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  • Question 1 - Which drugs are classified as protease inhibitors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drugs are classified as protease inhibitors?

      Your Answer: Darunavir and Telaprevir

      Correct Answer: Darunavir, Ritonavir, and Telaprevir

      Explanation:

      Protease Inhibitors: A Breakthrough in HIV and Hepatitis C Treatment

      Protease inhibitors are a class of drugs that block the activity of the viral enzyme called protease, which is essential for the maturation of the virus. Initially used for the treatment of HIV, protease inhibitors are now also used for the treatment of hepatitis C infections. Telaprevir is a protease inhibitor specifically designed for hepatitis C virus.

      Abacavir and rilpivirine are two other drugs used for HIV treatment. Abacavir is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), while rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). Protease inhibitors are often used as second-line therapy for HIV treatment, with ritonavir commonly used as a booster with other protease inhibitors.

      For hepatitis C treatment, protease inhibitors such as telaprevir, boceprevir, simeprevir, and danoprevir are used in combination with interferon and ribavirin. These drugs inhibit NS3/4A protease, which is a promising development in hepatitis C management. They are said to decrease the treatment duration, but their high cost is a major limiting factor for their use.

      In conclusion, protease inhibitors have revolutionized the treatment of HIV and hepatitis C infections. While they are not without limitations, they offer hope for patients with these chronic viral diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency, recurrent urinary tract infections and stress...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency, recurrent urinary tract infections and stress incontinence. She is found to have a cystocoele. The woman had four children, all vaginal deliveries. She also suffers from osteoarthritis and hypertension. Her body mass index (BMI) is 32 and she smokes 5 cigarettes per day.
      What would your first line treatment be for this woman?

      Your Answer: Advise smoking cessation, weight loss and pelvic floor exercises

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Symptomatic Cystocoele: Lifestyle Modifications, Medications, and Surgeries

      Symptomatic cystocoele can be treated through various options, depending on the severity of the condition. The first line of treatment focuses on lifestyle modifications, such as smoking cessation and weight loss. Topical oestrogen may also be prescribed to post- or perimenopausal women suffering from vaginal dryness, urinary incontinence, recurrent urinary tract infections, or superficial dyspareunia. Inserting a ring pessary is the second line of treatment, which needs to be changed every six months and puts the patient at risk of ulceration. Per vaginal surgery is the third line of treatment, which is only possible if the cystocoele is small and puts the patient at risk of fibroids and adhesions. Hysterectomy is not recommended as it increases the risk of cystocoele due to the severance of the uterine ligaments and reduction in support following removal of the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following statements regarding Perthes disease is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Perthes disease is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Typically affects children between the ages of 4-8 years

      Correct Answer: Twice as common in girls

      Explanation:

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You suspect your classmate is being bullied by their teacher. They look miserable...

    Correct

    • You suspect your classmate is being bullied by their teacher. They look miserable all the time and whenever their teacher is around they freeze and look tearful.
      Which is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Speak to your colleague in private and ask if everything is OK

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions to Take When Concerned About a Colleague’s Treatment by a Senior

      When you suspect that a colleague is being mistreated by a senior, it is important to take appropriate actions. Confronting the consultant or threatening your colleague is not the right approach. Instead, the first step should be to speak to your colleague in private and ask if everything is okay. This will help you understand the situation better and avoid jumping to conclusions. Reporting the consultant to the deanery without evidence or threatening your colleague to report their consultant is unprofessional and could cause more harm than good. Ignoring the situation is also not advisable. It is important to address any concerns about mistreatment in the workplace and support your colleagues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - As a result of her advanced maternal age, a 43-year-old pregnant woman undergoes...

    Incorrect

    • As a result of her advanced maternal age, a 43-year-old pregnant woman undergoes screening for chromosomal abnormalities. If her fetus is diagnosed with trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome), what outcomes would be anticipated?

      Your Answer: High alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

      Correct Answer: Low pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      The ‘triple test’ can be utilized at 16 weeks, but its accuracy is lower than the ‘combined test’. Therefore, it should only be employed when screening for trisomy is conducted after 14 weeks. The test involves conducting blood tests for AFP, -HCG, and oestriol. One should note that the false positive rate may be higher with this test.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - John is a 44-year-old man who presented to you a month ago with...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 44-year-old man who presented to you a month ago with a 6-week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn, and occasional reflux. His medical history is unremarkable, and you both agreed on a plan for a 1-month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.

      John returns for a follow-up appointment after completing the course of omeprazole. Unfortunately, his symptoms have only slightly improved and are still causing him distress.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to manage John's persistent symptoms?

      Your Answer: Double the dose of omeprazole and continue for 1 month

      Correct Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive

      Explanation:

      If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the other approach should be tried next. NICE guidelines recommend prescribing a full-dose PPI for 1 month or testing for H. pylori infection and prescribing eradication therapy if positive. If symptoms persist, switch to the alternative strategy. Referral for routine upper GI endoscopy is not indicated at this stage.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      20.6
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated by his supervisor, citing missed deadlines and a decline in the quality of his work. He disputes this and claims that his supervisor has always had a personal vendetta against him. He has confided in his family and close friends, but despite their reassurances, he believes that some of his colleagues were colluding with his supervisor to oust him. During his mental health evaluation, he appears to be generally stable, except for his fixation on his supervisor and coworkers conspiring against him. His family reports that he is easily offended and has a tendency to believe in conspiracies. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder may be appropriate for individuals who exhibit hypersensitivity, hold grudges when insulted, doubt the loyalty of those around them, and are hesitant to confide in others.

      In the given case, the correct diagnosis is paranoid personality disorder as the individual is reacting strongly to being fired by her manager and believes it to be a conspiracy involving her manager and colleagues. This aligns with the classic symptoms of paranoid personality disorder, and the individual’s family has also observed her tendency to be easily offended and paranoid.

      Borderline personality disorder is an incorrect diagnosis as it is characterized by emotional instability, difficulty controlling anger, unstable relationships, and recurrent suicidal thoughts, rather than paranoia.

      Schizoid personality disorder is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is characterized by a preference for solitary activities, lack of interest in socializing, and a lack of close relationships, rather than paranoia.

      Schizophrenia is an incorrect diagnosis as the individual’s mental state examination is broadly normal, whereas schizophrenia typically presents with delusions, hallucinations, and disordered thinking.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with her husband who is...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with her husband who is worried about her unusual behavior. The patient discloses that her sister passed away in a car accident recently and the funeral was held last week. She expresses her deep love and closeness with her sister and admits to feeling very sad. The psychiatrist confirms this sentiment with the husband. However, while recounting the events of her sister's death and funeral, she begins to smile and laugh, describing the events in a cheerful tone. What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's abnormal behavior?

      Your Answer: Incongruity of affect

      Explanation:

      Common Psychiatric Terms Explained

      Psychiatric terms can be difficult to understand, but it’s important to know what they mean. Incongruity of affect is when a patient’s emotional expression does not match the situation they are describing. This can be confusing for both the patient and the clinician. Anhedonia is another term that is commonly used in psychiatry. It refers to the inability to feel pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. This can be a symptom of depression or other mental health conditions. Depersonalisation and derealisation are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they have different meanings. Depersonalisation is the feeling that one’s self is not real, while derealisation is the feeling that the world is not real. Finally, thought blocking is when a person suddenly stops their train of thought. This can be a symptom of schizophrenia or other mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the correct pairing of a disorder with its treatment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct pairing of a disorder with its treatment?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C and lamivudine

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Common Medical Conditions and their Corresponding Treatments

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and hydroxychloroquine
      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication used to treat SLE and rheumatoid arthritis. It works by blocking toll-like receptor signalling, reducing activation of dendritic cells and the subsequent inflammatory process.

      Epilepsy and amitriptyline
      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat depression and pain. However, it may lower the seizure threshold and aggravate epilepsy.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) and amlodipine
      Amlodipine is a medication used to treat high blood pressure. It has no anti-arrhythmic activity and is not typically used to treat AF. Other calcium antagonists such as verapamil and diltiazem may be used to treat AF.

      Type 1 diabetes (T1DM) and gliclazide
      Oral hypoglycaemics like gliclazide are ineffective in treating T1DM. Insulin therapy is the mainstay of treatment for T1DM.

      Hepatitis C and lamivudine
      Hepatitis C is treated with direct acting antivirals like ledipasvir/sofosbuvir. Lamivudine is not typically used to treat Hepatitis C.

      Medications and their Corresponding Medical Conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Samantha is a 52-year-old female who visits her doctor with complaints of dysuria...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 52-year-old female who visits her doctor with complaints of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past day. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking candesartan and spironolactone. During her teenage years, she had two simple urinary tract infections. Upon examination, a urinary dipstick reveals leukocytes ++, nitrites ++ and microscopic haematuria. The doctor diagnoses her with a urinary tract infection and prescribes trimethoprim 200mg BD for three days.

      After three days, Samantha returns to the clinic with improved urinary tract infection symptoms but complains of decreased urine output, nausea, and swelling in both legs. To investigate further, the doctor orders a full blood count and renal function bloods. What electrolyte disturbances might be expected to be found on Samantha's bloods?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Trimethoprim can lead to tubular dysfunction, which can result in hyperkalemia and an increase in serum creatinine levels.

      This statement is accurate, as trimethoprim can block the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a type 4 hyperkalemic distal renal tubular acidosis. In this patient’s case, the use of trimethoprim, along with her regular medications, has caused acute kidney injury. It is important to avoid using trimethoprim in patients taking renin angiotensin antagonist drugs or potassium-sparing diuretics, or to monitor renal function closely.

      However, the statement that hypercalcemia is a common occurrence in acute kidney injury is incorrect. Hypocalcemia is more commonly seen in this condition. Similarly, hypernatremia is not a common finding in acute kidney injury, as hyponatremia is more frequently observed. On the other hand, hyperphosphatemia is a common occurrence in acute kidney injury due to phosphate retention.

      Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy

      Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This can potentially interact with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim can also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug can competitively inhibit the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the drug. Additionally, trimethoprim can block the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It can also inhibit creatinine secretion, often leading to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.

      When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. As such, manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of using this antibiotic and to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      65.2
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  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old male is experiencing cognitive impairment and has been diagnosed with dementia....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male is experiencing cognitive impairment and has been diagnosed with dementia. What is the likely cause of his dementia?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Dementia: Types and Symptoms

      Dementia is a clinical condition that involves the loss of cognitive function in multiple domains beyond what is expected from normal ageing. This condition affects areas such as memory, attention, language, and problem-solving. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, accounting for about two-thirds of all cases. The initial symptom of Alzheimer’s disease is usually forgetfulness for newly acquired information, followed by disorientation and progressive cognitive decline with personality disruption.

      Apart from Alzheimer’s disease, other types of dementia include blood vessel disease (multi-infarct dementia), dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease). These types of dementia account for 20%, 15%, and less than 5% of cases, respectively. The remaining cases result from a variety of less common disorders, such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, progressive supranuclear palsy, Huntington’s disease, and AIDS-associated dementia.

      It is important to understand the different types of dementia and their symptoms to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help manage the symptoms and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a history of mild anaemia....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a history of mild anaemia. The physician orders several urine tests. The results are as follows:

      - Negative for haemoglobin, urobilinogen, and bilirubin
      - Positive for protein
      - Negative for glucose, nitrites, and leucocytes
      - Positive for ketones
      - +++ for Bence Jones

      What could be the possible reason for these results?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Myeloma Diagnosis and Blood Results

      Myeloma is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed through various tests. One of the most common indicators is a positive test for Bence Jones protein, which is a type of protein found in the urine. This cancer can also cause proteinuria, which is the presence of excess protein in the urine due to renal damage or overflow from high blood total protein. Additionally, longstanding anaemia is another sign of myeloma.

      Blood results for a patient with myeloma are likely to show elevated total protein, possibly with low albumin. There may also be an abnormally high level of one type of globulin, while other immunoglobulins may be suppressed. Protein electrophoresis testing can reveal the presence of a monoclonal (paraprotein) band with immunosuppression. High serum calcium with suppressed parathyroid hormone consistent with hypercalcaemia of malignancy is also common. Furthermore, high phosphate levels are often seen in haematological malignancy where there is a large amount of cell turnover. Renal impairment is another common finding, usually due to the deposition of myeloma casts in the nephrons. However, hypercalcaemia can also cause dehydration in addition.

      In summary, a diagnosis of myeloma can be made through various tests, including a positive Bence Jones protein test, proteinuria, and longstanding anaemia. Blood results for a patient with myeloma are likely to show elevated total protein, a monoclonal band, high serum calcium, high phosphate, and renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 13 - A 16-year old boy is admitted to a hospital in Scotland with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year old boy is admitted to a hospital in Scotland with a two day history of abdominal pain. He tells you the pain is worsening and that he has been vomiting. The patient has a history of autism and after discussing the possibility of a diagnosis of appendicitis with the patient and his parents, you feel that he does not have the capacity to give consent for surgery.
      In Scotland, what are the provisions for treatment of 16-year olds who lack capacity to consent to treatment and investigation?

      Your Answer: Such patients are to be treated the same way as children, so clinicians can proceed with what they believe is in the patient’s best interest

      Correct Answer: Such patients are to be treated the same way as adults who lack capacity

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Patients Over 16 Years Old Who Lack Capacity in Scotland

      In Scotland, all individuals aged 16 and over are presumed to have the capacity to consent to treatment unless there is evidence to the contrary. Therefore, a 17-year old without capacity is considered an adult, and the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 applies. This means that a court order is needed to decide on investigations and treatments that are in the patient’s best interests.

      It is important to note that patients who lack capacity over the age of 16 in Scotland are treated as adults, and not as children. Therefore, clinicians cannot proceed with what they believe is in the patient’s best interest without a court order. Additionally, parents cannot consent on behalf of the patient as they are over 16 years old.

      Understanding the Treatment of Patients Over 16 Years Old Who Lack Capacity in Scotland

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after attempting suicide with an overdose of medication. Upon questioning, she says that she has recently broken up with her boyfriend and that he does not let her use cocaine and marijuana. This is the second time that they have broken up, and she tells you that she fights constantly with him. Hospital records show that she has been admitted to hospital many times and that she has had many previous suicide attempts. She admits to drinking heavily at weekends and to having had unprotected sex with multiple partners over the last year.
      Which one of the following personality disorders best describes this patient?

      Your Answer: Borderline

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorders: Types and Characteristics

      Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that affect the way individuals think, feel, and behave. There are several types of personality disorders, each with its own set of characteristics.

      Borderline Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by impulsive behavior, intense mood swings, and unpredictable behavior. Individuals with this disorder may struggle with maintaining stable relationships and may have difficulty regulating their emotions.

      Avoidant Personality Disorder: People with this disorder tend to be socially inhibited and may avoid social situations due to a fear of rejection. They may also struggle with feelings of inadequacy and low self-esteem.

      Dependent Personality Disorder: Individuals with this disorder may have an excessive need for nurture and may struggle with making decisions on their own. They may also have low self-confidence and be overly submissive in relationships.

      Schizoid Personality Disorder: People with this disorder tend to be socially isolated and may have limited emotional expression. They may prefer to be alone and may struggle with forming close relationships.

      Schizotypal Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by odd thought patterns and interpersonal awkwardness. Individuals with this disorder may also have an unusual appearance or behavior.

      Overall, personality disorders can significantly impact an individual’s daily life and relationships. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know may be struggling with a personality disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 44-year-old pregnant refugee from Afghanistan visits her general practitioner for her first...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old pregnant refugee from Afghanistan visits her general practitioner for her first scan at 20 weeks. During the ultrasound, a 'snow-storm' appearance is observed without visible foetal parts. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete hydatidiform mole

      Explanation:

      A snowstorm appearance on ultrasound scan is indicative of a complete hydatidiform mole, which occurs when all genetic material comes from the father and no foetal parts are present. Vaginal bleeding is often the first symptom. In contrast, an incomplete hydatidiform mole results from two sets of paternal chromosomes and one set of maternal chromosomes, and may have foetal parts present without a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. Gestational diabetes can cause foetal structural abnormalities and macrosomia, but not a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. An incomplete miscarriage may cause vaginal bleeding, but it would not result in a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound.

      Characteristics of Complete Hydatidiform Mole

      A complete hydatidiform mole is a rare type of pregnancy where the fertilized egg develops into a mass of abnormal cells instead of a fetus. This condition is characterized by several features, including vaginal bleeding, an enlarged uterus size that is greater than expected for gestational age, and abnormally high levels of serum hCG. Additionally, an ultrasound may reveal a snowstorm appearance of mixed echogenicity.

      In simpler terms, a complete hydatidiform mole is a type of pregnancy that does not develop normally and can cause abnormal bleeding and an enlarged uterus. Doctors can detect this condition through blood tests and ultrasounds, which show a unique appearance of mixed echogenicity. It is important for women to seek medical attention if they experience any abnormal symptoms during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11
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  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He reports being tackled with a boot to the lateral side of his upper leg. X-ray examination shows a fracture at the neck of the fibula.
      What is the structure that is most likely impacted by this injury?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa: Nerves and Vessels

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped area located at the back of the knee joint. It contains several important nerves and vessels that are vulnerable to injury. Here is a brief overview of the anatomy of the popliteal fossa:

      Common Peroneal Nerve: This nerve runs around the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula and divides into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves. Damage to this nerve can result in foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex and evert the foot.

      Popliteal Artery: The popliteal artery is the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa and can be injured in penetrating injuries to the back of the knee.

      Popliteal Vein: This vein travels with the popliteal artery and lies superficial and lateral to it.

      Small Saphenous Vein: This vein begins at the lateral aspect of the dorsal venous arch of the foot, winds posteriorly around the lateral malleolus, and travels up the lateral aspect of the leg. It enters the popliteal fossa between the two heads of the gastrocnemius to join the popliteal vein.

      Tibial Nerve: This nerve lies deep in the popliteal fossa and can be injured by deep lacerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old female accountant presents to her local urgent care centre with a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female accountant presents to her local urgent care centre with a 4 day history of right side thumb and wrist pain. She complains of pain down the dorsal aspect of her thumb towards the radial aspect of her wrist which occurs when she is at work and using her computer mouse for extended periods of time. She reports the pain is not present at rest.

      During examination, you are able to reproduce the pain when she abducts her thumb against resistance. The patient also reports pain when you palpate over her radial styloid process. There is no other sensory or motor deficits in the remainder of your examination. There does not appear to be any erythema or swelling that you note.

      What is the likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the tendons surrounding the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus, resulting in pain on the radial side of the wrist and tenderness over the radial styloid process. This condition is often referred to as texter’s thumb due to its association with repetitive texting motions. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel, resulting in tingling, weakness, and clumsiness in the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger. Carpal tunnel syndrome is typically worse at night and can be diagnosed through a positive Tinel’s sign. Carpal metacarpal osteoarthritis may cause pain at the base of the thumb that progresses over time and may be accompanied by Heberden’s nodes. Intercarpal instability, which involves a loss of alignment between the carpal bones or radioulnar joint, is an unlikely diagnosis in the absence of trauma and requires radiological evidence for diagnosis.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are an FY1 in a busy A&E department. In your haste to...

    Incorrect

    • You are an FY1 in a busy A&E department. In your haste to finish all the jobs in time, you attain a needle stick injury while taking blood samples from a patient. The patient is known as an IV drug user.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

      You are an FY1 in a busy A&E department. In your haste to finish all the jobs in time, you attain a needle stick injury while taking blood samples from a patient. The patient is known as an IV drug user.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Report to the Occupational Health Department immediately

      Correct Answer: Run the injury under a cold tap and allow it to bleed

      Explanation:

      Proper Response to Needlestick Injuries: Running the Injury Under a Cold Tap

      Needlestick injuries can be frightening, especially when dealing with patients with a history of IV drug use. However, it is important to remain calm and take immediate action. The most appropriate response is to run the injury under a cold tap and encourage it to bleed. This will help to flush out any potential pathogens. Afterward, seek advice and treatment from A&E or the Occupational Health department. It is also important to report the incident to Occupational Health, but only after taking care of the injury. Going through the patient’s notes may be helpful in ordering tests for HIV and hepatitis, but it is not the first thing to do. Leaving work and going home is not an option as it is a probity issue. Remember to prioritize your own safety and seek help when needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the definition of healing by secondary intention, which is the final...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of healing by secondary intention, which is the final stage of tissue response to injury involving regeneration and repair?

      Your Answer: Healing in wounds that are frequently contaminated or poorly delineated. The skin and tissues are left open for a short period of time before then being approximated

      Correct Answer: Wounds close by contraction and epithelialization due to tissue loss

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Wound Healing

      Primary Healing: This type of healing occurs in wounds that are clean and have clear-cut edges that can be closely approximated. The wound is closed with sutures, staples, or adhesive strips, and healing occurs quickly with minimal scarring.

      Secondary Healing: This type of healing occurs in wounds that are frequently contaminated or poorly delineated. The skin and tissues are left open for a short period of time before being approximated. Healing occurs by contraction and epithelialization due to tissue loss, and scarring is more significant.

      Partial Thickness Healing: This type of healing involves epithelial cells from the dermal edges, hair follicles, and sebaceous glands replicating to cover the exposed area. It occurs in wounds that only affect the top layer of skin and typically heals without scarring.

      Delayed Primary Healing: This type of healing occurs in wounds that are contaminated or have a high risk of infection. The wound is left open for a few days to allow for drainage and cleaning before being closed with sutures or staples. Healing occurs by a combination of primary and secondary healing, and scarring may be more significant.

      Keloid Scarring: This occurs when excessive scar tissue grows, forming a smooth, hard layer that extends beyond the boundaries of the original wound. Keloid scars can be itchy, painful, and may require medical treatment to reduce their appearance.

      Understanding the different types of wound healing can help individuals better care for their wounds and manage scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 47-year-old man is admitted with acute epigastric pain and a serum amylase...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man is admitted with acute epigastric pain and a serum amylase of 1500 u/l. His IMRIE score confirms acute pancreatitis. On examination, a large ecchymosis is observed around the umbilicus.
      What clinical sign does this examination finding demonstrate?

      Your Answer: Cullen’s sign

      Explanation:

      Common Medical Signs and Their Meanings

      Medical signs are physical indications of a disease or condition that can aid in diagnosis. Here are some common medical signs and their meanings:

      1. Cullen’s sign: This is bruising around the umbilicus that can indicate acute pancreatitis or an ectopic pregnancy.

      2. McBurney’s sign: Pain over McBurney’s point, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, can indicate acute appendicitis.

      3. Grey–Turner’s sign: Discoloration of the flanks can indicate retroperitoneal hemorrhage.

      4. Troisier’s sign: The presence of Virchow’s node in the left supraclavicular fossa can indicate gastric cancer.

      5. Tinel’s sign: Tingling in the median nerve distribution when tapping over the median nerve can indicate carpal tunnel syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 3-month-old infant with Down's syndrome is presented to the GP by his...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old infant with Down's syndrome is presented to the GP by his parents due to their worry about his occasional episodes of turning blue and rapid breathing, especially when he is upset or in pain. These episodes have caused him to faint twice. The parents also mention that he has a congenital heart defect. What is the likely diagnosis based on this history?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and he has been prescribed intravenous (IV) fluids. Three days later, he reports feeling short of breath, and on examination, he has widespread fine crackles and pitting sacral oedema. His notes show that he has been receiving 2 litres of fluid a day and that he weighs 50 kg. You treat him, and once his symptoms have resolved, you're-calculate his daily maintenance fluid requirements.
      Which of the following options is the most suitable amount of daily fluid to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: 2000–2500 ml

      Correct Answer: 1000–1500 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculating Fluid Requirements for a Patient with Fluid Overload

      When determining a patient’s fluid requirements, it is important to consider their weight and any underlying medical conditions. For this particular patient, who weighs 48 kg, her maintenance fluid requirement is between 1200-1440 ml per day, calculated using 25-30 ml/kg/day.

      However, this patient has developed fluid overload and pulmonary edema, likely due to receiving 2 liters of fluid per day. While this may have been necessary initially due to fluid loss from bowel obstruction, it is now important to step down to normal maintenance levels.

      Giving the patient 1500-2000 ml of fluid per day would still be too much, as evidenced by examination findings of pitting sacral edema and widespread fine crackles. The maximum amount of fluid needed for maintenance therapy is 1440 ml per day.

      It is crucial to monitor fluid intake and adjust as necessary to prevent further complications from fluid overload. Giving too much fluid, such as 2500-3500 ml per day, can be harmful for a patient with fluid overload and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue and insomnia. She has lost interest in...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue and insomnia. She has lost interest in activities she used to enjoy, like hiking. She has three children aged three, six and seven years. Despite her husband's help, her symptoms have persisted for eight weeks.
      Which neurotransmitter is the medication she is likely to be prescribed targeting?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters and their Functions

      Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers in the brain that transmit signals between neurons. Each neurotransmitter has a specific function and can be targeted by medications to treat various conditions.

      Serotonin is a monoamine neurotransmitter known as the happy hormone and is involved in generating feelings of happiness, cognition modulation, rewards, learning, and other functions. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) prevent the reuptake of serotonin, increasing its availability to bind receptors and generate signals relating to mood. SSRIs are the first-line treatment for depression.

      Dopamine is involved in motor function and dopamine agonists, such as ropinirole, are used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease.

      The GABA receptor is involved in pain modulation and is the target of benzodiazepines. These medications potentiate the effect of GABA on the receptor, reducing the likelihood of nerve firing an action potential and therefore reducing transmission of pain stimuli.

      Noradrenaline is a neurotransmitter involved in the breakdown of neurotransmitters such as serotonin, noradrenaline, and adrenaline. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors can be used in the treatment of depression by inhibiting the action of monoamine oxidases, resulting in a higher concentration of neurotransmitters, including noradrenaline, in the synapse. However, they should not be used as first-line treatment.

      Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter found at neuromuscular junctions and is implicated in movement and motor functions. Targeting acetylcholine will have no effect on mood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old woman has been suffering from significant pain in her lower limbs...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman has been suffering from significant pain in her lower limbs when walking more than 200 meters for the past six months. During physical examination, her legs appear pale and cool without signs of swelling or redness. The palpation of dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulses is not possible. The patient has a body mass index of 33 kg/m2 and has been smoking for 25 pack years. What is the most probable vascular abnormality responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Arteriosclerosis and Related Conditions

      Arteriosclerosis is a medical condition that refers to the hardening and loss of elasticity of medium or large arteries. Atherosclerosis, on the other hand, is a specific type of arteriosclerosis that occurs when fatty materials such as cholesterol accumulate in the artery walls, causing them to thicken. This chronic inflammatory response is caused by the accumulation of macrophages and white blood cells, and is often promoted by low-density lipoproteins. The formation of multiple plaques within the arteries characterizes atherosclerosis.

      Medial calcific sclerosis is another form of arteriosclerosis that occurs when calcium deposits form in the middle layer of walls of medium-sized vessels. This condition is often not clinically apparent unless it is severe, and it is more common in people over 50 years old and in diabetics. It can be seen as opaque vessels on radiographs.

      Lymphatic obstruction, on the other hand, is a blockage of the lymph vessels that drain fluid from tissues throughout the body. This condition may cause lymphoedema, and the most common reason for this is the removal or enlargement of the lymph nodes.

      It is important to understand these conditions and their differences to properly diagnose and treat patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are evaluating the growth of a 6-week-old infant. Her length is at...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating the growth of a 6-week-old infant. Her length is at the 35th percentile, weight at the 42nd percentile, and head circumference at the 4th percentile. What is the probable reason for her microcephaly?

      Your Answer: Foetal alcohol syndrome

      Explanation:

      Microcephaly is often linked to foetal alcohol syndrome, which also presents with other physical characteristics such as a smooth philtrum, hypoplastic upper lip, and epicanthic folds. Conditions like Thalassaemia, Turner’s syndrome, and cerebral palsy do not typically impact head size, while Achondroplasia is associated with macrocephaly and frontal bossing, not microcephaly. Recognizing the distinct physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for both exams and accurate diagnosis.

      Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

      Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.

      The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.

      It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe occipital headache accompanied by two episodes of vomiting within the last hour. Despite a normal CT scan, a lumbar puncture taken 12 hours later reveals xanthochromia, leading to a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Urgent neurosurgical consultation is requested, and a CT cerebral angiography confirms a posterior communicating artery aneurysm as the underlying cause of the SAH. The patient is otherwise healthy. What is the most suitable treatment option for the aneurysm?

      Your Answer: Coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist

      Explanation:

      After a subarachnoid haemorrhage, urgent intervention is necessary for intracranial aneurysms due to the risk of rebleeding. The most common treatment for this is coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist, which involves inserting soft metallic coils into the aneurysm to exclude it from intracranial circulation. This is less invasive than surgical clipping. While nimodipine is used to reduce vasospasm following a SAH, it is not sufficient on its own and additional intervention is required. Typically, nimodipine is administered for 21 days and targets the brain vasculature by inhibiting calcium channels.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Who among the following prospective blood donors would be ineligible to donate whole...

    Correct

    • Who among the following prospective blood donors would be ineligible to donate whole blood or plasma?

      Your Answer: A 32-year-old lady whose sister was diagnosed with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease three years ago

      Explanation:

      Blood Donation Guidelines

      Blood donation guidelines set by the National Blood Service UK state that individuals who have a family member (parent or sibling) with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease cannot donate blood. This is due to the risk of transmitting the disease through blood transfusion.

      Other factors that may exclude individuals from donating blood include hepatitis or jaundice within the last 12 months, acupuncture within the last four months (unless performed by a registered professional), body piercing or tattoos within the last six months, any infection within the preceding two weeks, or a course of antibiotics within the last seven days.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. By excluding individuals who may have a higher risk of transmitting diseases or infections, the blood supply can remain safe and effective for those in need of transfusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 48-year-old woman has been evaluated by her GP for the reason behind...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman has been evaluated by her GP for the reason behind her low energy, weight gain and depressed mood. After undergoing biochemical testing, she was discovered to have elevated levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and decreased levels of T3 and T4. The diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism was made and she was started on levothyroxine.
      When is it appropriate to repeat this patient's thyroid function tests (TFTs)?

      Your Answer: Three monthly

      Explanation:

      Importance of Regular Monitoring in Thyroid Hormone Replacement Therapy

      When starting a patient on thyroid hormone replacement medication, it is crucial to monitor their thyroid function tests (TFTs) every three months until the dose is stabilized. This involves obtaining two similar readings within the reference range. The goal is to adjust the therapy dose based on clinical and biochemical parameters to alleviate the symptoms and signs of hypothyroidism. Once a stable thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved, it is recommended to check it annually.

      Waiting six months is too long, and one week is too soon to observe the effects of therapy reliably. Waiting 12 months is also too long, and no follow-up is not recommended. Regular monitoring is necessary to avoid over or under-treatment of hypothyroidism. Therefore, it is essential to schedule follow-up appointments to monitor clinical and biochemical parameters regularly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old woman has undergone routine blood tests during her annual check-up with...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman has undergone routine blood tests during her annual check-up with her primary care physician. She has been feeling quite tired lately and has noticed some tremors in her hands, but has attributed these changes to getting older. Her medical history includes chronic indigestion, osteoarthritis in her knees, and high blood pressure. She takes omeprazole, cimetidine, ibuprofen, paracetamol, codeine phosphate, and amlodipine on a regular basis. The following are the results of her blood tests:

      Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 1 mg/L (< 5)
      Bilirubin 15 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 60 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 21 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 25 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 44 g/L (35 - 50)
      Calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.9 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.5 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 15 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 100 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.30 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 120 U/L (35 - 250)

      Which medication is most likely responsible for these blood test results?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia is frequently caused by proton pump inhibitors.

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.

      When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      27.1
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      44.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (2/3) 67%
Ethics And Legal (1/3) 33%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Medicine (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
Miscellaneous (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Plastics (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed