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  • Question 1 - What is the truth about the sudden and unexpected death of an individual...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about the sudden and unexpected death of an individual with epilepsy?

      Your Answer: The risk is increased in patients who have myoclonic epilepsy

      Correct Answer: It is more common in adults than in children

      Explanation:

      SUDEP, of sudden unexpected death in epilepsy, is a condition where patients with epilepsy die suddenly and unexpectedly without any apparent cause. It is estimated to be responsible for 20-30% of deaths in epilepsy patients. The condition is more common in adults than in children, affecting 1 in 1,000 adults with epilepsy per year. The main risk factor for SUDEP is having active generalised tonic clonic seizures (GTCS), and better control of these seizures through improved compliance can reduce the risk of SUDEP. Other risk factors include nocturnal seizures, lamotrigine, never having been treated with an antiepileptic drug, intellectual disability, and male sex. However, the evidence for these factors is considered low. Autopsy findings in SUDEP cases do not reveal any specific cause of death, but obstruction of the airways and cardiorespiratory events such as arrhythmia are thought to be possible mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A Kayser-Fleischer ring is a characteristic sign of which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • A Kayser-Fleischer ring is a characteristic sign of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.

      The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, sunflower cataract, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion.

      The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation.

      In summary, Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body, leading to a range of symptoms that can affect the liver, brain, and eyes. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the cell type that offers structural support in the central nervous...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cell type that offers structural support in the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Oligodendrocyte

      Correct Answer: Astrocyte

      Explanation:

      Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System

      The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.

      Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.

      Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.

      Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.

      Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.

      In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is a crucial component of the brain's 'reward pathway'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a crucial component of the brain's 'reward pathway'?

      Your Answer: Limbic cortex

      Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens

      Explanation:

      Brain Regions and Functions

      The brain is a complex organ with various regions that perform different functions. One of the key regions involved in the reward system is the nucleus accumbens (NA). This region receives input from the ventral tegmental area, which uses dopamine as a neurotransmitter. The NA is responsible for processing reward-related information and is often referred to as the pleasure center of the brain.

      The limbic cortex, on the other hand, is not part of the reward circuit. It is involved in emotion, memory, and motivation.

      Another important gland in the brain is the pituitary gland. This endocrine gland secretes nine hormones that are involved in maintaining homeostasis in the body.

      The substantia nigra is part of the basal ganglia and is involved in movement, learning, and addiction. Although it has a role in reward-seeking, it is not considered to be part of the classic reward pathway.

      Finally, the tegmentum is a region of the brainstem that contains several cranial nerve nuclei. It is involved in various functions such as movement, sensation, and autonomic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What statement accurately describes the DSM? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes the DSM?

      Your Answer: Is revised every 5 years

      Correct Answer: Shows better agreement between assessors than ICD

      Explanation:

      DSM versus ICD: A Comparison of Mental Disorder Classifications

      The DSM and ICD are two widely used classifications of mental disorders. While the ICD was initiated in Paris in 1900, the DSM-I was published in the USA in 1952 as a military classification of mental disorders. The ICD is intended for use by all health practitioners, while the DSM is primarily used by psychiatrists. The ICD is the official world classification, while the DSM is the official classification in the USA.

      One major difference between the two classifications is their focus. The ICD has a major focus on clinical utility, with a planned reduction of the number of diagnoses in the upcoming ICD-11. On the other hand, the DSM tends to increase the number of diagnoses with each succeeding revision. Additionally, the ICD provides diagnostic descriptions and guidance but does not employ operational criteria, while the DSM depends on operational criteria.

      It is important to note that the ICD has to be flexible and simple in the use of language to enable all practitioners, including those with very little formal qualifications in low- and middle-income countries, to be acceptable. Overall, understanding the differences between the DSM and ICD can help mental health practitioners choose the most appropriate classification for their needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What factors contribute to the lack of phobias towards cars in humans, despite...

    Correct

    • What factors contribute to the lack of phobias towards cars in humans, despite their potential danger?

      Your Answer: Stimulus preparedness

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What antihistamine medication is prescribed to treat extrapyramidal side effects? ...

    Correct

    • What antihistamine medication is prescribed to treat extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer: Diphenhydramine

      Explanation:

      Diphenhydramine is a type of antihistamine that belongs to the first generation. It is commonly used to alleviate extrapyramidal side effects (EPSE). Unlike second generation antihistamines, first generation antihistamines have anticholinergic properties and can penetrate the blood-brain barrier, resulting in sedative effects. The anticholinergic effects of first generation antihistamines are beneficial for treating EPSE, which is believed to be caused by excessive acetylcholine due to reduced dopamine activity. Dopamine normally inhibits acetylcholine, but when dopamine activity is reduced, acetylcholine levels increase, leading to EPSE.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A caregiver at a residential home asks if it's okay to secretly give...

    Incorrect

    • A caregiver at a residential home asks if it's okay to secretly give medication to an elderly resident with moderate dementia who has been refusing their medication for the past two days. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Medication should never be administered covertly

      Correct Answer: She should arrange a full team discussion to consider the patient's best interests

      Explanation:

      While there are situations where covert administration of medication may be necessary, it is important to approach this practice with caution due to its controversial nature. In cases where covert medication is deemed necessary to improve a patient’s mental health, it is recommended to convene a ‘best interests meeting’ involving the multidisciplinary team and family. The patient’s capacity should be taken into account, regardless of whether they are detained of not. While the views of the patient’s next of kin should be considered, they should not be the sole determining factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - On which chromosome is the candidate gene for schizophrenia that codes for the...

    Incorrect

    • On which chromosome is the candidate gene for schizophrenia that codes for the Catechol-O-Methyltransferase enzyme located?

      Your Answer: 13

      Correct Answer: 22

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a complex disorder that is associated with multiple candidate genes. No single gene has been identified as the sole cause of schizophrenia, and it is believed that the more genes involved, the greater the risk. Some of the important candidate genes for schizophrenia include DTNBP1, COMT, NRG1, G72, RGS4, DAOA, DISC1, and DRD2. Among these, neuregulin, dysbindin, and DISC1 are the most replicated and plausible genes, with COMT being the strongest candidate gene due to its role in dopamine metabolism. Low activity of the COMT gene has been associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and schizophrenia. Neuregulin 1 is a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation, and increased neuregulin signaling in schizophrenia may suppress the NMDA receptor, leading to lowered glutamate levels. Dysbindin is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles, and its expression is decreased in schizophrenia. DISC1 encodes a multifunctional protein that influences neuronal development and adult brain function, and it is disrupted in schizophrenia. It is located at the breakpoint of a balanced translocation identified in a large Scottish family with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, and other major mental illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - For what purpose are the 'Thurstone' and 'Semantic differential' scales primarily used to...

    Incorrect

    • For what purpose are the 'Thurstone' and 'Semantic differential' scales primarily used to evaluate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attitude

      Explanation:

      Attitude scales are used to measure a person’s feelings and thoughts towards something. There are several types of attitude scales, including the Thurstone scale, Likert scale, semantic differential scale, and Gutman scale. The Thurstone scale involves creating a list of statements and having judges score them based on their negativity of positivity towards an issue. Respondents then indicate whether they agree of disagree with each statement. The Likert scale asks respondents to indicate their degree of agreement of disagreement with a series of statements using a five-point scale. The semantic differential scale presents pairs of opposite adjectives and asks respondents to rate their position on a five- of seven-point scale. The Gutman scale involves a list of statements that can be ordered hierarchically, with each statement having a corresponding weight. Respondents’ scores on the scale indicate the number of statements they agree with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Classification And Assessment (3/3) 100%
Neurosciences (1/1) 100%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (1/1) 100%
Social Psychology (1/1) 100%
Psychopharmacology (1/1) 100%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
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