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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a single enlarged lymph node...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a single enlarged lymph node on the left side of her neck. She reports first noticing it during a cold she had about four weeks ago, and it has since increased in size, causing her to become more worried. During the examination, you observe a cervical lymph node with a diameter of 3 cm. There are no other abnormal findings. Routine blood tests reveal mild normochromic normocytic anemia and an elevated ESR of 72, but are otherwise normal.

      What is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urgent suspected cancer referral

      Correct Answer: CXR

      Explanation:

      Suspected Hodgkin’s Lymphoma in Primary Care

      This patient’s presentation of a solitary enlarged lymph node, mild anaemia, and raised ESR falls within the age range for possible Hodgkin’s lymphoma. While constitutional symptoms are only present in a minority of cases, it is important to consider this diagnosis and refer urgently for excision biopsy of the lymph node. CXR and CT are important for staging, but not for confirming the diagnosis in primary care. Rapidly enlarging neck masses of greater than three weeks duration should be referred urgently to a specialist without first arranging imaging. Upper GI pathology is less likely given the absence of symptoms, and routine referral to haematology is not appropriate. NICE guidelines recommend considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for Hodgkin’s lymphoma in adults presenting with unexplained lymphadenopathy, taking into account any associated symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      67.4
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  • Question 2 - A 44-year-old left-handed man who has played drums for years complains of hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old left-handed man who has played drums for years complains of hearing loss. He rests the drumsticks in his left hand and his upper arm on that side tends to cover the ear.
      What is the most likely finding on audiogram?

      Your Answer: A bilateral mixed hearing loss at all frequencies

      Correct Answer: A right-sided high frequency sensorineural hearing loss

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Hearing Loss: A Case Study on Rifle Shooting

      Rifle shooting can lead to hearing loss, particularly high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss. In this case study, a man who is left-handed and shoots with the gun resting against his left shoulder is more likely to experience hearing loss in his right ear due to the masking effect. Ageing can also cause sensorineural hearing loss, which typically starts in the high-frequency range.

      However, a right-sided conductive hearing loss is not caused by noise exposure. Conductive hearing loss occurs when there is a problem conducting sound through the outer ear, tympanic membrane, or middle ear. Causes of this include wax, serous otitis media, suppurative otitis media, perforated eardrum, and otosclerosis.

      A bilateral mixed hearing loss at all frequencies is also not caused by noise exposure. Mixed hearing loss is caused when conductive damage in the outer or middle ear is combined with sensorineural damage in the inner ear or auditory nerve.

      Similarly, a left-sided low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss is not an early feature of noise-induced deafness. Low-frequency hearing loss may be related to conductive hearing loss, but as a sensorineural hearing loss progresses, the initial high-frequency loss spreads through lower frequencies. Low-frequency hearing loss eventually occurs in Menière’s disease.

      In summary, understanding the different types of hearing loss is crucial in identifying the causes and potential treatments. In the case of rifle shooting, high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss is a common occurrence, but other types of hearing loss may have different causes and require different interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      70.2
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  • Question 3 - A 22-month-old girl comes in with mild unilateral ear pain that started yesterday....

    Correct

    • A 22-month-old girl comes in with mild unilateral ear pain that started yesterday. She keeps tugging at her left ear. There is no discharge. She has no rashes and is still eating and drinking normally. She has not had any fevers.

      During the examination, her temperature is 36.9ºC and her pulse is 105 beats per minute. She appears to be in good health. Both of her ears appear to be normal.

      What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Monitor symptoms

      Explanation:

      This young boy is experiencing earache on one side for the past 24 hours. However, the rest of his medical history is normal and there are no signs of infection during the examination. The recommended management approach is to advise the use of pain relief medication such as paracetamol and ibuprofen for relief of symptoms and to monitor the situation. If the diagnosis is otitis externa, acetic acid spray and flucloxacillin can be used. For bilateral otitis media that has persisted for at least 4 days, amoxicillin is recommended. For children over 2 years of age, the British National Formulary suggests the use of dexamethasone, neomycin, and acetic acid spray.

      In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      135.4
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  • Question 4 - A 30 year old female smoker presents with painful aphthous ulcers and has...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female smoker presents with painful aphthous ulcers and has been using a topical analgesic (benzydamine hydrochloride gel) for 3 weeks without relief. There is no indication of joint or bowel issues in her medical history or physical examination. She is in good health otherwise. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to secondary care

      Explanation:

      If an oral ulcer persists for more than 3 weeks without explanation, it is important to refer the patient to secondary care urgently to rule out the possibility of malignancy. While smoking is a risk factor for both oral malignancy and aphthous ulcers, it is not a reason for referral. Interestingly, quitting smoking can actually make aphthous ulcers worse. Over-the-counter local analgesics like Difflam (benzydamine hydrochloride) and Bonjela can provide relief from symptoms, but there is no evidence that they can reduce the frequency or duration of ulceration. Some evidence suggests that antibacterial mouthwashes (such as chlorhexidine) and topical corticosteroids (such as hydrocortisone oromucosal tablets) can help to shorten the duration and severity of symptoms, but they do not reduce the frequency of recurrence.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      101.1
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man presents with recurrent itchy ears.
    Which of the following statements about...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with recurrent itchy ears.
      Which of the following statements about this condition is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may be precipitated by overzealous use of cotton buds

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Myths and Facts

      Otitis externa, commonly known as swimmer’s ear, is a condition that affects the skin of the external ear canal. Here are some common myths and facts about this condition:

      Myth: Otitis externa is always bacterial in origin.
      Fact: While bacterial pathogens are frequently involved, viral and fungal pathogens may also be seen, particularly after prolonged use of corticosteroid drops.

      Myth: If adequately treated, otitis externa is unlikely to recur.
      Fact: Otitis externa is commonly recurrent, especially in the presence of a predisposing factor, such as a chronic underlying skin disease, immunodeficiency or diabetes.

      Myth: Systemic complications are common.
      Fact: Severe infections may cause local lymphadenitis or cellulitis. Rarely, infection may invade the deeper adjacent structures and progress to necrotising (malignant) otitis externa, a condition that can cause serious morbidity and also mortality. This is mainly seen in immunocompromised individuals, particularly people with diabetes.

      Myth: The use of aminoglycoside antibiotics is contraindicated.
      Fact: In a patient who doesn’t have grommets or a perforated eardrum, aminoglycosides (eg gentamicin) or polymyxin drops are not contraindicated. When the eardrum is not intact, there is concern about ototoxicity. If necessary, they can be used in these circumstances, with caution, by specialists.

      Debunking Myths About Otitis Externa

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 6 - The wife of a 65-year-old man contacts you urgently for a home visit....

    Incorrect

    • The wife of a 65-year-old man contacts you urgently for a home visit. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes. According to his wife, he is experiencing severe dizziness due to labyrinthitis and is unable to leave his bed.

      Upon arrival, you find the patient in bed, complaining of intense dizziness that makes him feel like the room is spinning. He has vomited multiple times and cannot stand up. He has never experienced this before.

      During the assessment, the patient's vital signs are normal. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities. Neurological examination of the limbs shows normal power, tone, reflexes, and coordination. However, he cannot walk for a gait examination. Eye examination shows bidirectional nystagmus on lateral gaze bilaterally. A head impulse test is normal with no catch-up saccades seen. All other cranial nerves are normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call ambulance and refer to on-call stroke team

      Explanation:

      The HiNTs exam is a helpful tool for differentiating between vestibular neuronitis and posterior circulation stroke in cases of acute vertigo. It consists of three steps, with a fourth step recently suggested for detecting AICA infarcts. The exam assesses for nystagmus, skew deviation, head impulse test, and new unilateral hearing loss. A normal head impulse test is concerning and warrants referral to the acute stroke team. While prochlorperazine may be useful for acute peripheral vestibular neuropathy, betahistine is only licensed for Meniere’s disease. As this patient’s symptoms are ongoing, a TIA clinic would not be appropriate, and urgent neuroimaging should be performed before considering high dose aspirin. If there is any diagnostic uncertainty, referral for same-day assessment is necessary.

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.

      Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man who is a smoker presents with hoarseness of his voice,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man who is a smoker presents with hoarseness of his voice, firm cervical nodes and difficulty in swallowing.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx

      Explanation:

      Types of Head and Neck Cancer: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of cancer in the upper airway, with the larynx being the most likely location. Symptoms may include pain radiating to the ear, weight loss, and stridor in advanced cases. Small cell carcinoma of the larynx is rare. Adenocarcinoma of the hypopharynx is relatively rare and usually squamous cell carcinoma. Adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma are common varieties of oesophageal cancer, with dysphagia, anorexia, weight loss, vomiting, and gastrointestinal bleeding being red flag features. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of tonsillar cancer, with symptoms including a sore throat, ear pain, a foreign body sensation, bleeding, and a neck mass. Tonsillar enlargement may be the only sign if the tumour growth is below the surface, or there may be a fungating mass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old patient presents to you with concerns about burning and irritation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient presents to you with concerns about burning and irritation of their tongue, as well as rapid changes in its color. Upon examination, you observe multiple irregular but smooth red plaques on the dorsum of their tongue. The patient is anxious about these changes and seeks your advice.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Geographic tongue

      Explanation:

      Common Oral Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Geographic tongue is a common oral condition that presents with mild burning and irritation of the tongue. It is characterized by single or multiple well-demarcated irregular but smooth red plaques on the dorsum of the tongue. Stress and spicy food may exacerbate the condition.

      Angular chelitis, on the other hand, presents with irritation of the corners of the lips and dryness. Aphthous stomatitis describes solitary or multiple painful ulcers on the mucosal membranes. Oral hairy leukoplakia is an asymptomatic white thickening and accentuation of the folds of the lateral margins of the tongue.

      Lastly, acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis presents with punched-out ulcers, necrosis, and bleeding of areas between teeth. It is important to be aware of these common oral conditions and their symptoms to seek appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of recurrent episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of recurrent episodes of dizziness, which she describes as a sensation of the room spinning. She has experienced five such episodes in the past month, each lasting for one or two days and accompanied by nausea, which has prevented her from going to work. She reports no symptoms between episodes and has a history of migraines in her 20s but is otherwise healthy. During these episodes, she is sensitive to loud noises but denies any hearing loss or tinnitus. Neurological examination, Dix-Hallpike, and examination of both ear canals are unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular migraine

      Explanation:

      Consider vestibular migraine as a possible cause of episodic vertigo in patients with a history of migraines. The timing and duration of vertigo symptoms can help differentiate between different causes. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo typically causes brief episodes of vertigo, while Meniere’s disease causes longer episodes with accompanying hearing loss, tinnitus, or ear fullness. Labyrinthitis and vestibular neuronitis can cause sudden onset of constant vertigo, but not the episodic nature described in this case. Given the duration, episodic nature, phonophobia, and history of migraines, vestibular migraine is the most likely diagnosis. The International Classification of Headache Disorders provides diagnostic criteria for vestibular migraine, including a history of migraines and moderate to severe vestibular symptoms lasting between 5 minutes and 72 hours, with at least half of the episodes associated with migrainous features such as headache, photophobia, phonophobia, or visual aura. Other potential causes should be ruled out.

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old sales representative comes in for a routine check-up and reports a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old sales representative comes in for a routine check-up and reports a 2-week history of a droopy left eyelid with forehead weakness. Upon examination, the symptoms are confirmed and there are no abnormalities found in the eyes or ears.

      What is a crucial aspect of the treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Night-time eyelid coverings

      Explanation:

      Proper eye care is crucial in Bell’s palsy, and measures such as using drops, lubricants, and night-time taping should be considered. However, the most important step is to cover the eyelids during the night to prevent dryness and potential corneal damage or infection. antiviral treatment alone is not a recommended treatment for Bell’s palsy, and antibiotics are unnecessary as the condition is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Immediate referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary for a simple case of Bell’s palsy, but may be warranted if symptoms persist beyond 2-3 months.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/4) 50%
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