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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss contraception options. She is in...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss contraception options. She is in a committed relationship and has no plans for children at the moment. She assures her doctor that she can adhere to a daily medication routine. Her primary concern is avoiding weight gain. Which contraceptive method is most commonly linked to this side effect?

      Your Answer: Injectable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      The method of contraception that is commonly linked to weight gain is injectable contraception, which includes Depo-Provera. The combined oral contraceptive pill has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast cancer, and cervical cancer, but there is no evidence to suggest that it causes weight gain. Implantable contraceptives like Implanon are typically associated with irregular or heavy bleeding, but not weight gain. Intrauterine devices, such as the copper coil, are known to cause heavier and more painful periods, but they are not associated with weight gain.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of difficulty initiating the flow of urine,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of difficulty initiating the flow of urine, increased frequency, and urgency for the past six months. His serum prostate-specific antigen level is 1.5 ng/ml (normal < 2.5 ng/ml) and a prostatic biopsy is performed, revealing glandular and stromal hyperplasia with an increased number of epithelial and stromal cells. What is the most suitable treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Testosterone replacement

      Correct Answer: Prazosin

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

      Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH) is a common condition in older men that causes urinary symptoms. Prazosin is a preferred treatment option for BPH as it relaxes the smooth muscle of the neck of the bladder and improves urinary flow rates. Dutasteride, a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor, is not recommended as it inhibits all three isoenzymes of 5-alpha-reductase, causing side effects such as hypogonadism, gynaecomastia, and ejaculation disorders. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, and ephedrine, an alpha-agonist, have no role in the treatment of BPH. Testosterone replacement is not used in the treatment of BPH but is used for hypogonadism. When medical therapy fails or carcinoma of the prostate is suspected, urology referral should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      89.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids while on the ward. You receive a call from a nurse on the ward reporting that the patient is experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Upon examination, you order an urgent chest X-ray.
      What finding on the chest X-ray would be most indicative of pulmonary edema?

      Your Answer: Patchy perihilar shadowing

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Chest X-Ray Findings in Heart Failure

      Chest X-rays are commonly used to assess patients with heart failure. Here are some key findings to look out for:

      – Patchy perihilar shadowing: This suggests alveolar oedema, which can arise due to fluid overload in heart failure. Intravenous fluids should be given slowly, with frequent re-assessment for signs of peripheral and pulmonary oedema.
      – Cardiothoracic ratio of 0.5: A ratio of >0.5 on a postero-anterior (PA) chest X-ray may indicate heart failure. A ratio of 0.5 or less is considered normal.
      – Patchy shadowing in lower zones: This may suggest consolidation caused by pneumonia, which can complicate heart failure.
      – Prominent lower zone vessels: In pulmonary venous hypertension, there is redistribution of blood flow to the non-dependent upper lung zones, leading to larger vessels in the lower zones.
      – Narrowing of the carina: This may suggest enlargement of the left atrium, which sits directly under the carina in the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      127.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of feeling generally unwell. She reports discomfort and distension in her abdomen, as well as loose stools and dyspnea on exertion. Upon examination, there is generalised abdominal tenderness without guarding, and all observations are within normal range. The patient is currently undergoing fertility treatment and received a gonadorelin analogue injection the previous week. What is the most probable diagnosis based on this information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)

      Explanation:

      Ovulation induction can lead to ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) as a potential side effect. The symptoms of OHSS often involve gastrointestinal discomfort such as bloating, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Additionally, patients may experience shortness of breath, fever, peripheral edema, and oliguria. OHSS can range in severity from mild to life-threatening, with complications such as dehydration, thromboembolism, acute kidney injury (AKI), and pulmonary edema. Severe OHSS typically has a delayed onset compared to milder cases. In the given scenario, the patient received a GnRH agonist injection within the past week, indicating that her symptoms may be less severe.

      Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man visits the outpatient urology clinic with a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits the outpatient urology clinic with a lump in his left testicle. He reports no other symptoms. During his examination, a 5 mm firm and painless lump is detected. Following an ultrasound of the testicle and tumour markers, testicular cancer is suspected. What combination of tumour markers were likely requested for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers Associated with Testicular Cancer: AFP and hCG

      Testicular cancer is often characterized by the presence of a lump, and the most common tumour markers associated with this type of cancer are alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Germ cell tumours are the most common type of testicular cancer, with seminomas and non-seminomas being the most prevalent subtypes. Mixed germ cell tumours may also occur. Stromal tumours and metastasis from other organs are less common.

      The age range and tumour markers associated with each type of germ cell tumour are as follows: seminomas are associated with an increase in hCG, embryonal carcinoma with an increase in both hCG and AFP, yolk sac carcinoma with an increase in AFP, choriocarcinoma with an increase in hCG, and teratoma without specific markers.

      While it would be appropriate to request hCG and AFP, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) are not typically elevated in testicular cancer. CEA is more commonly associated with adenocarcinomas, particularly colorectal, while PSA is associated with prostate cancer. Similarly, PSA and CA-125 are not typically elevated in testicular cancer, but rather in prostate cancer and ovarian cancers, respectively.

      In summary, AFP and hCG are the most common tumour markers associated with testicular cancer, and their levels can help diagnose and monitor the disease. Other tumour markers, such as CEA and PSA, are not typically elevated in testicular cancer and may be more indicative of other types of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination, clubbing of the fingers is observed. What medical condition is commonly associated with clubbing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory and Other Causes of Clubbing of the Fingers

      Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the tips of the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. This condition is often associated with respiratory diseases such as carcinoma of the lung, bronchiectasis, mesothelioma, empyema, and pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is not typically associated with chronic obstructive airway disease (COAD). Other causes of clubbing of the fingers include cyanotic congenital heart disease, inflammatory bowel disease, and infective endocarditis.

      In summary, clubbing of the fingers is a physical manifestation of various underlying medical conditions. It is important to identify the underlying cause of clubbing of the fingers in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic chest pain along with dizziness. Upon examination, there is no tenderness in the chest wall and no abnormal sounds on auscultation. The calves appear normal. The electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia with a heart rate of 130 bpm. The D-dimer level is elevated at 0.85 mg/l. The chest X-ray is normal, and the oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. The ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan indicates a low probability of pulmonary embolism. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request a computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Imaging in Diagnosing Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism is a common medical issue that requires accurate diagnosis to initiate appropriate treatment. While preliminary investigations such as ECG, ABG, and D-dimer can raise clinical suspicion, imaging plays a crucial role in making a definitive diagnosis. V/Q imaging is often the first step, but if clinical suspicion is high, a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) may be necessary. This non-invasive imaging scan can detect a filling defect in the pulmonary vessel, indicating the presence of an embolus. Repeating a V/Q scan is unlikely to provide additional information. Bronchoscopy is not useful in detecting pulmonary embolism, and treating as an LRTI is not appropriate without evidence of infection. Early and accurate diagnosis is essential in managing pulmonary embolism effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 8 - Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has been struggling with severe acne for a few years and has tried various over-the-counter treatments and antibiotics, but none have worked. She has been researching Roaccutane® (isotretinoin) and is interested in trying it. What is the most frequent side effect Samantha may encounter while taking Roaccutane®?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry skin and lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of Roaccutane®: Dry Skin and Lips

      Roaccutane® is a powerful medication used to treat severe acne when other treatments have failed. While it is highly effective, it is also associated with a range of side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is severe dry skin and lips, which can be uncomfortable and require additional moisturizing. Other potential side-effects include dryness of the eyes, mucous membranes, and scalp, as well as muscle pain and hair loss.

      It is important to note that Roaccutane® is highly teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Women who are taking Roaccutane® should use at least two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Additionally, all patients should have their liver function and lipid levels monitored before and during treatment, as Roaccutane® can cause elevated levels of both.

      While night sweats and peptic ulceration are not recognised side-effects of Roaccutane®, photosensitivity is a potential side-effect, although it is not the most common. Weight gain is also not a recognised side-effect. Patients taking Roaccutane® should be aware of these potential side-effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness, and pain in her left eye. She reports experiencing some discomfort and redness earlier in the day, which worsened over the next two hours. She has no history of trauma or other visual problems. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis, left eye cataract surgery three days ago, and no significant family history.

      Upon examination, the left eye appears hyperemic with hypopyon, and eye movements are painful. Visual acuity is severely impaired, while the right eye appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endophthalmitis

      Explanation:

      Post-operative endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication that can occur after cataract surgery and requires immediate treatment.

      If a patient experiences sudden pain, redness, and vision loss shortly after eye surgery, it may indicate post-operative endophthalmitis. This infection affects the aqueous and vitreous humor of the eye and is a rare complication of any eye surgery.

      While anterior uveitis can also cause a painful red eye, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history of cataract surgery. Additionally, there is no mention of an irregularly-shaped pupil or any systemic disease associated with anterior uveitis.

      A corneal ulcer is another possibility, but it typically presents with a sensation of a foreign body in the eye and discharge. It is also more common in contact lens wearers who have been exposed to water.

      Retinal detachment is less likely because it usually causes visual disturbances such as floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain descending over the peripheral visual field. Although ocular surgery is a risk factor for retinal detachment, it would not cause the intense redness and hypopyon seen in post-operative endophthalmitis.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 10 - A newly born infant is observed to have clubfoot on both feet. What...

    Incorrect

    • A newly born infant is observed to have clubfoot on both feet. What is the preferred treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Manipulation and progressive casting starting soon after birth

      Explanation:

      Talipes Equinovarus: A Common Foot Deformity in Newborns

      Talipes equinovarus, also known as club foot, is a foot deformity characterized by an inward turning and plantar flexed foot. It is a common condition that affects 1 in 1,000 newborns, with a higher incidence in males. In about 50% of cases, the deformity is present in both feet. While the cause of talipes equinovarus is often unknown, it can be associated with conditions such as spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and oligohydramnios.

      Diagnosis of talipes equinovarus is typically made during the newborn exam, and imaging is not usually necessary. The deformity is not passively correctable, and the diagnosis is based on clinical examination.

      In recent years, there has been a shift towards conservative management of talipes equinovarus, with the Ponseti method being the preferred approach. This method involves manipulation and progressive casting of the foot, starting soon after birth. The deformity is usually corrected within 6-10 weeks, and an Achilles tenotomy may be required in some cases. Night-time braces are then used until the child is 4 years old to prevent relapse, which occurs in about 15% of cases.

      Overall, talipes equinovarus is a common foot deformity in newborns that can be effectively managed with conservative methods such as the Ponseti method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - What is an example of an organism that can only survive inside a...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of an organism that can only survive inside a host cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia Trachomatis: A Unique Intracellular Parasite

      Chlamydia trachomatis is a type of intracellular parasite that infects only humans. Unlike other microorganisms, it cannot produce its own ATP or grow on artificial medium. Initially, it was believed to be a virus, but its unique developmental cycle led to its classification in a separate order. Diagnostic manuals often place it alongside other intracellular parasites like Rickettsiae.

      The genome size of Chlamydia trachomatis is around 500-1000 kilobases and contains both RNA and DNA. It is also highly temperature-sensitive and must be refrigerated at 4°C immediately after obtaining a sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man has been experiencing severe, throbbing headaches for a few months,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been experiencing severe, throbbing headaches for a few months, focused on the right side. A tender cord-like area can be felt over his right temple. Upon examination, his heart rate is regular without murmurs, gallops, or rubs. His pulses are equal and full in all extremities, and his blood pressure is 110/85 mmHg. A biopsy of the lesion is taken, revealing a muscular artery with luminal narrowing and medial inflammation with lymphocytes, macrophages, and occasional giant cells. The patient responds well to high-dose corticosteroid therapy. What laboratory test finding is most likely to be present with this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 50 mm/hr

      Explanation:

      Temporal arthritis and its Consequences

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that commonly affects the temporal artery. Its classic symptoms include headache, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. If left untreated, it can lead to involvement of other branches of the external carotid artery, with the ophthalmic branch being the worst affected. This can cause blindness due to ischaemic optic neuropathy, central retinal artery occlusion, or cortical infarction. Although corticosteroid therapy can reduce symptoms, established blindness is irreversible. Therefore, it is crucial to diagnose and treat temporal arthritis promptly to prevent severe consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
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  • Question 13 - What is the correct statement regarding gastric acid secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding gastric acid secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is potentiated by histamine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gastric Acid Secretion: Factors that Stimulate and Inhibit its Production

      Gastric acid, also known as stomach acid, is a vital component in the process of digesting food. Composed of hydrochloric acid, potassium chloride, and sodium chloride, it is secreted in the stomach and plays a crucial role in breaking down ingested food contents. In this article, we will explore the factors that stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion.

      Stimulation of Gastric Acid Secretion

      There are three classic phases of gastric acid secretion. The cephalic (preparatory) phase is triggered by the sight, smell, thought, and taste of food acting via the vagus nerve. This results in the production of gastric acid before food actually enters the stomach. The gastric phase is initiated by the presence of food in the stomach, particularly protein-rich food, caused by stimulation of G cells which release gastrin. This is the most important phase. The intestinal phase is stimulated by luminal distension plus the presence of amino acids and food in the duodenum.

      Potentiation and Inhibition of Gastric Acid Secretion

      Histamine potentiates gastric acid secretion, while gastrin inhibits it. Somatostatin, secretin, and cholecystokinin also inhibit gastric acid production.

      Importance of Gastric Acid Secretion

      Gastric acid secretion reduces the risk of Zollinger–Ellison syndrome, a condition characterized by excess gastric acid production that can lead to multiple severe gastric ulcers, requiring high-dose antacid treatment. Understanding the factors that stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion is crucial in maintaining a healthy digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of sporadic abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of sporadic abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She believes her last menstrual cycle was 8 weeks ago but is uncertain. She has no prior gynecological history and has never been pregnant before. Her vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg and a pulse rate of 79 bpm. A pregnancy test conducted in the department is positive, and a transvaginal ultrasound confirms a pregnancy in the adnexa with a fetal heartbeat present. What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical management - salpingectomy or salpingostomy

      Explanation:

      The patient has a confirmed ectopic pregnancy, which requires definitive treatment even though there is no evidence of rupture. While expectant management may be an option for those without acute symptoms and decreasing beta-HCG levels, close monitoring is necessary and intervention is recommended if symptoms arise or beta-HCG levels increase. If a fetal heartbeat is present, conservative and medical management are unlikely to be successful and may increase the risk of rupture, which is a medical emergency. Therefore, surgical removal of the ectopic is the most appropriate option. If the opposite tube is healthy, salpingectomy may be the preferred choice. However, if the opposite tube is damaged, salpingostomy may be considered to preserve the functional tube and reduce the risk of future infertility.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 22-year-old woman comes in for her dating scan after discovering she was...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes in for her dating scan after discovering she was pregnant 6 weeks ago through a urine pregnancy test. However, her ultrasound reveals that the pregnancy is ectopic and located in her left fallopian tube. The size of the pregnancy is 20mm, unruptured, and has no cardiac activity. The patient is not experiencing any symptoms such as bleeding, cramping, vomiting, or systemic symptoms, and her vitals are normal. Her blood test results show that her β-hCG levels have decreased from 940 IU/L at her booking appointment to 740 IU/L today. She has no significant medical history. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give safety netting advice and ask to return in 48 hours for serum β-hCG levels

      Explanation:

      Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy is only suitable for an embryo that is unruptured, <35mm in size, has no heartbeat, is asymptomatic, and has a β-hCG level of <1,000 IU/L and declining. In this case, the woman has a small ectopic pregnancy without cardiac activity and a declining β-hCG level. Therefore, expectant management is appropriate, and the woman should be given safety netting advice and asked to return for a follow-up blood test in 48 hours. Admitting her for 12-hourly β-hCG monitoring is unnecessary, and performing a salpingectomy or salpingostomy is not indicated. Prescribing medical management is also inappropriate in this case. Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test. There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility. Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - As an F2 in psychiatry, you come across the notes of a 27-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As an F2 in psychiatry, you come across the notes of a 27-year-old man who is noted to prefer solitude, has never been in a romantic relationship, and has no desire for one. He also displays minimal interest in engaging in sexual activities with others. Despite performing well at work, he places little importance on feedback from his colleagues. Based on this information, which personality disorder is most likely present in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizoid

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a preference for solitude, a lack of interest in close relationships, and a low libido. It is important to note that while asexuality is recognized as part of the LGBTQ+ spectrum, it is not included in the diagnostic criteria for this disorder. The DSM-5 and ICD-10 both list a lack of desire for close relationships, a preference for solitary activities, and a limited capacity for expressing emotions as key features of schizoid personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder may also appear indifferent to praise or criticism, lack close friends or confidants, and exhibit emotional detachment or flattened affectivity. In contrast, borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability in relationships, including sudden mood swings, rages, self-harming behaviors, and intense jealousy. Dependent personality disorder involves a reliance on others for reassurance and decision-making.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 21-year-old male student from Egypt presents to the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male student from Egypt presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of increasing lethargy and reduced exercise tolerance. He also reports dark urine. These symptoms started 2 days after he finished a course of antibiotics for a lower respiratory tract infection.

      On examination, you notice yellow sclerae bilaterally. His abdomen is soft and non-tender, respiratory and neurological examinations are unremarkable, cardiac examination shows sinus tachycardia of 110 beats/min.

      His blood test results are as follows:

      Hb 89 g/L (135-180)

      Platelets 450* 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Bilirubin 65 µmol/L (3 - 17)

      ALP 90 u/L (30 - 100)

      ALT 33 u/L (3 - 40)

      Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Reticulocytes 4 % (0.5 - 1.5)

      Blood film Heinz bodies

      Which antibiotic is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in individuals from the Mediterranean and Africa. Ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in individuals with G6PD deficiency as it can cause haemolytic anaemia. This condition is characterized by the presence of Heinz bodies, which are small round inclusions composed of denatured haemoglobin, in red blood cells. Other antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, and tetracyclines are safe to use in individuals with G6PD deficiency.

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for patients with heart conditions.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old hypertensive, diabetic smoker presents with sudden onset unilateral facial weakness, hemiparesis...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old hypertensive, diabetic smoker presents with sudden onset unilateral facial weakness, hemiparesis of the upper and lower limbs and sensory disturbance. All symptoms are on the same side. Global aphasia is also noted on examination. CT brain is normal. An ischaemic cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is diagnosed.
      What is the most likely vascular territory involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Stroke and Their Symptoms

      Strokes can occur when there is a blockage or rupture of blood vessels in the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to brain cells. Different types of strokes can affect different areas of the brain, resulting in varying symptoms. Here are some examples:

      – Left middle cerebral artery: This type of stroke can cause unilateral facial weakness, hemiplegia, and hemisensory loss. It can also lead to global aphasia, which is a language impairment that affects the dominant hemisphere of the brain (usually the left side). This occurs when the trunk of the left MCA is occluded, causing damage to Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas in the left perisylvian cortex.
      – Right middle cerebral artery: A stroke in the right MCA can cause contralateral motor and sensory symptoms without speech disturbance.
      – Basilar artery: This type of stroke can be particularly devastating, as it affects the brainstem and can lead to a locked-in state. Prognosis is poor.
      – Right internal carotid artery: This is typically asymptomatic, as collateral circulation from the circle of Willis can compensate for the occlusion.
      – Left vertebral artery: A stroke in the left vertebral artery can cause posterior circulation stroke, which can result in symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, gait disturbance, and vertigo.

      It’s important to recognize the symptoms of a stroke and seek medical attention immediately. Time is of the essence when it comes to treating strokes, as early intervention can help minimize damage to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A mother brings her 9-month-old baby to clinic for a check-up. His prior...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 9-month-old baby to clinic for a check-up. His prior medical history has been unremarkable and his immunisations are up-to-date. The mother is concerned about his growth. After you determine that the baby has grown appropriately since the last visit and is unchanged from the 50th centile, you provide the mother with advice regarding growth.
      What signalling pathway does growth hormone (GH) use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A tyrosine kinase receptor that uses the JAK/STAT pathway

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Second Messenger Systems and Receptor Types in Hormonal Signaling

      Hormones utilize various signaling pathways to transmit their messages to target cells. One important aspect of hormonal signaling is the use of second messengers, which relay the hormone signal from the cell surface to the intracellular environment. Here, we compare and contrast the second messenger systems and receptor types used by different hormones.

      Growth hormone (GH) and prolactin both use the tyrosine kinase receptor, followed by activation of Janus kinase (JAK), signal transduction, and activation of transcription (STAT). In contrast, platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), fibroblast growth factor (FGF), insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), and insulin use the MAP kinase or RAS system. Aldosterone uses steroid receptors, while GH uses the tyrosine kinase receptor.

      Inositol trisphosphate (IP3) works as a second messenger for hypothalamic hormones such as gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), and pituitary hormones such as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin.

      Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) is a second messenger that activates protein kinases and mediates endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), and nitric oxide.

      Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) is a second messenger of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and several other hormones, but not GH.

      In summary, different hormones use distinct second messenger systems and receptor types to transmit their signals, highlighting the complexity and diversity of hormonal signaling pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up on her blood pressure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up on her blood pressure, which has been difficult to manage despite lifestyle changes and taking a combination of ramipril and felodipine. On examination, there are no clinical indications to aid in diagnosis. The GP conducts a urinalysis, which comes back normal, and orders some blood tests. The results show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 175 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      eGFR >60 ml/min/1.73m2 >60 ml/min/1.73m2
      Based on this presentation, what is the most probable secondary cause of hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Secondary Causes of Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can have various underlying causes. While primary hypertension is the most common form, secondary hypertension can be caused by an underlying medical condition. Here are some of the secondary causes of hypertension:

      1. Primary Hyperaldosteronism: This is the most common form of secondary hypertension, caused by a solitary adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. It is more prevalent in patients with hypertension who are resistant to treatment.

      2. Phaeochromocytoma: This rare condition can cause severe symptoms such as headaches, sweating, abdominal pain, and palpitations associated with periods of very high blood pressure.

      3. Glomerulonephritis: Renal disease can be a potential secondary cause of hypertension, typically manifesting as haematuria or proteinuria on urinalysis. The creatinine level may rise, and the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls.

      4. Diabetic Nephropathy: This condition presents with proteinuria (and likely glucose) on urinalysis. Renal disease may lead to a rise in creatinine and a fall in eGFR.

      5. Cushing Syndrome: While unlikely to cause isolated hypertension, other features of Cushing syndrome such as abdominal obesity, striae, and a round face would likely be present on examination.

      In conclusion, it is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - What are the typical changes in the haematogenous system during infancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the typical changes in the haematogenous system during infancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extramedullary haematopoiesis stops

      Explanation:

      Haematopoiesis and Immunological Development in Infancy

      At birth, the liver is responsible for producing blood cells, but this process stops within the first year of life. Haematopoiesis, or the production of blood cells, can also occur outside of the bone marrow, known as Extramedullary haematopoiesis. During fetal development, the liver and spleen are responsible for haematopoiesis while the bone marrow develops. However, once the infant is born, the bone marrow takes over the production of blood cells, and haematopoiesis in the liver and spleen ceases. In some cases, such as beta-thalassaemia major, Extramedullary haematopoiesis can continue and expand to other areas of the body.

      Immunoglobulin production begins after six months, with maternal IgG providing most of the antibody coverage for the first three months of life. This means that infants are most vulnerable to encapsulated bacterial infections between three and nine months of age. Lymphatic tissue mass remains relatively unchanged during infancy but increases during early childhood, which may account for the increase in viral infections experienced by children. Neutrophil production does not increase unless there is a bacterial infection present, and the total white cell count decreases during infancy. Additionally, the production of fetal haemoglobin, or HbF, decreases steadily during the first year of life as it is replaced by HbA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her inability to conceive despite trying for two years with her regular partner. She has a BMI of 29 kg/m² and a known history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. What medication would be the most effective in restoring regular ovulation in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      For overweight or obese women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) who are having difficulty getting pregnant, the initial approach is weight loss. If weight loss is not successful, either due to the woman’s inability to lose weight or failure to conceive despite weight loss, metformin can be used as an additional treatment.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his left upper and both lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his left upper and both lower limbs for the last six months. He developed digital infarcts involving his second and third toes on his left side and the fourth toe on his right side.

      On examination, his blood pressure was 170/110 mmHg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was an asymmetrical neuropathy.

      Investigations showed:

      - Haemoglobin 118 g/L (120-160)
      - White cell Count 11 ×109/L (3.5-10)
      - Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-450)
      - ESR 55mm/hr (0-15)

      Urine examination showed proteinuria +++ and RBC 10-15/hpf without casts.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa

      Explanation:

      Polyarteritis Nodosa

      Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized arteries. It can cause damage to various organs, including the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. The symptoms of PAN can range from mild to severe, depending on the extent of the damage. Some of the common symptoms include hypertension, nephropathy, digital infarcts, and mononeuritis multiplex.

      One of the key diagnostic features of PAN is the presence of multiple aneurysms at vessel bifurcations, which can be detected through angiography. Treatment for PAN typically involves the use of immunosuppressive drugs to reduce inflammation and prevent further damage to the affected organs. With proper management, many people with PAN are able to achieve remission and maintain a good quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old gravid 3, para 2 at 24 weeks gestation comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gravid 3, para 2 at 24 weeks gestation comes to the antenatal clinic to discuss delivery options for her pregnancy. She has a history of delivering her previous pregnancies through vaginal and elective caesarean section, respectively. What is the definite reason for not allowing vaginal delivery after a previous caesarean section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vertical (classic) caesarean scar

      Explanation:

      VBAC is not recommended for patients who have had previous vertical (classical) caesarean scars, experienced uterine rupture in the past, or have other contraindications to vaginal birth such as placenta praevia. However, women who have had two or more previous caesarean sections may still be considered for VBAC. The remaining options in this question do not necessarily rule out VBAC.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 25 - Which bone fracture is most effectively diagnosed using an oblique radiological view? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which bone fracture is most effectively diagnosed using an oblique radiological view?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      Scaphoid Injuries and Diagnosis

      The scaphoid is the carpal bone that is most commonly injured in the wrist, with only distal radius fractures being more frequent. These injuries are often misdiagnosed as sprained wrists, and they are most commonly seen in young men. To diagnose a scaphoid injury, routine radiographs are taken, including anteroposterior, lateral, and oblique views. The AP view is done with a mildly clenched fist and the wrist in ulnar deviation, while the lateral view is done with the wrist in a neutral position.

      When the scaphoid is injured, the lateral view will show a disruption of the alignment of the distal radius, lunate, and capitate bones, which should be collinear. If radiographs are negative despite clinical suspicion of a scaphoid fracture, the patient’s wrist is immobilized and radiographs are repeated in two weeks. If plain films continue to be negative but clinical suspicion remains, further imaging should be pursued.

      Bone scan and computed tomography have been used with about equal accuracy to detect occult fractures, while polytomography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can also be used, although they are more expensive. MRI can demonstrate much more anatomy and, because of increasing affordability, may soon become the standard for visualizing occult fractures and ligament disruptions. Overall, early and accurate diagnosis of scaphoid injuries is crucial for proper treatment and prevention of long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Radiology
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  • Question 26 - After fertilisation, which part of the spermatozoon remains in the cytoplasm of the...

    Incorrect

    • After fertilisation, which part of the spermatozoon remains in the cytoplasm of the oocyte?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleus

      Explanation:

      During fertilization, the nucleus of the sperm carries the genetic material needed to create the paternal pronucleus and subsequently the zygote. The acrosome discharges its hydrolytic enzymes to help the sperm penetrate through the corona radiata and the zona pellucida. The sperm nucleus enters the cytoplasm of the egg, along with the midpiece, mitochondria, centrosome, and kinocilium of the sperm. Fertilization triggers changes in the chemistry of the zona pellucida and the discharge of cortical granules in the egg cytoplasm, which prevent additional sperm from fertilizing the egg. The sperm nucleus decondenses to form the haploid male pronucleus, which fuses with the haploid female pronucleus to form a diploid zygote nucleus. The midpiece and kinocilium of the sperm are destroyed, while the plasma membrane covering the tail remains attached to the egg plasma membrane. Mitochondrial diseases are inherited exclusively along the maternal line because the male mitochondria are destroyed soon after fertilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman gives birth to a 37-week gestational age male neonate. Within...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman gives birth to a 37-week gestational age male neonate. Within 6 hours after delivery, the neonate shows signs of excessive respiratory efforts and tachypnoea. There is grunting and intercostal retraction. A chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary oedema with a ground-glass appearance. What antenatal examination findings are most likely to have been observed in the mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fasting blood sugar of 14.0 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The neonate in question has a fasting blood sugar level of 14.0 mmol/l and is suffering from neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS). This is a common condition in premature infants, and those born to diabetic mothers are at an increased risk due to delayed lung maturation. An elevated total thyroxine concentration is a normal response to pregnancy and is not related to NRDS. Maternal hypocalcaemia also has no relation to NRDS. A positive indirect Coombs’ test indicates a risk of Rh isoimmunisation in the fetus, which can lead to complications such as erythroblastosis fetalis and jaundice, but is not directly related to NRDS. Elevated titres of anti-nuclear and anti-SSA antibodies are associated with maternal systemic lupus erythematosus and fetal conduction heart block, but again, this is not directly related to NRDS unless it leads to preterm birth. Overall, prematurity and maternal diabetes are the major risk factors for NRDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A 75-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of femur. The patient has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica, ischaemic heart disease, and dyspepsia. Their current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, simvastatin, aspirin, omeprazole, and prednisolone. A bone profile is ordered as part of the diagnostic workup.
      What would be the probable findings for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PTH - normal, calcium - normal, phosphate - normal

      Explanation:

      Normal blood test values, including ALP, calcium, phosphate, and PTH, are commonly observed in patients with osteoporosis. However, in cases where osteoporosis is caused by chronic use of systemic steroids, the bone profile results may still appear normal. Other conditions, such as primary hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, CKD, and tertiary hyperparathyroidism, may present with abnormal blood test values, including high PTH, low calcium, and/or low phosphate.

      Understanding Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the skeletal system, causing a loss of bone mass. As people age, their bone mineral density decreases, but osteoporosis is defined by the World Health Organisation as having a bone mineral density of less than 2.5 standard deviations below the young adult mean density. This condition is significant because it increases the risk of fragility fractures, which can lead to significant morbidity and mortality. In fact, around 50% of postmenopausal women will experience an osteoporotic fracture at some point.

      The primary risk factors for osteoporosis are age and female gender, but other factors include corticosteroid use, smoking, alcohol consumption, low body mass index, and family history. To assess a patient’s risk of developing a fragility fracture, healthcare providers may use screening tools such as FRAX or QFracture. Additionally, patients who have sustained a fragility fracture should be evaluated for osteoporosis.

      To determine a patient’s bone mineral density, a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is used to examine the hip and lumbar spine. If either of these areas has a T score of less than -2.5, treatment is recommended. The first-line treatment for osteoporosis is typically an oral bisphosphonate such as alendronate, although other treatments are available. Overall, osteoporosis is a significant condition that requires careful evaluation and management to prevent fragility fractures and their associated complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a general feeling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a general feeling of being unwell. He has no history of chronic disease or renal impairment. Upon blood testing, his results show elevated levels of creatinine, urea, potassium, creatine kinase, and phosphate, as well as a slightly low sodium level and an elevated CRP level. What could be the possible cause of his renal impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rhabdomyolysis

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyolysis and Myoglobinuria

      Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that results from muscle damage and lysis of muscle cells. This leads to the release of cellular contents such as potassium, myoglobin, CK, and phosphate into the bloodstream. Excessive myoglobin release overwhelms the ability of haptoglobin to clear it, leading to its filtration by the glomerulus and entry into the urine. This causes damage to tubular cells in the renal tubule, resulting in free radical release and cast formation.

      There are several causes of rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, including trauma, compartment syndrome, crush injury, ischaemia, severe electrolyte disturbances, bacterial and viral infections, inherited metabolic disorders such as McArdle’s disease, and drugs such as barbiturates and statins (although this is rare).

      In summary, rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria are serious conditions that can result from a variety of causes. the underlying mechanisms and potential triggers can help with early diagnosis and treatment, which is crucial for preventing further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old man with a past medical history of chronic constipation complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with a past medical history of chronic constipation complains of sudden perianal pain. The pain has been persistent for a week and worsens during bowel movements. Additionally, he reports observing a small amount of bright red blood on the toilet paper after wiping.
      Upon examination, the abdominal region appears normal, but rectal examination is not feasible due to the patient's discomfort.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fissure

      Explanation:

      Anal Fissures: Symptoms and Treatment

      Anal fissures are a common condition characterized by perianal pain that worsens during defecation and is often accompanied by fresh bleeding. The history of these symptoms is typical of a fissure, although visualization of the fissure is often not possible due to the pain associated with rectal examination. Most fissures are located in the midline posteriorly, and in the acute phase, GTN cream can provide relief in two-thirds of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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Cardiology (1/1) 100%
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