?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the extrapyramidal side-effect that is identified by a feeling of restlessness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

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  • Question 68 - A 35-year-old male with newly diagnosed schizophrenia experiences fever, confusion, and stiffness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male with newly diagnosed schizophrenia experiences fever, confusion, and stiffness in his limbs after starting medication. Which antipsychotic is most likely responsible for these side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs such as chlorpromazine have an antidopaminergic effect, which can lead to hyperprolactinemia and hypogonadism. Additionally, they can cause a serious condition called neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which is characterized by hyperthermia, muscular rigidity, and altered consciousness. This syndrome is caused by the blocking of dopamine receptors and is more commonly associated with typical antipsychotics like chlorpromazine, haloperidol, and trifluoperazine. However, cases have also been reported with most atypical antipsychotic agents.

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  • Question 69 - Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits butyrylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as galantamine are utilized to enhance central acetylcholine levels. Although they share this common mechanism of action, there are variations in how they function. Unlike galantamine, rivastigmine has the ability to inhibit butyrylcholinesterase.

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  • Question 70 - You are conducting an annual medication review for a female patient in an...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual medication review for a female patient in an outpatient clinic. While reviewing her ECG, you notice that her QTc value is 660 ms, which puts her at high risk for arrhythmia. You decide to seek cardiology advice and during the handover, the cardiologist asks for your opinion on which medication may be responsible for the QTc prolongation. Which medication do you think is likely to be the culprit in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      While antipsychotics, tricyclic antidepressants, and citalopram are known to cause QTc prolongation and require ECG monitoring, they are not the only drugs that can cause this condition. However, in psychiatric practice, they are the most commonly prescribed drugs associated with QTc prolongation. It is important to note that clarithromycin is a high-risk drug for QTc prolongation, unlike the other drugs listed, which are considered low risk.

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  • Question 71 - Which of the following is most strongly linked to delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most strongly linked to delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

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  • Question 72 - Which medication is most likely to induce anxiety symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication is most likely to induce anxiety symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol

      Explanation:

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 73 - What is a typical symptom observed in a patient with serotonin syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a typical symptom observed in a patient with serotonin syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clonus

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 74 - Which TCA is commonly linked to discontinuation symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which TCA is commonly linked to discontinuation symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

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  • Question 75 - Which antidepressant is known for having a lower occurrence of sexual dysfunction as...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant is known for having a lower occurrence of sexual dysfunction as a side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reboxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

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  • Question 76 - For which group of patients is it not recommended to prescribe lithium? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which group of patients is it not recommended to prescribe lithium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison’s disease

      Explanation:

      According to a recent study by Ran (2019), lithium carbonate has been found to have a neuroprotective effect in individuals who have experienced a stroke. The study conducted exploratory analyses of neuroanatomical and cognitive outcomes in a poststroke population. It is interesting to note that while lithium is contraindicated in individuals with Addison’s disease, it is only cautioned in individuals with QT prolongation. Hypothyroidism (untreated) is also a contraindication for lithium. Addison’s disease is a condition characterized by inadequate production of cortisol and aldosterone by the adrenal cortex, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, gastrointestinal abnormalities, changes in skin pigmentation, and mood changes. In some cases, acute adrenal failure can occur, which is a serious condition that develops rapidly. The cause of Addison’s disease is often due to the body’s immune system mistakenly attacking the adrenal glands, causing progressive damage to the adrenal cortex.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

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  • Question 77 - What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

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  • Question 78 - Which of the options below does not have an effect on GABA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below does not have an effect on GABA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of phenytoin involves the stabilization of sodium channels.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

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  • Question 79 - What is the annual incidence rate of tardive dyskinesia in patients exposed to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the annual incidence rate of tardive dyskinesia in patients exposed to typical antipsychotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

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  • Question 80 - Who is recognized for discovering the therapeutic effects of lithium on mania? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is recognized for discovering the therapeutic effects of lithium on mania?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cade

      Explanation:

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

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  • Question 81 - What potential adverse effects of diazepam use could explain a patient's complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • What potential adverse effects of diazepam use could explain a patient's complaints of abdominal pain, constipation, and muscle weakness upon returning to the clinic for follow-up?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria

      Explanation:

      Porphyria: The Little Imitator

      Porphyria is a medical condition that is often referred to as the little imitator because it can mimic various common psychiatric presentations. This condition can be triggered by the use of certain psychotropic drugs, including barbiturates, benzodiazepines, sulpiride, and some mood stabilizers.

      Porphyria can manifest in different ways, and it is important to be aware of the symptoms. These may include abdominal pain, mental state changes, constipation, vomiting, and muscle weakness.

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  • Question 82 - Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) has the most extended half-life? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) has the most extended half-life?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      The half life of fluoxetine, the longest lasting SSRI, is four to six days, while its active metabolite, norfluoxetine, has a half life of four to 16 days. Citalopram has a half life of 33 hours, escitalopram has a half life of 30 hours, paroxetine has a half life of 24 hours, and sertraline has a half life of 26 hours.

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  • Question 83 - Which statement accurately describes pharmacokinetics in the elderly? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes pharmacokinetics in the elderly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The glomerular filtration rate reduces with age

      Explanation:

      Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.

      In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.

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  • Question 84 - What is the minimum number of half-lives needed to achieve steady state plasma...

    Incorrect

    • What is the minimum number of half-lives needed to achieve steady state plasma concentrations of a drug without a loading dose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4.5

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

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  • Question 85 - A 30-year-old woman with treatment-resistant depression has been taking an MAOI without improvement....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with treatment-resistant depression has been taking an MAOI without improvement. You plan to switch to an SSRI. What is the recommended waiting period before starting the new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      To avoid a severe drug reaction, it is important to wait at least two weeks after stopping a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) before starting a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). MAOIs can inhibit the enzymes responsible for breaking down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5-hydroxytryptamine (5HT), as well as tyramine. It may take up to two weeks for these enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping an MAOI, and starting an SSRI during this time can be dangerous.

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  • Question 86 - You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis who has been observed to be low in mood. On review of her blood results you note significant hepatic impairment. Your history and examination confirms that she is depressed. Which of the following medications would be indicated to manage her depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Individuals with hepatic impairment should avoid taking agomelatine and duloxetine due to contraindications. It is recommended to avoid sedative TCAs, such as trimipramine, imipramine, dothiepin, and amitriptyline.

      Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs

      Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:

      Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride

      Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)

      Mood stabilizers: Lithium

      Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)

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  • Question 87 - Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The available evidence is of poor quality and does not support an increased risk of delirium associated with digoxin.

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

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  • Question 88 - Which of the options would be the least impacted by the intake of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options would be the least impacted by the intake of grapefruit juice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Although many drugs are metabolized by CYP1A2, grapefruit juice does not have a significant effect on the metabolism of lithium, as the majority of lithium is excreted without undergoing significant metabolic changes.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

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  • Question 89 - Which statement accurately describes tardive dyskinesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It worsens when a patient is distracted

      Explanation:

      Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.

      Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).

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  • Question 90 - What is the truth about the discontinuation symptoms that are linked to antidepressants?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about the discontinuation symptoms that are linked to antidepressants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suicidal thoughts are associated with discontinuation of paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Discontinuation symptoms are common when stopping most antidepressants, typically appearing within 5 days of treatment cessation. However, these symptoms are more likely to occur with short half-life drugs like paroxetine, especially when doses are missed. It’s important to note that discontinuing paroxetine may lead to suicidal thoughts, so patients should be informed of the potential risks associated with poor compliance.

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 91 - What is a specific negative outcome that is commonly linked to the use...

    Incorrect

    • What is a specific negative outcome that is commonly linked to the use of lamotrigine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin condition that can be caused by medication use of infection. Anticonvulsants, particularly lamotrigine, are often the cause. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, fatigue, and the appearance of ulcers and lesions in the mucous membranes. A rash of round lesions also appears on the face, trunk, arms, legs, and soles of the feet. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.

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  • Question 92 - What does Bazett's formula correct for when deriving the corrected QT interval from...

    Incorrect

    • What does Bazett's formula correct for when deriving the corrected QT interval from the QT interval?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate

      Explanation:

      Bazett’s formula adjusts the QT interval to account for variations in heart rate.

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

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  • Question 93 - Which statement accurately describes Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NMS can be caused by antidepressants

      Explanation:

      If a patient develops NMS, they may still require antipsychotic medication. However, it is recommended to stop antipsychotics for at least 5 days, and ideally longer. When restarting antipsychotics, it should be done slowly and at low doses, with close monitoring of blood pressure and temperature.

      Anticholinergic drugs are believed to worsen NMS, possibly due to their effect on reducing sweating and exacerbating hyperthermia. However, there is no direct causal relationship between anticholinergics and NMS.

      In cases where an alternative antipsychotic is needed, those with low dopamine affinity should be considered. These include clozapine, quetiapine, and aripiprazole.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

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  • Question 94 - What medication acts as both a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What medication acts as both a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      SNRIs include duloxetine and venlafaxine.

      Antidepressants: Mechanism of Action

      Antidepressants are a class of drugs used to treat depression and other mood disorders. The mechanism of action of antidepressants varies depending on the specific drug. Here are some examples:

      Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant (NaSSa). It works by blocking certain receptors in the brain, including 5HT-1, 5HT-2, 5HT-3, and H1 receptors. It also acts as a presynaptic alpha 2 antagonist, which stimulates the release of noradrenaline and serotonin.

      Venlafaxine and duloxetine are both serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They work by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.

      Reboxetine is a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of noradrenaline, which increases its availability in the brain.

      Bupropion is a noradrenaline and dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.

      Trazodone is a weak serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI) and 5HT agonist. It works by increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain.

      St John’s Wort is a natural supplement that has been used to treat depression. It has a weak monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) effect and a weak SNRI effect.

      In summary, antidepressants work by increasing the availability of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, such as serotonin, noradrenaline, and dopamine. The specific mechanism of action varies depending on the drug.

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  • Question 95 - A teenage male patient with a first episode of schizophrenia is interested in...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage male patient with a first episode of schizophrenia is interested in discussing long-term treatment options. He expresses concern about potential sexual side-effects and states that he would discontinue therapy if they were to occur. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management

      Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 96 - Which substance follows zero order kinetics during metabolism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which substance follows zero order kinetics during metabolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 97 - What substance acts as a partial agonist on nicotinic receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance acts as a partial agonist on nicotinic receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline is a medication that helps people quit smoking by partially activating specific nicotine receptors in the body.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 98 - A 35-year-old individual who wants to quit smoking is considering bupropion. What class...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old individual who wants to quit smoking is considering bupropion. What class of antidepressant does bupropion fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI)

      Explanation:

      Bupropion is classified as a norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) and is used in smoking cessation by increasing dopamine levels in the limbic area, which reduces cravings. Other types of reuptake inhibitors include norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (NRIs) such as atomoxetine and reboxetine, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as fluoxetine, paroxetine, citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, and fluvoxamine, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) such as venlafaxine, desvenlafaxine, duloxetine, and milnacipran, and tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline, nortriptyline, trazodone, and nefazodone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 99 - What is the accurate statement about the post-injection syndrome linked with olanzapine embonate?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the post-injection syndrome linked with olanzapine embonate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Although the occurrence of the post-injection syndrome is rare, patients must still be observed for three hours after receiving the depot injection.

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 100 - In which group is the prevalence of dystonias caused by antipsychotic treatment the...

    Incorrect

    • In which group is the prevalence of dystonias caused by antipsychotic treatment the highest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Young men

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 101 - For which specific symptom would you recommend a patient to begin taking buspirone?...

    Incorrect

    • For which specific symptom would you recommend a patient to begin taking buspirone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can cause dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Buspirone is a type of anti-anxiety medication that belongs to the azapirone (azaspirodecanedione) class of drugs. It is used to treat the same conditions as benzodiazepines. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone is a partial agonist of the serotonin 5HT1A receptor and does not cause sedation, physical dependence, of psychomotor impairment. However, it may cause side effects such as dizziness, headache, excitement, and nausea. Other less common side effects include dry mouth, tachycardia/palpitations/chest pain, drowsiness/confusion, seizures, fatigue, and sweating. Buspirone is not recommended for individuals with epilepsy, severe hepatic impairment, moderate to severe renal impairment, during pregnancy, of while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 102 - What is the preferred antidepressant for individuals experiencing depression after a heart attack?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred antidepressant for individuals experiencing depression after a heart attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Sertraline is the preferred medication for treating post-MI depression as it has minimal impact on heart rate, blood pressure, and the QTc interval. Tricyclics are not recommended due to their potential to cause postural hypotension, increased heart rate, and QTc interval prolongation. Fluoxetine may be used with caution as it has a slight effect on heart rate but does not significantly affect blood pressure of the QTc interval. Trazodone should be used with care as it can cause significant postural hypotension and QTc interval prolongation in post-MI patients. Venlafaxine should be avoided in these patients as it can increase blood pressure, particularly at higher doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 103 - What is the most frequent side effect of methylphenidate in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent side effect of methylphenidate in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased appetite

      Explanation:

      Methylphenidate commonly causes a decrease in appetite, while the other listed side-effects are considered rare of uncommon.

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 104 - You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis who has been observed to be low in mood. On review of her blood results you note significant hepatic impairment. Your history and examination confirms that she is depressed. Which of the following medications would be indicated to manage her depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic condition that causes a gradual accumulation of iron in the body over time. If left untreated, this excess iron can be deposited in organs like the liver and heart, potentially leading to organ failure. Treatment typically involves phlebotomy, which removes excess iron from the body and helps maintain healthy iron levels.

      Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs

      Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:

      Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride

      Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)

      Mood stabilizers: Lithium

      Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 105 - Which antidepressant is commonly linked to priapism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant is commonly linked to priapism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Priapism: A Painful and Persistent Erection

      Priapism is a condition characterized by a prolonged and painful erection, which can occur in males and even in the clitoris. Although rare, certain medications such as antipsychotics and antidepressants have been known to cause priapism. The primary mechanism behind this condition is alpha blockade, although other mechanisms such as serotonin-mediated pathways have also been suggested. Some of the drugs most commonly associated with priapism include Trazodone, Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine. Treatment involves the use of alpha-adrenergic agonists, which can be administered orally of injected directly into the penis. Priapism is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as penile amputation, although such cases are extremely rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 106 - A patient in their 60s taking an antipsychotic is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s taking an antipsychotic is found to have a QTc of 490ms. What would be the most appropriate alternative to their current antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 107 - What is believed to be an effective method for treating ADHD by selectively...

    Incorrect

    • What is believed to be an effective method for treating ADHD by selectively inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 108 - What should be avoided for a patient who has a high level of...

    Incorrect

    • What should be avoided for a patient who has a high level of concern about gaining weight?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Non-compliance is often caused by weight gain.

      Antidepressants and Weight Gain

      Studies suggest that certain types of antidepressants, such as tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), may be more likely to cause weight gain than newer antidepressants like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). However, mirtazapine, a newer antidepressant, may have a similar risk for weight gain as TCAs. Among SSRIs, paroxetine may have a higher risk for weight gain during long-term treatment compared to other SSRIs. On the other hand, bupropion and nefazodone may have a lower risk for weight gain than SSRIs in the long term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 109 - What is a true statement about the biotransformation of substances that come from...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the biotransformation of substances that come from outside the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase I reactions typically result in water-soluble metabolites

      Explanation:

      Phase I metabolism involves the conversion of a parent drug into active metabolites that are polar, whereas phase II metabolism converts the parent drug into inactive metabolites that are also polar.

      Understanding Biotransformation: A Metabolic Process for Excretion

      Biotransformation is a metabolic process that occurs primarily in the liver, but also in other organs such as the kidneys, intestine, adipose, skin, and lungs. Its main function is to facilitate the excretion of both exogenous and endogenous substances by altering their chemical structures through a series of reactions. Enzymes found in the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and mitochondria of cells catalyze these reactions, which can cause the substrate to become inactive, active, of even toxic.

      Biotransformation is divided into three phases. Phase I reactions involve oxidation, reduction, of hydrolysis of the drug, yielding a polar, water-soluble metabolite that is often still active. Phase II reactions consist of adding hydrophilic groups to the original molecule, a toxic intermediate, of a nontoxic metabolite formed in phase I, to increase its polarity. The most common method is conjugation with glucuronic acid, but other groups such as sulphate, amino acids, acetate, and methyl can also be added. Phase III reactions occur post-phase II, where a chemical substance can undergo further metabolism and excretion through active transport into the urinary of hepatobiliary system.

      Understanding biotransformation is crucial in pharmacology and toxicology, as it affects the efficacy and toxicity of drugs and other substances. By facilitating the excretion of these substances, biotransformation helps maintain homeostasis in the body and prevent accumulation of potentially harmful compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 110 - What is the most significant reason to avoid beginning an SSRI medication? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most significant reason to avoid beginning an SSRI medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute mania

      Explanation:

      The other conditions listed require careful consideration when using selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), while acute mania is an absolute contraindication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 111 - You are contemplating prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant for an elderly patient who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant for an elderly patient who has not shown improvement with two different selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Among the following tricyclic antidepressants, which one is the most hazardous in case of overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dosulepin

      Explanation:

      The TCAs that are considered the most hazardous in overdose are amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin).

      Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.

      Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.

      Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 112 - Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest impact on the QTc interval? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest impact on the QTc interval?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 113 - What substance acts on the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the...

    Incorrect

    • What substance acts on the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the central nervous system to produce its effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregabalin

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 114 - Which drug is most likely to cause porphyria to occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is most likely to cause porphyria to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Porphyria: The Little Imitator

      Porphyria is a medical condition that is often referred to as the little imitator because it can mimic various common psychiatric presentations. This condition can be triggered by the use of certain psychotropic drugs, including barbiturates, benzodiazepines, sulpiride, and some mood stabilizers.

      Porphyria can manifest in different ways, and it is important to be aware of the symptoms. These may include abdominal pain, mental state changes, constipation, vomiting, and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 115 - Which group is likely to have the lowest pain relief effect after taking...

    Incorrect

    • Which group is likely to have the lowest pain relief effect after taking codeine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: African-American

      Explanation:

      Individuals of African and African-American descent exhibit the greatest prevalence of deficient CYP2D6 metabolism, resulting in a higher likelihood of being poor metabolisers. Codeine is classified as a prodrug, necessitating initial metabolism (specifically by CYP2D6) before it can produce pain-relieving effects.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 116 - What is a true statement about the symptoms that occur when discontinuing SSRI...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the symptoms that occur when discontinuing SSRI medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are more common with antidepressants with shorter half-lives

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 117 - Prior to initiating lithium treatment for an adult with a learning disability and...

    Incorrect

    • Prior to initiating lithium treatment for an adult with a learning disability and comorbid affective disorder, which baseline investigation should be conducted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      There is controversy surrounding the question, likely due to its poor wording. However, some sources suggest that the correct answer is EEG. This may be based on a one-time recommendation in the Frith Prescribing Guidelines from 2005, which suggests that an EEG is necessary before starting lithium due to its potential to lower the seizure threshold, which is particularly relevant for individuals with LD who are prone to seizures. However, this recommendation has not been supported by NICE, the BNF, of the Maudsley Guidelines, so it should be viewed with caution. NICE and the Maudsley do recommend that all individuals have an ECG before starting lithium, so choosing that answer would be a safe choice.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 118 - A junior researcher in the field of psychiatry is currently undertaking a six-month...

    Incorrect

    • A junior researcher in the field of psychiatry is currently undertaking a six-month research placement as part of their training program. They are collaborating with a team of psychopharmacologists who are studying the mechanism of action of a novel antidepressant medication.
      What is the primary group of molecules that most known antidepressants target?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transmembrane transporters

      Explanation:

      Most antidepressants and stimulants target monoamine transporters, which are crucial molecular targets. These transporters are also targeted by 30% of all psychotropic drugs. Another 30% of psychotropic drugs target G-protein-linked receptors, while enzymes are targeted by about 10% of these drugs. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a type of antidepressant that targets the enzyme monoamine oxidase. Ligand-gated and voltage-gated ion channels are targeted by 20% and 10% of all psychotropic drugs, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 119 - During your evaluation of a recently admitted patient, you observe that they are...

    Incorrect

    • During your evaluation of a recently admitted patient, you observe that they are taking a high dosage of haloperidol. What other factor in their medical history would increase their risk for QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      While certain factors in his medical history, such as smoking, may heighten the likelihood of a cardiac event, it is solely his bradycardia that is associated with QTc prolongation.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 120 - Which drug has a very small margin of safety between its therapeutic and...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug has a very small margin of safety between its therapeutic and toxic doses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Due to its low therapeutic index, lithium necessitates monitoring.

      Narrow Therapeutic Index Drugs

      Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are medications that have a small difference between the amount that causes a therapeutic effect and the amount that causes toxicity. In other words, the therapeutic index (TI) of these drugs is narrow. The TI is a ratio that compares the blood concentration at which a drug causes a therapeutic effect to the amount that causes death of toxicity.

      In clinical practice, the TI is the range of doses at which a medication appeared to be effective in clinical trials for a median of participants without unacceptable adverse effects. For most drugs, this range is wide enough, and the maximum plasma concentration of the drug achieved when the recommended doses of a drug are prescribed lie sufficiently above the minimum therapeutic concentration and sufficiently below the toxic concentration.

      However, some drugs have a narrow therapeutic index, which means that even small changes in dose of blood concentration can lead to serious adverse effects. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) defines a drug product as having an NTI when there is less than a twofold difference in the minimum toxic concentrations and minimum effective concentrations in the blood and safe and effective use of the drug requires careful titration and patient monitoring.

      Examples of drugs with a narrow therapeutic index include carbamazepine, lithium, phenytoin, warfarin, digoxin, and gentamicin. These drugs require close monitoring to ensure that the blood concentration remains within the therapeutic range and does not reach toxic levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 121 - What is the preferred medication for managing withdrawal symptoms in individuals experiencing alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred medication for managing withdrawal symptoms in individuals experiencing alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is a common issue in the UK, and Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is a benzodiazepine that is frequently used to treat it. This medication is safe, effective, and allows for flexible dosing. Acamprosate is another medication that is licensed for the treatment of alcohol cravings, while Carbamazepine may be used in cases where there is a risk of withdrawal seizures. Chlormethiazole, also known as Heminevrin, was once widely used for alcohol withdrawal but is now less commonly used due to its relative toxicity. Chlorpromazine, a typical antipsychotic, is not typically used in uncomplicated cases of alcohol withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 122 - You are employed at a psychiatric inpatient unit where several patients are taking...

    Incorrect

    • You are employed at a psychiatric inpatient unit where several patients are taking clozapine. Among the following patients, who would you suspect to have the lowest plasma clozapine levels if they were all taking the same dose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 25-year-old Caucasian male smoker

      Explanation:

      Younger patients, males, and smokers typically exhibit lower plasma levels of clozapine, while the Asian population tends to have higher levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 123 - What is the correct statement regarding adverse drug reactions (ADRs)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding adverse drug reactions (ADRs)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An ADR is a harmful outcome of a medication when used at a high dose

      Explanation:

      ADRs only occur when medications are used at ABNORMAL doses. (FALSE)

      Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) refer to the harmful effects associated with the use of a medication at a normal dose. These reactions are classified into two types: Type A and Type B. Type A reactions can be predicted from the pharmacology of the drug and are dose-dependent, meaning they can be reversed by withdrawing the drug. On the other hand, Type B reactions cannot be predicted from the known pharmacology of the drug and include allergic reactions.

      Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ADRs, while Type B reactions are less common. Allergic reactions are a type of Type B reaction and are further subdivided by Gell and Coombs into four types: Type I (IgE-mediated) reactions, Type II (cytotoxic) reactions, Type III (immune complex) reactions, and Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions. Proper identification and management of ADRs are crucial in ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 124 - What was the initial antipsychotic to be created? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the initial antipsychotic to be created?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Paul Charpentier synthesized the antipsychotic chlorpromazine in 1951, which led to the creation of additional phenothiazines and related compounds like thioxanthenes (flupentixol). Later on, alternative structures were discovered, such as butyrophenones (haloperidol), diphenylbutylpiperidine (Pimozide), and substituted benzamides (Sulpiride).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 125 - What is the presumed cause of the sexual dysfunction associated with SSRIs? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the presumed cause of the sexual dysfunction associated with SSRIs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-HT2 agonism

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of sexual behavior is caused by the activation of 5-HT2 receptors. However, this effect can be reversed by using 5-HT2 antagonists like cyproheptadine and 5-HT1a agonists like buspirone. These drugs are effective in treating sexual dysfunction caused by selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 126 - A 65-year-old individual reports experiencing a range of side effects after commencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old individual reports experiencing a range of side effects after commencing a combination of medications. Which of these symptoms would lead you to suspect that lithium is the culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metallic taste

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 127 - A young adult who has just begun taking olanzapine reports experiencing dizziness, euphoria,...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult who has just begun taking olanzapine reports experiencing dizziness, euphoria, and blurred vision upon sudden standing. What would be the most suitable replacement medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      The patient’s reported symptoms are indicative of postural hypotension, which is likely a side effect of the olanzapine medication they were given.

      Maudsley Guidelines: Antipsychotics for Postural Hypotension

      When postural hypotension is a concern, it may be necessary to switch to an antipsychotic that is less likely to cause this side effect. The following antipsychotics are recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines:

      – Amisulpride
      – Aripiprazole
      – Haloperidol
      – Sulpiride
      – Trifluoperazine

      These medications have a lower risk of causing postural hypotension compared to other antipsychotics such as risperidone, clozapine, olanzapine, paliperidone, quetiapine, and ziprasidone. It is important to discuss any concerns about side effects with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 128 - What option has the least likelihood of causing extrapyramidal side effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • What option has the least likelihood of causing extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 129 - What is a true statement about flumazenil? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about flumazenil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flumazenil is not currently licensed for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose in the UK

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is not authorized for treating benzodiazepine overdose in the UK, despite its widespread use. It works by competitively inhibiting the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABAA receptor, reversing the effects of benzodiazepines. Due to its short half-life of 60 minutes, it is important to note that multiple doses may be necessary in cases of benzodiazepine overdose.

      Flumazenil: A Selective GABAA Receptor Antagonist

      Flumazenil is a medication that selectively blocks the effects of benzodiazepines on the GABAA receptor. It is used to reverse the sedative effects caused by benzodiazepines, either partially or completely. Flumazenil works by competitively interacting with benzodiazepine receptors, which can reverse the binding of benzodiazepines to these receptors. It is administered intravenously and has a short half-life of about 60 minutes. The effects of flumazenil are usually shorter than those of benzodiazepines, and sedation may recur. Flumazenil also blocks non-benzodiazepine-agonists like zopiclone. However, it has no effect on other drugs such as barbiturates, ethanol, of other GABA-mimetic agents unless they act on the benzodiazepine receptor site. The hypnosedative effects of benzodiazepines are rapidly blocked within 1-2 minutes after intravenous administration, and the duration of action ranges from 20 to 50 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 130 - A 35-year-old female presents with secondary amenorrhea and is currently taking medication for...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents with secondary amenorrhea and is currently taking medication for bipolar disorder. What is the initial diagnostic test that should be performed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      While antipsychotics can cause secondary amenorrhoea by increasing prolactin levels, it is important to first rule out pregnancy as it is the most common cause of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 131 - What is an example of a biogenic amine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a biogenic amine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Histamine

      Explanation:

      Biogenic Amines: Understanding the Neurotransmitters

      Biogenic amines are a class of compounds that are derived from amino acids. These compounds play a crucial role in the functioning of the nervous system. Biogenic amine neurotransmitters include catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline, and dopamine), serotonin, and histamine. A useful mnemonic to remember these neurotransmitters is HANDS (Histamine, Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, Dopamine, Serotonin).

      Catecholamines are involved in the body’s response to stress and are responsible for the fight or flight response. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are catecholamines that are released by the adrenal glands in response to stress. Dopamine is involved in the reward system of the brain and is associated with pleasure and motivation.

      Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is involved in mood regulation, appetite, and sleep. It is also involved in the regulation of pain and the perception of pain.

      Histamine is involved in the immune response and is responsible for the symptoms of allergies. It is also involved in the regulation of sleep and wakefulness.

      Understanding the role of biogenic amines in the nervous system is crucial for the development of treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 132 - What is the most common side-effect of methylphenidate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common side-effect of methylphenidate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insomnia

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 133 - Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 134 - What is the antidepressant classification of a SARI? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the antidepressant classification of a SARI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 135 - What drug states are capable of eliciting a biological response? ...

    Incorrect

    • What drug states are capable of eliciting a biological response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A drug unbound in the plasma

      Explanation:

      The biological response to a drug can only be triggered by the portion of the drug that is not bound.

      Drug Distribution in the Body

      After being absorbed, drugs can distribute to different parts of the body, such as fat, plasma, muscle, brain tissue, and glands like the thyroid. However, for a drug to have an effect, it must be present in the plasma in an unbound state. This means that the drug molecules are not attached to any other molecules and are free to interact with their target receptors. The concentration of unbound drug in the plasma is what determines the drug’s effectiveness and potential side effects. Therefore, understanding a drug’s distribution in the body is crucial for determining the appropriate dosage and monitoring its effects.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 136 - A patient in her 60s with psoriasis has observed that her condition has...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in her 60s with psoriasis has observed that her condition has deteriorated since commencing a new medication. What factor would you suspect to be the most likely cause of exacerbating her psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Medications that can exacerbate psoriasis symptoms include:
      – Lithium
      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
      – Beta blockers
      – Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 137 - A 72 year old man with a progressive history of breathlessness is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old man with a progressive history of breathlessness is brought to the emergency department by his daughter. She reports that his breathing has recently worsened. Upon diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, he is prescribed several new medications. However, two weeks later, he returns to the emergency department with his daughter reporting that he has stopped sleeping, become agitated, and is incessantly talking. What is the most probable cause of his new presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Budesonide

      Explanation:

      Budesonide is a type of steroid that is often administered through an inhaler to manage asthma symptoms. However, it has been noted that the use of inhaled steroids can trigger episodes of hypomania and mania. This information was reported in a study by E Brown et al. titled The psychiatric side effects of corticosteroids, which was published in the Annals of Allergy, Asthma & Immunology in 1999.

      Drug-Induced Mania: Evidence and Precipitating Drugs

      There is strong evidence that mania can be triggered by certain drugs, according to Peet (1995). These drugs include levodopa, corticosteroids, anabolic-androgenic steroids, and certain classes of antidepressants such as tricyclic and monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

      Additionally, Peet (2012) suggests that there is weaker evidence that mania can be induced by dopaminergic anti-Parkinsonian drugs, thyroxine, iproniazid and isoniazid, sympathomimetic drugs, chloroquine, baclofen, alprazolam, captopril, amphetamine, and phencyclidine.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for drug-induced mania and to monitor patients closely for any signs of symptoms. Patients should also be informed of the risks associated with these medications and advised to report any unusual changes in mood of behavior.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 138 - A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling unwell....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling unwell. They have developed mouth ulcers and a rash since starting a new medication two weeks ago, which was prescribed by their psychiatrist. The patient cannot remember the name of the drug they were started on. What medication do you suspect they have been prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a condition that can be triggered by various anticonvulsants including lamotrigine, appears to align with the patient’s medical history.

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin condition that can be caused by medication use of infection. Anticonvulsants, particularly lamotrigine, are often the cause. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, fatigue, and the appearance of ulcers and lesions in the mucous membranes. A rash of round lesions also appears on the face, trunk, arms, legs, and soles of the feet. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 139 - Which of the following findings would provide the strongest evidence for a diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings would provide the strongest evidence for a diagnosis of lithium toxicity in a man who has just started taking lithium and is reporting feeling unwell during a clinic visit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 140 - Which medication(s) have been associated with extrapyramidal side effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication(s) have been associated with extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      EPSE’s have been linked to the use of fluoxetine, and all of the treatment options are utilized to address them.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 141 - How can one distinguish between serotonin syndrome and NMS? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can one distinguish between serotonin syndrome and NMS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speed of onset following initiation of medication

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome may sometimes result in increased levels of CPK.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 142 - What is a true statement about the cytochrome P450 system? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the cytochrome P450 system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CYP2D6 shows the largest phenotypic variation amongst the cytochromes

      Explanation:

      The liver plays a significant role in breaking down clozapine through the action of CYP450 enzymes, with CYP1A2, CYP3A4, and CYP2D6 being particularly involved in the process.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 143 - An older adult on haloperidol for a psychotic disorder has an extended QTc...

    Incorrect

    • An older adult on haloperidol for a psychotic disorder has an extended QTc interval on a routine ECG. What antipsychotic medication is thought to have the least impact on the QTc interval and could be a viable substitute?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 144 - What is the primary way in which agomelatine works? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary way in which agomelatine works?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Melatonin receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine is a newly developed antidepressant that primarily targets the melatonin receptors, but its antidepressant properties stem from its ability to block serotonin receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 145 - Which of the following carries a specific licence for nocturnal enuresis in adolescents?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following carries a specific licence for nocturnal enuresis in adolescents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 146 - What is the enzyme that shows increased levels in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme that shows increased levels in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CPK

      Explanation:

      Elevated levels of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) are observed in NMS.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 147 - Regarding the pharmacokinetics of psychotropic drugs, which statement is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the pharmacokinetics of psychotropic drugs, which statement is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine induces its own biotransformation

      Explanation:

      Enzyme induction can accelerate drug metabolism and increase the risk of inadequate treatment. This process is often triggered by drugs such as ethanol, rifampin, barbiturates (e.g. phenobarbital, primidone), phenytoin, and carbamazepine. Carbamazepine, for instance, induces its own metabolism through cytochrome P450 enzymes 3A4 and 2E1. Typically, enzyme induction boosts glucuronyl transferase activity, which enhances drug conjugation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 148 - Which drug is most likely to increase the likelihood of serious cardiac events?...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is most likely to increase the likelihood of serious cardiac events?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thioridazine

      Explanation:

      Which two medications have been associated with sudden death and subsequently removed from the UK market due to their effect on the QTc interval?

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 149 - What substance has a comparable impact to khat? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance has a comparable impact to khat?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine

      Explanation:

      For centuries, individuals from the East coast of Africa have been chewing khat, which produces effects that stem from two phenylalkylamines, cathinone and cathine, both of which are structurally similar to amphetamine. The physical effects of khat include dry mouth, dizziness, impotence, cirrhosis, tachycardia, and tachypnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 150 - What is a true statement about valproate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about valproate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of congenital malformations is dose dependent

      Explanation:

      Valproate can pass through the placenta, increasing the likelihood of birth defects. The extent of risk during pregnancy is not fully understood, but it is believed to be influenced by the dosage. Children who were exposed to valproate in the womb may have a lower IQ, with those aged 6 showing an average decrease of 7-10 points compared to those exposed to other antiepileptic medications.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 151 - Choose the medication with the most extended half-life: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the medication with the most extended half-life:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrazepam

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.

      Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 152 - What is a typical adverse effect associated with the use of carbamazepine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a typical adverse effect associated with the use of carbamazepine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diplopia

      Explanation:

      Diplopia is a frequently occurring side-effect, while the other options are infrequent of extremely infrequent side-effects of carbamazepine.

      Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, Contraindications, Warnings, and Side-Effects

      Carbamazepine, also known as Tegretol, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used for neuropathic pain, bipolar disorder, and other conditions. The drug works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, carbamazepine has notable contraindications, including a history of bone marrow depression and combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). It also carries warnings for serious dermatological reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson syndrome.

      Common side-effects of carbamazepine include leucopenia, ataxia, dizziness, somnolence, vomiting, nausea, urticaria, and fatigue. Other side-effects include thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia, oedema, fluid retention, weight increase, hyponatraemia, and blood osmolarity decreased due to an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading in rare cases to water intoxication accompanied by lethargy, vomiting, headache, confusional state, neurological disorders, diplopia, accommodation disorders (e.g. blurred vision), and dry mouth.

      In summary, carbamazepine is a medication with multiple uses, but it also carries significant contraindications, warnings, and side-effects that should be carefully considered before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 153 - A child is given a single dose of 160mg of medication Y and...

    Incorrect

    • A child is given a single dose of 160mg of medication Y and their blood levels are measured at different times. At four hours, the blood level is 80 mg/ml, at eight hours it is 40 mg/ml, at twelve hours it is 20 mg/ml, and at twenty-four hours it is 5 mg/ml. What is the half-life of medication Y?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 hours

      Explanation:

      A drug’s half-life is an estimation of the time it takes for the drug’s initial concentration in the body to decrease by half. For example, if a drug’s half-life is 4 hours and the initial concentration is 160 mg, it’s estimated that 80 mg will remain after 4 hours.

      Other important pharmacokinetic values include the volume of distribution, which is the apparent volume that contains the drug, concentration, which is the amount of drug per unit volume, elimination rate constant, which is the rate at which the drug is removed from the body, and clearance, which is the volume of blood cleared of the drug per unit time. When the overall intake of a drug is equal to the rate of elimination, this is known as steady state, which is typically achieved after approximately 4-5 half life times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 154 - Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome when administering antipsychotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Being female

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 155 - A patient prescribed quetiapine (500mg once daily) at the age of 65 had...

    Incorrect

    • A patient prescribed quetiapine (500mg once daily) at the age of 65 had a recent ECG which showed a QTc interval of 510 ms. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop quetiapine completely and then switch to aripiprazole and refer to cardiology

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole and olanzapine are preferred over haloperidol due to its high impact on the QTc interval. Risperidone can also be considered as a viable option in cases where the QTc interval is elevated.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 156 - What is a licensed treatment for bulimia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a licensed treatment for bulimia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 157 - What is an example of a second generation H1 antihistamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a second generation H1 antihistamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cetirizine

      Explanation:

      The second generation of H1 antihistamines exhibit limited ability to cross the blood-brain barrier, leading to their non-sedating properties. Furthermore, they possess greater receptor specificity and do not produce significant anticholinergic effects. These characteristics make them a more desirable option for managing allergic conditions, as they minimize the risk of adverse effects.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 158 - A 45-year-old woman taking medication for her depression experiences dry mouth and blurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman taking medication for her depression experiences dry mouth and blurred vision. Which psychotropic medication is most likely causing these side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, urinary retention, and dry skin, are commonly associated with Amitriptyline and other tricyclic antidepressants.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 159 - What product is licensed to assist individuals in quitting smoking? ...

    Incorrect

    • What product is licensed to assist individuals in quitting smoking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline is a medication that helps people quit smoking by partially activating specific nicotine receptors in the body.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 160 - What is an example of a common antipsychotic medication? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a common antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulpiride

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 161 - Which medication is metabolized into nortriptyline as its active form? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication is metabolized into nortriptyline as its active form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants with Active Metabolites

      Many antidepressants have active metabolites that can affect the body’s response to the medication. For example, amitriptyline has nortriptyline as an active metabolite, while clomipramine has desmethyl-clomipramine. Other antidepressants with active metabolites include dosulepin, doxepin, imipramine, lofepramine, fluoxetine, mirtazapine, trazodone, and venlafaxine.

      These active metabolites can have different effects on the body compared to the original medication. For example, nortriptyline is a more potent inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake than amitriptyline. Similarly, desipramine, the active metabolite of imipramine and lofepramine, has a longer half-life and is less sedating than the original medication.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the active metabolites of antidepressants when prescribing medication and monitoring patients for side effects and efficacy.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 162 - Which of the options below is not an accepted method for treating depression?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not an accepted method for treating depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zotepine

      Explanation:

      Zotepine, which has been utilized globally to manage schizophrenia, has been removed from the UK market due to its potential to trigger seizures.

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 163 - As a healthcare provider, what tests should be conducted before starting agomelatine in...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare provider, what tests should be conducted before starting agomelatine in a patient with depression? Additionally, what follow-up assessments should be performed at regular intervals.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver function tests

      Explanation:

      To avoid potential liver damage, it is recommended to conduct liver function tests (LFTs) before starting agomelatine and periodically at 3, 6, 12, and 24 weeks after beginning treatment. If serum transaminases levels exceed three times the upper normal limit of if symptoms of liver disorder arise, agomelatine treatment should be discontinued.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 164 - What statement accurately describes the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can be used in both males and females

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management

      Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 165 - What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for NMDA receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Memantine

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 166 - If a researcher is studying a new drug for schizophrenia that follows first...

    Incorrect

    • If a researcher is studying a new drug for schizophrenia that follows first order kinetics for elimination at a rate of 10% per minute, and 100 mg of the drug is initially present in the plasma, what is the amount of the drug that will be eliminated after three minutes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 27.1 mg

      Explanation:

      The given scenario follows first order kinetics, where the elimination rate of a drug depends on its concentration. A 100 mg dose of the drug is administered, with a 10% elimination rate per minute. After 1 minute, 10 mg of the drug is eliminated, leaving 90 mg. After 2 minutes, 9 mg is eliminated, leaving 81 mg. After 3 minutes, 8.1 mg is eliminated, resulting in a total of 27.1 mg eliminated.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 167 - When is the highest risk period for agranulocytosis caused by clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • When is the highest risk period for agranulocytosis caused by clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4-18 weeks

      Explanation:

      Agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, is a rare side effect of clozapine occurring in approximately 1% of patients. The period of maximum risk for developing agranulocytosis is between 4-18 weeks after starting treatment. It is important for patients taking clozapine to have regular blood tests and be registered with the Clozaril Patient Monitoring Service to monitor for this side effect. It is worth noting that the risk of agranulocytosis is not related to the dose of clozapine. For more information on the treatment of schizophrenia, the book Contemporary Issues in the Treatment of Schizophrenia edited by Shriqui CL and Nasrallah HA may be of interest.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 168 - What medications have the potential to cause elevated levels of lithium in the...

    Incorrect

    • What medications have the potential to cause elevated levels of lithium in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 169 - A 24-year-old male patient with a history of hallucinations and delusions was started...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male patient with a history of hallucinations and delusions was started on multiple medications by a psychiatrist. However, on the second day of treatment, he developed excessive sweating, fever, agitation, and aggressive behavior. The psychiatrist continued with the medications, which were eventually stopped after 4 days. Over the next few days, the patient's condition worsened, and he developed diarrhea and sustained high-grade fever. He was transferred to a hospital, where he was found to have hypertonia in all four limbs, mainly in the lower extremities, and hyper-reflexia, including bilateral sustained ankle clonus.

      These signs and symptoms are most helpful in distinguishing between serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyper-reflexia

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 170 - A clinical trial involving participants with depression administered an intravenous infusion of a...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial involving participants with depression administered an intravenous infusion of a trial drug, while the control arm received midazolam (benzodiazepine). Within 24 hours of the infusion, those in the active arm of the trial exhibited a higher average response on the clinical rating scale and a greater number of responders overall. However, notable side effects were observed in the active trial arm, including dizziness, blurred vision, headache, nausea of vomiting, dry mouth, poor coordination, poor concentration, feelings of dissociation, and restlessness. What is the most likely drug used in the active arm of the trial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine, typically used in emergency medicine and paediatric anaesthesia, has been found to possess antidepressant properties and is currently being studied for its rapid onset efficacy. However, its acute side effect of inducing dissociation has raised concerns about its suitability for individuals with psychotic symptoms of emotionally unstable personality disorder.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 171 - What is the estimated volume in which a drug is distributed throughout the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated volume in which a drug is distributed throughout the body based on the plasma concentration of 0.1 mg/L after administering a 50 mg dose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 500 L

      Explanation:

      The voltage drop (Vd) is equal to the ratio of the applied voltage (A) to the circuit resistance (C). Therefore, in this case, Vd is equal to 500 volts, as calculated by dividing 50 volts by 0.1 ohms.

      Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology

      The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.

      The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.

      The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 172 - A male adolescent patient reports experiencing erectile dysfunction and premature ejaculation after starting...

    Incorrect

    • A male adolescent patient reports experiencing erectile dysfunction and premature ejaculation after starting antipsychotic medication. Which receptor site is responsible for the antipsychotic effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: alpha 1

      Explanation:

      Men may experience difficulties with achieving erections and ejaculation when taking medications that inhibit peripheral alpha 1-adrenoceptors. Antipsychotics can lead to disrupted sexual arousal due to their antimuscarinic effects. Impairment of both desire and arousal may occur as a result of dopaminergic blockade and hyperprolactinaemia. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants, which increase serotonin activity, have been associated with anorgasmia.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 173 - What cardiac condition can be a potential side effect of tricyclic antidepressants? ...

    Incorrect

    • What cardiac condition can be a potential side effect of tricyclic antidepressants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have side effects that are linked to their anticholinergic, antihistaminergic, and antiadrenergic properties. Even when taken at recommended doses, TCAs can lead to prolonged QT, flattened T wave, depressed ST segment, and tachycardia. Overdosing on TCAs can be fatal and may result in cardiac arrhythmias, which can occur approximately 72-96 hours after the overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 174 - What factor is most likely to increase the levels of clozapine in the...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most likely to increase the levels of clozapine in the bloodstream?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caffeine

      Explanation:

      CYP1A2 is responsible for metabolizing caffeine, and it competes with other drugs that are also metabolized by this enzyme. When caffeine is consumed excessively, it can deplete the CYP1A2, leaving none available to metabolize clozapine, resulting in increased levels of clozapine. However, this is not a common issue in clinical settings.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 175 - What is a regulator of glutamate receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a regulator of glutamate receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acamprosate

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 176 - What combination of substances is included in Suboxone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What combination of substances is included in Suboxone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naloxone and buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 177 - What is a true statement about serotonin syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about serotonin syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertonia is a characteristic finding

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 178 - What substance is eliminated from the body through urine without undergoing any chemical...

    Incorrect

    • What substance is eliminated from the body through urine without undergoing any chemical changes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 179 - Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In Zero order reactions the half-life decreases as the concentration falls

      Explanation:

      In contrast to first order reactions, drugs that exhibit zero order kinetics do not have a fixed half-life, as the rate of drug elimination remains constant regardless of the drug concentration in the plasma. The relationship between time and plasma concentration in zero order kinetics is linear, whereas in first order reactions, the half-life remains constant.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 180 - Which is the accurate half-life of donepezil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the accurate half-life of donepezil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70 hours

      Explanation:

      Without prior knowledge, it would be difficult to accurately answer this question. However, one could make an educated guess by eliminating the options of 5, 9, and: and narrowing down the possible answers.

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 181 - What is the method used by bodybuilders to alleviate the negative effects of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the method used by bodybuilders to alleviate the negative effects of misusing anabolic steroids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamoxifen

      Explanation:

      Anabolic Steroids: Uses, Misuse, and Complications

      Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone that have both anabolic and androgenic properties. They are commonly used by athletes to enhance performance and by individuals to improve physical appearance. However, their misuse is not uncommon, with nearly half of users of dedicated bodybuilding gyms admitting to taking anabolic agents. Misuse can lead to dependence, tolerance, and the development of psychiatric disorders such as aggression, psychosis, mania, and depression/anxiety.

      There are three common regimes practised by steroid misusers: ‘cycling’, ‘stacking’ and ‘pyramiding’. Anabolic steroids can be taken orally, injected intramuscularly, and applied topically in the form of creams and gels. Other drugs are also used by athletes, such as clenbuterol, ephedrine, thyroxine, insulin, tamoxifen, human chorionic Gonadotropin, diuretics, and growth hormone.

      Medical complications are common and can affect various systems, such as the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, hepatic, reproductive (males and females), dermatological, and other systems. Complications include muscular hypertrophy, increased blood pressure, decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cholestatic jaundice, benign and malignant liver tumours, testicular atrophy, sterility, gynaecomastia, breast tissue shrinkage, menstrual abnormalities, masculinisation, male-pattern baldness, acne, sleep apnoea, exacerbation of tic disorders, polycythaemia, altered immunity, and glucose intolerance.

      Anabolic steroids are a class C controlled drug and can only be obtained legally through a medical prescription. It is important to educate individuals about the risks and complications associated with their misuse and to promote safe and legal use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 182 - What is a true statement about opioid receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about opioid receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulation of mu receptors results in dopamine release from the ventral tegmental area

      Explanation:

      Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications

      Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.

      There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.

      Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 183 - A woman taking quetiapine has an ECG and is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman taking quetiapine has an ECG and is found to have a QTc of 410 ms. What is the appropriate next step in her treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue quetiapine and just continue with routine monitoring

      Explanation:

      It is advisable to maintain the medication and regular monitoring as a QTC of 410 ms is within the normal range.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 184 - Which statement about EPSEs is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about EPSEs is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anticholinergics are indicated in the treatment of tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Patients who develop TD who are prescribed an anticholinergic drug should not have this discontinued if possible.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 185 - Which one of the options below does not pertain to pharmacokinetic principles? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the options below does not pertain to pharmacokinetic principles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ingestion

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 186 - What category of antipsychotic does Sulpiride belong to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What category of antipsychotic does Sulpiride belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Substituted benzamide

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 187 - A 28-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder is being treated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium but shows incomplete response; persistent manic symptoms remain. Lithium blood levels are within the therapeutic range and you decide to start an adjunctive medication. An anticonvulsant is prescribed but the patient develops a rapidly spreading rash all over her chest, face and legs. She becomes systemically ill and requires hospitalization. What is the most probable causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Lamotrigine is prescribed to enhance the effectiveness of clozapine in treating schizophrenia that is resistant to clozapine. However, it is important to note that lamotrigine can cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a serious skin condition that requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, if a rash appears, treatment with lamotrigine should be discontinued promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 188 - What is the accurate definition of drug clearance? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate definition of drug clearance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The volume of plasma cleared of a drug over a specified time period

      Explanation:

      Drug Clearance: Understanding the Rate of Drug Removal from the Body

      Drug clearance refers to the efficiency of drug removal from the plasma, and is measured as the volume of plasma cleared of a drug over a specific time period. The unit of measurement for drug clearance is volume per time. Clearance of a drug involves both metabolism and excretion. When drug intake equals clearance, it is referred to as a steady state, which is usually achieved by 4.5 half-lives. The time taken to reach steady state depends on the half-life of the drug.

      There are two main types of clearance: hepatic and renal. Hepatic clearance involves the conversion of the parent drug into a different chemical entity by the liver enzymes, while renal clearance involves the removal of the drug from the plasma into the urine. The clearance of a drug can take one of two forms: zero and first-order kinetics. In zero-order reactions, the clearance of a drug is constant and not related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. This type of reaction is typically found when the material needed for the reaction to proceed (e.g. enzyme) is saturated. Ethanol and Phenytoin are good examples of this.

      Most drugs tend to follow first-order reactions, where the clearance is related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall by half. In first-order reactions, this is constant. In zero-order reactions, it gets progressively shorter.

      It is important to note that elimination and clearance are not the same. Elimination is the irreversible removal of the drug from the body, while clearance is a theoretical volume of blood that is cleared of the drug per unit of time, which is independent of the drug dose of concentration. Understanding drug clearance is crucial in determining the appropriate dosing regimen for a drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 189 - Which of the following is classified as a tertiary amine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as a tertiary amine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clomipramine

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.

      Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.

      Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 190 - Identify the option that represents a secondary amine. ...

    Incorrect

    • Identify the option that represents a secondary amine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desipramine

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.

      Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.

      Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 191 - Which of the following is not an anticipated side effect of methylphenidate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not an anticipated side effect of methylphenidate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tinnitus

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 192 - What is a known complication associated with the use of valproate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known complication associated with the use of valproate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The use of valproate can lead to pancreatitis, which is a known and potentially fatal complication.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 193 - A child experiences anaphylactic shock following the administration of penicillin. What type of...

    Incorrect

    • A child experiences anaphylactic shock following the administration of penicillin. What type of hypersensitivity reaction have they experienced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type I

      Explanation:

      Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) refer to the harmful effects associated with the use of a medication at a normal dose. These reactions are classified into two types: Type A and Type B. Type A reactions can be predicted from the pharmacology of the drug and are dose-dependent, meaning they can be reversed by withdrawing the drug. On the other hand, Type B reactions cannot be predicted from the known pharmacology of the drug and include allergic reactions.

      Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ADRs, while Type B reactions are less common. Allergic reactions are a type of Type B reaction and are further subdivided by Gell and Coombs into four types: Type I (IgE-mediated) reactions, Type II (cytotoxic) reactions, Type III (immune complex) reactions, and Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions. Proper identification and management of ADRs are crucial in ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 194 - Which agent is a significant inhibitor of CYP3A4? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which agent is a significant inhibitor of CYP3A4?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grapefruit juice

      Explanation:

      Grapefruit juice has been found to inhibit the activity of CYP3A4, an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the metabolism of various important drugs including aripiprazole, quetiapine, and tertiary amines like amitriptyline and imipramine. As a result, consumption of grapefruit juice can lead to increased levels of these drugs in the body. On the other hand, other drugs that induce the activity of CYP3A4 can decrease the levels of these drugs.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 195 - A 45-year-old woman who is on methadone treatment for opioid addiction needs to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who is on methadone treatment for opioid addiction needs to take antipsychotic medication for a new episode of psychosis. She has had a positive response to haloperidol in the past. What is the most crucial test to monitor potential side effects of this medication combination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      When using methadone and haloperidol together, it is important to closely monitor the QTc interval due to their significant effect on it. EEG and electrolyte screening are not necessary. While liver function tests may be useful to perform periodically, they are not the primary concern with this combination. It is important to be cautious of respiratory depression when using high doses of methadone in combination with other sedative medications, but respiratory function tests are unlikely to provide helpful information.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 196 - What is a known negative effect that can occur with the use of...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known negative effect that can occur with the use of clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      It is unclear whether cardiomyopathy associated with clozapine use is a result of undetected myocarditis in its early stages of if it is a separate and chronic cardiac condition.

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 197 - What is the preferred medication for treating alcohol withdrawal in a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred medication for treating alcohol withdrawal in a patient who has significant liver damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Sedatives and Liver Disease

      Sedatives are commonly used for their calming effects, but many of them are metabolized in the liver. Therefore, caution must be taken when administering sedatives to patients with liver disease. The Maudsley Guidelines recommend using low doses of the following sedatives in patients with hepatic impairment: lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam, and zopiclone. It is important to note that zopiclone should also be used with caution and at low doses in this population. Proper management of sedative use in patients with liver disease can help prevent further damage to the liver and improve overall patient outcomes.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 198 - What is the cause of a hypertensive crisis in a patient taking an...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cause of a hypertensive crisis in a patient taking an MAOI who ingests tyramine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norepinephrine

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a condition caused by the blockade of dopamine receptors.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

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  • Question 199 - Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause hypotension, and it is believed that this...

    Incorrect

    • Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause hypotension, and it is believed that this effect is mediated by a specific type of receptor. Which receptor is thought to be responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha 1

      Explanation:

      Postural hypotension is a known side effect of alpha-1-blockade.

      Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects

      Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.

      Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.

      Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.

      Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
      Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
      Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
      Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
      Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
      Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
      Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
      Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
      Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
      Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Pimozide + + – + + + +++
      Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
      Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++

      Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.

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      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 200 - What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, including by typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) categories of by chemical structure. Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic that works as a dopamine D2 partial agonist, a weak 5HT1a partial agonist, and a 5HT2a receptor antagonist. It has a lower risk of causing movement disorders than typical antipsychotics and can also lower prolactin levels.

      Typical antipsychotics, developed in the 1950s, block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain and can cause various side effects, including extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. They are not selective for any of the four dopamine pathways in the brain.

      In elderly patients with dementia, antipsychotics are associated with an increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack, as well as a small increased risk of mortality. Prescribing guidelines for the elderly can be found in the British National Formulary (BNF).

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      • Psychopharmacology
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