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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She is on day 7 post-tonsillectomy and was recovering well until this morning when her mother noticed a small amount of blood on her pillow and fresh red blood in her mouth. Upon examination, the girl appears to be in good health, but there is a blood clot in her right tonsillar fossa with no active bleeding. Her vital signs are as follows:
Systolic blood pressure: 100 mmHg (normal range: 75-110)
Pulse: 96 bpm (normal range: 80-150)
Temperature: 36.8ºC (normal range: 35.5-37.5)
Respiratory rate: 24/min (normal range: 17-30)
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Review in 24 hours
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to ENT
Explanation:ENT assessment is necessary for all cases of post-tonsillectomy haemorrhage.
Any haemorrhage occurring more than 24 hours after a tonsillectomy is considered a secondary haemorrhage and can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial that all patients are managed by ENT in a hospital setting. Children may have difficulty quantifying blood loss as they may swallow the blood, making bleeding less noticeable.
It is incorrect to review the patient in 24 hours as this is an emergency situation. Similarly, reassuring the patient or referring them to paediatrics is not appropriate. Although tranexamic acid may be helpful, hospital admission is necessary for this surgical emergency and should be managed by ENT.
Complications after Tonsillectomy
Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, like any surgery, it carries some risks and potential complications. One of the most common complications is pain, which can last for up to six days after the procedure.
Another complication that can occur after tonsillectomy is haemorrhage, or bleeding. There are two types of haemorrhage that can occur: primary and secondary. Primary haemorrhage is the most common and occurs within the first 6-8 hours after surgery. It requires immediate medical attention and may require a return to the operating room.
Secondary haemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs between 5 and 10 days after surgery and is often associated with a wound infection. It is less common than primary haemorrhage, occurring in only 1-2% of all tonsillectomies. Treatment for secondary haemorrhage usually involves admission to the hospital and antibiotics, but severe bleeding may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?
Your Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male with a past history of depression is brought by his roommate to the emergency room with an overdose of an unknown substance.
His roommate found him unconscious in their apartment this morning and immediately called for an ambulance. There was an empty bottle of unlabelled pills on the kitchen counter which the patient admitted to taking.
The patient is currently unresponsive and has shallow breathing. He is hooked up to a ventilator and his vital signs are being closely monitored. There is evidence of recent vomiting and he has a high fever.
The patient has a history of suicidal ideation and his roommate is not sure where he obtained the pills from. Which of the following has he taken in overdose?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Aspirin Overdose: Symptoms and Management
Aspirin overdose can be potentially fatal, as its effects are dose-related. Unlike with paracetamol, there are many early clinical features of aspirin overdose. These include nausea and vomiting, sweating, hyperventilation, vertigo, and tinnitus. More severe manifestations of overdose include lethargy, coma, seizures, hypotension, heart block, and pulmonary edema.
Immediate referral to the hospital and close monitoring with supportive measures are necessary for managing aspirin overdose. In severe cases, dialysis may be indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Correct
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A 24-year-old-man schedules an appointment due to a nose injury he sustained while playing soccer two days ago. He reports that his nose bled for a few minutes after the injury but has not bled since. He also mentions that his nose did not appear deformed after the incident. He has not sought medical attention before this appointment and is generally healthy with no long-term medications.
During the examination, you notice no signs of nasal bone deviation, but there is significant swelling in the surrounding soft tissue. On anterior rhinoscopy, you observe a bilateral fluctuant swelling of the nasal septum that almost blocks the nostrils.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Admit directly to the hospital for same day ENT assessment
Explanation:If there is bilateral purple swelling of the nasal septum, it is likely that the patient has a septal haematoma. It is important to examine the nose for this condition, even if the injury seems minor. A septal haematoma can cause permanent damage to the septal cartilage within 24 hours due to obstructed blood flow. If suspected, the patient should be referred to the on-call ENT team for urgent assessment.
If a nasal bone fracture is suspected, the patient should also be referred to the ENT emergency clinic. This type of fracture can be corrected under local anaesthetic within 2-3 weeks of the injury.
Facial bone x-rays are not useful in diagnosing nasal bone fractures.
If the patient has only experienced simple epistaxis without any other nasal injury, Naseptin may be appropriate.
If there is a septal deviation, routine ENT referral may be necessary. However, if there is any uncertainty, it is best to seek advice from an ENT specialist.
Nasal Septal Haematoma: A Complication of Nasal Trauma
Nasal septal haematoma is a serious complication that can occur after even minor nasal trauma. It is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The most common symptom is nasal obstruction, but pain and rhinorrhoea may also be present. On examination, a bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum is typically seen. It is important to differentiate this from a deviated septum, which will be firm upon probing.
Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent irreversible septal necrosis, which can occur within 3-4 days if left untreated. This is caused by pressure-related ischaemia of the cartilage, leading to necrosis and potentially resulting in a ‘saddle-nose’ deformity. Management typically involves surgical drainage and intravenous antibiotics. It is crucial to be aware of this complication and to promptly seek medical attention if nasal trauma occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old patient had a tonsillectomy 4 days ago. His father has brought him to the clinic as earlier today he noticed a small amount of bright red bleeding from his mouth. He is otherwise recovering well and has been eating and drinking normally.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's bleeding?Your Answer: No intervention required
Correct Answer: Refer immediately to ENT for assessment
Explanation:If a patient experiences bleeding after a tonsillectomy, it is important to seek urgent assessment from the operating team. While simple analgesia may be appropriate for those experiencing only pain, the presence of bleeding requires immediate attention. Prescribing oral antibiotics in the community would not be appropriate in this context, and techniques such as silver nitrate cautery should only be performed by a specialist after a thorough assessment.
Complications after Tonsillectomy
Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, like any surgery, it carries some risks and potential complications. One of the most common complications is pain, which can last for up to six days after the procedure.
Another complication that can occur after tonsillectomy is haemorrhage, or bleeding. There are two types of haemorrhage that can occur: primary and secondary. Primary haemorrhage is the most common and occurs within the first 6-8 hours after surgery. It requires immediate medical attention and may require a return to the operating room.
Secondary haemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs between 5 and 10 days after surgery and is often associated with a wound infection. It is less common than primary haemorrhage, occurring in only 1-2% of all tonsillectomies. Treatment for secondary haemorrhage usually involves admission to the hospital and antibiotics, but severe bleeding may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child presents with a sore throat and polymorphous rash. He has had a fever for five to six days. He is well, drinking fluids, not vomiting, and passing urine normally.
On examination, he is alert, well hydrated with no photophobia or neck stiffness. His temperature is 38.7°C, HR 140, RR 30, and CRT<2 sec. His chest is clear.
He has generalised blanching macular rash and bilateral conjunctival injection. His lips are dry and chapped, tonsils are erythematous with no exudate. His eardrums look normal and he has moderate cervical lymphadenopathy. Urine dipstick is positive for protein and leucocytes.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Admit child to hospital
Correct Answer: Give penicillin V, take throat swab and send home with worsening advice
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a leading cause of acquired heart disease in children in the UK. Although its prevalence is low, the risk of complications is high due to late diagnosis. As such, it is important to have a good understanding of the disease, which may be tested in the AKT exam.
The exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, but it is believed to be due to a microbiological toxin. If left untreated, it can lead to coronary aneurysms. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, consider it in children with fever lasting over five days and who have four of the following five features: bilateral conjunctival injection, change in mucous membranes in the upper respiratory tract, change in the extremities, polymorphous rash, or cervical lymphadenopathy. In rare cases, incomplete or atypical Kawasaki disease may be diagnosed with fewer features.
To help remember the features of Kawasaki disease, think All Red + Cervical Lymphadenopathy. This stands for red eyes, red mouth, red rash, red hands, and cervical lymphadenopathy. By being aware of these symptoms, healthcare professionals can diagnose and treat Kawasaki disease promptly, reducing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over the past two months. On examination, you palpate a diffuse midline swelling which moves with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. There are no other neck lumps or focal nodules, and the patient's voice is normal with no hoarseness. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy or stridor. The patient has no significant past medical history or family history.
He reports feeling slightly more fatigued and has gained some weight over the past few months but otherwise feels well. He notes that the swelling in his neck has not changed in size since he first noticed it.
Thyroid function tests reveal hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Manage the hypothyroidism in primary care
Correct Answer: Repeat the thyroid function test in four to six weeks
Explanation:Thyroid Swelling: Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer
Note that it is important to clarify descriptions and findings during a patient’s history and examination. For instance, a patient may describe a lump when it is actually a diffuse swelling. According to NICE guidelines, an unexplained thyroid lump warrants a suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. However, other factors to consider during the assessment include a solitary nodule increasing in size, a history of neck irradiation, family history of an endocrine tumor, unexplained hoarseness or voice changes, cervical lymphadenopathy, very young or elderly patients. Patients with symptoms of tracheal compression should be admitted immediately to the hospital.
In cases where a thyroid swelling doesn’t meet any of the urgent or immediate referral criteria, a thyroid function blood test should be conducted. If the test reveals hypothyroidism, it may explain the patient’s weight gain and tiredness. Patients with abnormal thyroid function and a goitre are unlikely to have thyroid cancer and can be managed in primary care. Those with a goitre and normal thyroid function tests can be referred non-urgently to a thyroid surgeon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of persistent nasal discharge on his right side and facial pressure that worsens when he bends forward. He frequently breathes through his mouth because his nose is obstructed. He has a history of asthma and has been smoking for 6 pack-years.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Referral to ENT
Explanation:Unilateral symptoms should raise concern for patients with chronic rhinosinusitis. The typical presentation includes facial pain, frontal pressure worsened by bending forward, clear nasal discharge (if due to allergies), and difficulty breathing through the nose. Post-nasal drip may also cause a chronic cough. However, if the symptoms are only on one side, it is considered a red flag and warrants a referral to an ENT specialist. The standard management for chronic sinusitis involves avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and irrigating the nasal passages with saline solution. Loratadine may be helpful if the cause is related to allergies.
Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.
Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.
In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with tinnitus.
Which of the following statements about tinnitus is correct?Your Answer: There is no treatment for tinnitus
Correct Answer: Tinnitus may be a sign of a brain tumour
Explanation:Myths and Facts About Tinnitus
Tinnitus, the perception of sound in the absence of external sound, is a common condition that affects around 10% of adults in the UK. However, there are many myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition.
One myth is that tinnitus may be a sign of a brain tumour. While unilateral tinnitus may be a sign of an acoustic neuroma, this is rare.
Another myth is that tinnitus is usually caused by drugs. While over 200 drugs are reported to cause tinnitus, drugs are not the commonest cause.
A third myth is that there is no treatment for tinnitus. However, a hearing aid can often help, and relaxation techniques or background music may also be beneficial.
Finally, some people believe that tinnitus is rare in the absence of ear disease and that it is usually constant in severity. In fact, tinnitus can have a wide variety of causes and symptoms, and many cases have no identifiable cause. Symptoms may come and go, and most cases of tinnitus are mild and improve over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of persistent tinnitus in her left ear for the past 5 months. She has also observed a gradual decline in her hearing ability in the same ear. Upon examination, both ears appear normal. Rinne's test shows air conduction greater than bone conduction in the left ear, and Weber's test lateralises to the right ear. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meniere's disease
Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:The typical presentation of vestibular schwannoma involves a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. On the other hand, the symptoms of acoustic neuroma may vary depending on the cranial nerve affected. In this case, the patient’s tinnitus and hearing loss suggest that the vestibulocochlear nerve is affected, and vertigo may also be present. Sensorineural hearing loss is observed in acoustic neuroma, whereas otosclerosis, impacted wax, and cholesteatoma cause conductive hearing loss. Meniere’s disease is characterized by progressive hearing loss that fluctuates in severity depending on the attacks.
Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.
If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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