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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old woman has had Paget's disease of bone for at least 10...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has had Paget's disease of bone for at least 10 years. She has complained of a worsening pain at rest around her lower back and hip area. You arrange an X ray which shows a destructive mass in the bony pelvis.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoma

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone

      Paget’s disease of bone is a condition that typically affects individuals in later life. It occurs when the normal repair process of bone is disrupted, leading to the formation of weak bones that are prone to fractures. Specifically, the repair process ends at the stage of vascular osteoid bone, which is not as strong as fully mineralized bone.

      Unfortunately, Paget’s disease of bone can also lead to complications such as osteogenic sarcoma, which occurs in approximately 5% of cases. As such, it is important for individuals with Paget’s disease to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to prevent and manage potential complications. By understanding the underlying mechanisms of Paget’s disease and its associated risks, individuals can take steps to protect their bone health and overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her mother wonders if a psychological problem might explain her behaviour. What is conduct disorder and how might it be related to the girl's behaviour?

      Your Answer: It most commonly starts before the age of 10 years

      Correct Answer: It may be associated with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conduct Disorder: Characteristics and Prevalence

      Conduct disorder (CD) is a behavioral disorder that is characterized by aggressive, antisocial, and defiant behavior in children. Children with CD exhibit behaviors such as physical cruelty, destructiveness, lying, stealing, and truancy. To be diagnosed with CD, a child must exhibit at least three of these characteristics over the past year, with at least one in the last six months.

      CD can be classified into two types: early-onset CD, which occurs before the age of 10 and is less common, and adolescent-onset CD, which is more common and may be associated with ADHD. A UK government report found that 5% of children aged 5-15 years had conduct disorder, and 1% had ADHD/hyperkinetic disorder. The male to female ratio is 3:1.

      The severity of CD depends on the number of problems the child has and the effect on others. Children with CD may exhibit persistent antisocial behavior, and temper tantrums are common. Stealing, assault, and destruction of property can lead to legal consequences for the child.

      In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and prevalence of conduct disorder is crucial in identifying and addressing this behavioral disorder in children. Early intervention and treatment can help improve outcomes for children with CD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been...

    Incorrect

    • One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been diagnosed with hepatitis B. She has not told anyone else as she is worried she may lose her job. She is currently working as a nurse in the local hospital. You try to persuade her to inform occupational health but she refuses. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform your colleagues employing body

      Explanation:

      Patient safety is the top priority, as stated in the updated GMC guidelines.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old male is unconscious on admission following a workplace accident. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male is unconscious on admission following a workplace accident. He was operating heavy machinery and there is suspicion that he may have been under the influence of drugs at the time of the incident. His wife is present and unharmed. The authorities are requesting a blood sample for drug testing, but the patient is unable to provide consent and there is no forensic physician available. As a healthcare professional working in the emergency department, what is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Draw a blood sample for later analysis when the patient is competent to consent

      Explanation:

      Taking Blood Specimens from Incapacitated Drivers

      The BMA has provided clear guidance on the subject of taking blood specimens from incapacitated drivers. According to the 2010 document, the law allows for a blood specimen to be taken for future testing for alcohol or other drugs from a person involved in an accident who is unable to give consent due to medical reasons. A police constable must believe the person to be incapable of giving valid consent before a forensic physician is asked to take the sample. If this is not possible, another doctor may be asked, but not one who has any responsibility for the patient’s clinical care. The doctor to whom the request is made must take the specimen, and the doctor in charge of the patient’s care must be notified before the sample is taken. The specimen cannot be tested until the person regains competence and gives valid consent for it to be tested.

      Under the Police Reform Act, it is no longer necessary to obtain consent from unconscious or incapacitated drivers. However, the sample is not tested until the person regains competence and gives valid consent to it being tested. A competent person who refuses to allow their sample to be tested may be liable to prosecution. It is important to note that the police have no powers to take and test blood specimens that were taken as part of the patient’s care in hospital. The new law recognises the duty to justice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 5 - A concerned mother brings her 12 day old daughter to your clinic. The...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned mother brings her 12 day old daughter to your clinic. The baby has developed a scaly, yellowish patch on her scalp and the mother seeks your advice. Upon examination, you notice the patch located on the occipital area of the baby's head, but she appears to be in good health otherwise. What would be the best course of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and advise use of baby shampoo

      Explanation:

      Seborrheic dermatitis, also known as ‘cradle cap’, is a frequently observed condition in newborns. Parents usually do not seek medical advice and the issue often resolves on its own with minimal intervention. It is unnecessary to seek extensive treatment for a 10-day-old child with this condition.

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Children: Common Skin Disorder

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a skin disorder that is commonly seen in children. It usually affects the scalp, nappy area, face, and limb flexures. One of the early signs of this condition is cradle cap, which can develop in the first few weeks of life. Cradle cap is characterized by an erythematous rash with coarse yellow scales.

      The management of seborrhoeic dermatitis in children depends on its severity. For mild to moderate cases, baby shampoo and baby oils can be used. However, for severe cases, mild topical steroids such as 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary.

      Fortunately, seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age. It is important to seek medical advice if the condition persists or worsens despite treatment. With proper management, children with seborrhoeic dermatitis can have healthy and clear skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 6 - A 4-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a fever that developed at...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a fever that developed at home this morning. According to his mother, he has vomited twice and is now feeling very tired. During the examination, the child is cooperative and doesn't resist. His temperature is 38.1 degrees Celsius, and a non-blanching rash is visible on both thighs. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin sodium 600mg

      Explanation:

      For a child aged 1-9 years, the recommended single dose of benzylpenicillin sodium prior to hospitalisation is 600mg, provided that it doesn’t cause any delay in transferring the child to the hospital. Any other dosage would be inappropriate for children in this age group.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 7 - A 49-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He has a past medical history of hypertension, migraine, and obesity (BMI is 38). Currently, he takes metformin 1 g BD and ramipril 5 mg OD for blood pressure control. His latest HbA1c is 50 mmol/mol, and his total cholesterol is 5.2 with an LDL cholesterol of 3.5. His QRisk2 score is 21%.

      During the consultation, you discuss the addition of lipid-lowering medication to reduce his cardiovascular risk, especially in light of his recently treated hypertension. You both agree that starting him on Atorvastatin 20 mg at night is an appropriate treatment for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease.

      Before prescribing the medication, you review his latest blood results, which show normal full blood count, renal function, and thyroid function. However, his liver function tests reveal an ALT of 106 IU/L (<60) and an ALP of 169 IU/L (20-200). Bilirubin levels are within normal limits.

      Upon further investigation, you discover that the ALT rise has persisted since his first blood tests at the surgery over four years ago. However, the liver function results have remained stable over this time, showing no significant variation from the current values. A liver ultrasound done two years ago reports some evidence of fatty infiltration only.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20 mg nocte can be initiated and repeat liver function tests should be performed within the first three months of use

      Explanation:

      Liver Function and Statin Therapy

      Liver function should be assessed before starting statin therapy. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can be used. It is important to repeat liver function tests within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months, as well as if a dose increase is made or if clinically indicated.

      In the case of a modest ALT elevation due to fatty deposition in the liver, statin therapy can still be beneficial for primary prevention, especially if the patient’s Qrisk2 score is over 10%. Mild derangement in liver function is not uncommon in overweight type 2 diabetics. The patient can be treated with the usual NICE-guided primary prevention dose of atorvastatin, which is 20 mg nocte. A higher dose or alternative statin may be required in the future, depending on the patient’s response to the initial treatment and lifestyle modifications. The slight ALT rise doesn’t necessarily require a lower statin dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and seeks advice on managing her condition. What treatment option is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

      When it comes to treating irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), there are several options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends tricyclic antidepressants as a second-line treatment if other medications have not been effective. Treatment should start at a low dose and be reviewed regularly. Acupuncture and aloe vera are not recommended by NICE for the treatment of IBS. It is suggested to limit intake of high-fibre foods and increase intake of fresh fruit, but to limit it to three portions per day. It’s important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man presents with a four week history of retrosternal burning particularly...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a four week history of retrosternal burning particularly after large meals. He also complains of episodes of epigastric discomfort usually during the night. He has no nausea or vomiting, has had no black stools and his weight has been steady for the last few years.

      He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks up to 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination of the abdomen he has mild epigastric tenderness with no masses palpable. He has been buying antacid tablets which give short periods of relief of his symptoms only.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a routine upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Management of Dyspepsia in a Patient Under 55 Years Old

      Until recently, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended referral for all new onset dyspepsia in patients over 55 years old. However, current guidelines state that referral is only necessary if other symptoms are present. In the case of a patient under 55 years old with no alarm symptoms, treatment to relieve symptoms should be offered.

      According to NICE guidance, a four-week course of a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole is recommended. It is also advisable to check the patient’s Helicobacter pylori status and haemoglobin level. If the patient is found to have iron deficiency anaemia, further investigation would be necessary.

      In summary, the management of dyspepsia in a patient under 55 years old involves offering treatment to relieve symptoms and checking for Helicobacter pylori status and haemoglobin level. Referral is only necessary if other symptoms are present or if iron deficiency anaemia is detected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old girl with Down's syndrome who has a congenital heart defect has...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl with Down's syndrome who has a congenital heart defect has been prescribed furosemide by the paediatric cardiologists. Her parents have come to get a refill. Looking at the prescription, she has been prescribed furosemide at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg twice daily. Her current weight is 16 kg. Furosemide oral solution is available at a concentration of 20 mg/5 ml. What is the appropriate amount in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 ml BD

      Explanation:

      Dosage Calculation for Furosemide Oral Solution

      To calculate the correct dosage for furosemide oral solution, the patient’s weight and prescribed dose must be taken into account. For example, if the patient weighs 16 kg and the prescribed dose is 0.5 mg/kg BD, then the total daily dose would be 8 mg BD (16 kg x 0.5 mg/kg).

      The furosemide oral solution comes in a concentration of 20 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 4 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, we can use the conversion factor of 8 mg = 2 ml. Therefore, the patient should take 2 ml of the furosemide oral solution twice a day. Proper dosage calculation is crucial to ensure the patient receives the correct amount of medication for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 11 - A study examines whether playing golf increases the likelihood of developing medial epicondylitis....

    Incorrect

    • A study examines whether playing golf increases the likelihood of developing medial epicondylitis. Sixty individuals who frequently play golf are paired with sixty individuals who do not play golf. Out of the golfers, thirty have experienced medial epicondylitis at some point, while only ten of the non-golfers have. What is the odds ratio for developing medial epicondylitis among individuals who play golf?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      When calculating the odds, it is important to distinguish them from the risk. For instance, the odds of a golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 1, which is obtained by dividing the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the number of golfers in the sample (30). If we were to calculate the risk, we would divide the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.5.

      Similarly, the odds of a non-golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 0.2, which is obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the number of non-golfers in the sample (50). The risk, on the other hand, would be obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.16.

      To calculate the odds ratio, we divide the odds of golfers developing the condition (1) by the odds of non-golfers developing the condition (0.2), resulting in an odds ratio of 5.

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 12 - As a GP participating in research projects, you have a patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • As a GP participating in research projects, you have a patient who is curious about a study testing a new antihypertensive medication. You inform them that the drug has undergone testing on several volunteers, but has not yet been approved for sale. The manufacturers are currently seeking patients to compare the effectiveness of this new drug to existing antihypertensives before it can be licensed and prescribed by all doctors.

      In which phase of the drug trial are you seeking patients for recruitment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase 3

      Explanation:

      Phase 3 trials involve larger studies conducted on real patients, where the effectiveness of a new treatment is compared to existing treatments.

      To elaborate, phase 1 trials typically involve testing a drug on a small group of healthy individuals to assess its pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and dosage. Phase 2 trials involve testing the drug on actual patients with the condition it is intended to treat, to evaluate its efficacy and potential side effects.

      In phase 3 trials, the new treatment is compared to existing treatments, which requires a much larger sample size than phase 1 and 2 trials. Phase 4 trials involve ongoing observation after the treatment has been approved for sale, to monitor any long-term effects.

      There is no such thing as phase 5 trials.

      Stages of Drug Development

      Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.

      Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.

      Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.

      If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.

      In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old white male is diagnosed with hypertension.

    He is usually fit and well...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old white male is diagnosed with hypertension.

      He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history. His ECG is normal, he has no microalbuminuria, and clinical examination is otherwise unremarkable.

      Assuming there are no contraindications, place the following in the correct order in which they should be initiated to manage his high blood pressure:

      A ACE-inhibitor
      B Calcium channel blocker
      C Thiazide-like diuretic
      D Alpha blocker

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C A B D

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Treatment

      There are established guidelines published by NICE for managing high blood pressure. The guidelines outline a stepwise approach to pharmacological treatment. For patients under 55 years old and not of black African or Caribbean ethnic origin, the first-line treatment is an ACE inhibitor or a low-cost angiotensin receptor II antagonist. If additional treatment is needed, a calcium-channel blocker should be added, followed by a thiazide-like diuretic. If a fourth agent is required, options include a further diuretic, an alpha-blocker, or a beta-blocker. Spironolactone can be used if the patient’s potassium level is 4.5 mmol/L or less. If not, an alpha- or beta-blocker can be considered.

      For patients of black African or Caribbean ethnic origin of any age (and all those over 55), the first-line antihypertensive treatment is a calcium-channel blocker. If the calcium-channel blocker is not tolerated or contraindicated, then a thiazide-like diuretic would be first-line. If additional treatment is required, an ACE-inhibitor (or a low-cost angiotensin receptor II antagonist) should be added, followed by a thiazide-like diuretic. If necessary, a further diuretic (spironolactone), an alpha-blocker, or a beta-blocker can be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation takes digoxin. He visited his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation takes digoxin. He visited his General Practitioner (GP) reporting discomfort and swelling in his ankles, and was prescribed Drug X alongside his current medication. After two weeks, he experiences nausea, diarrhoea, and reports seeing yellow. What is the probable identity of Drug X?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Medications and their interactions in a case of digoxin toxicity

      Digoxin toxicity is a serious condition that can present with gastrointestinal upset, changes to vision, hypokalaemia, and cardiac arrhythmias. Co-prescribing of a thiazide or loop diuretic can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity by reducing potassium levels. Other risk factors for digoxin toxicity include age, poor renal function, and calcium-channel blockers.

      Amiodarone can be used in atrial fibrillation but should only be prescribed in secondary care and would not be prescribed for the ankle swelling that may have led to the digoxin prescription. Propranolol and sotalol do not interact with digoxin and would not have caused the symptoms of digoxin toxicity. Warfarin doesn’t interact with digoxin and would not be prescribed to treat the original symptoms of ankle swelling. It is important to consider medication interactions and risk factors when prescribing medications to avoid adverse effects such as digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be given regarding participation in sports?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Screening for splenomegaly cannot be effectively done through clinical examination alone. Additionally, individuals with glandular fever should refrain from participating in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative factor of an underlying connective tissue disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent miscarriages

      Explanation:

      Bilateral symptoms in young women may indicate primary Raynaud’s disease. Recurrent miscarriages may be a sign of systemic lupus erythematous or anti-phospholipid syndrome. Chilblains, which are painful and itchy purple swellings on the fingers and toes after exposure to cold, are sometimes linked to underlying connective tissue disease, although this is uncommon.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 17 - A male patient is prescribed oral testosterone replacement therapy. A Mirena® IUS has...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient is prescribed oral testosterone replacement therapy. A Mirena® IUS has been fitted and will be used for protection against endometrial hyperplasia.

      For what length of time is the Mirena® licensed for use as protection against endometrial hyperplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      Mirena® License for Contraception and Endometrial Hyperplasia Protection

      At the moment, question stats are not available, but it is likely that many people will choose 5 years as the answer for Mirena®’s duration of use for contraception. However, it is important to note that while Mirena® is licensed for up to 5 years for contraception and idiopathic menorrhagia, it is only licensed for 4 years for protection against endometrial hyperplasia during oestrogen replacement therapy. This means that individuals using Mirena® for this purpose should have it replaced after 4 years to ensure continued protection. It is crucial to follow the recommended duration of use for Mirena® to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 18 - For which patients is a quadrivalent seasonal influenza vaccination recommended? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which patients is a quadrivalent seasonal influenza vaccination recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient with a previous confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine

      Explanation:

      influenza Vaccination: Contraindications and Clinical Risk Groups

      There are only a few absolute contraindications to receiving the influenza vaccine. Patients who have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous vaccine dose or any component of the vaccine should not be given the immunisation. Those with a confirmed anaphylactic hypersensitivity to egg products should also avoid the trivalent seasonal influenza vaccinations as they are grown in embryonated hens’ eggs. However, Celvapan®, which only protects against the influenza A (H1N1) strain, is grown in mammalian cells and can be administered to those with egg allergies.

      If a patient has a minor illness with no fever or systemic upset, vaccination can proceed. However, it is advisable to postpone immunisation if someone is acutely unwell or febrile to avoid confusion in attributing any clinical features to the vaccination itself. The vaccine can be given to anyone over the age of 6 months, but it is especially important for those in clinical risk groups.

      These clinical risk groups include individuals with chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes, pregnant women, and the immunosuppressed. The trivalent preparation is routinely given to those over 65 years old. For more detailed information about the influenza vaccine and clinical risk groups, the Green Book published by Public Health England provides in-depth information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 19 - You are seeing a 60-year-old lady with oestrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer.
    She is being treated...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old lady with oestrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer.
      She is being treated with letrozole 2.5 mg daily.

      Which of the following is the most common side effect of her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Letrozole and its Side Effects

      Letrozole is a medication used to treat postmenopausal women with oestrogen-receptor positive breast cancer. However, it is not recommended for premenopausal women. The British National Formulary (BNF) lists the frequency of side effects as very common, common, uncommon, rare, and very rare. Letrozole’s less common side effects include cough and leucopenia, while vulvovaginal disorders are listed as uncommon. Pulmonary embolism is a rare side effect. On the other hand, osteoporosis and bone fractures are more common side effects, and patients should have their bone mineral density assessed before treatment and at regular intervals. The BNF also cautions that patients may be susceptible to osteoporosis. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when prescribing Letrozole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman brings in her 4-year-old son. She explains that she and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman brings in her 4-year-old son. She explains that she and her husband have a history of familial hypercholesterolaemia and are worried about their son's health. She asks if he can be screened for the condition.

      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an LDL cholesterol test and refer to a specialist for diagnostic testing and further management

      Explanation:

      It is recommended by NICE guidelines that children with both parents affected by familial hypercholesterolaemia should undergo testing before the age of 5 or as soon as possible thereafter. This is because children can develop cardiovascular disease without any visible symptoms. It is important to investigate the child regardless of whether or not they display any symptoms and to refer them to a specialist if they are thought to be at risk of familial hypercholesterolaemia.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old man presents for an insurance medical. He has no significant medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents for an insurance medical. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, his BMI is 23 kg/m2, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and auscultation of the heart reveals a mid-systolic click and a late systolic murmur (which are more pronounced when he stands up).
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mitral Valve Prolapse: Symptoms, Causes, and Associated Conditions

      Mitral valve prolapse is a condition where the leaflets of the mitral valve bulge in systole, affecting around 2-3% of the population. It can occur as an isolated entity or with heritable disorders of connective tissue. While most people are asymptomatic, some may experience symptoms such as anxiety, panic attacks, palpitations, syncope, or presyncope. The condition is also a risk factor for mitral regurgitation and carries a small risk of cerebral emboli and sudden death. Diagnosis is made through auscultation, with a mid-to-late systolic click and a late systolic murmur heard at the apex. Other heart conditions, such as atrial septal defect, aortic stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and mitral stenosis, have distinct murmurs that aid in diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to an evening surgery after swallowing a battery...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to an evening surgery after swallowing a battery from a watch. On examination, she is well, with no drooling, respiratory symptoms or abdominal tenderness.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate admission for investigation and possible endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The Dangers of Swallowing Button Batteries: Why Immediate Action is Necessary

      Button batteries are small, but they can cause serious harm if swallowed. These batteries contain metals and concentrated solutions of caustic electrolytes, which can damage the oesophageal wall if left stuck for even just two hours. Therefore, it is essential to arrange immediate admission for investigation and possible endoscopy if a child has swallowed a button battery.

      Prescribing laxatives and taking no further action is not appropriate for a high-risk foreign body like a button battery. Similarly, asking the mother to collect all stools and return in 48 hours if the battery doesn’t pass is not recommended. Instead, it may be appropriate to observe asymptomatic children for the passage of the battery in the stool, but only if certain conditions are met.

      Reassuring the mother that no action is necessary is also not appropriate, as symptoms may still develop even if the child is asymptomatic. Referring for an abdominal X-ray on the next day is also not recommended, as urgent chest and abdominal X-rays will be carried out in the hospital.

      In conclusion, immediate action is necessary when a child swallows a button battery. Delaying treatment can lead to serious harm, and it is important to seek medical attention as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old nulliparous lady presents with a discharging left nipple for the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old nulliparous lady presents with a discharging left nipple for the last two weeks. She takes off her bra to show you and there is a small amount of staining of the inside of the bra. She squeezes the nipple and you see a small amount of blood stained mucoid discharge leak from the duct at 6 o'clock.

      You examine her and there is no mass palpable, nor is there any pain. There are no cervical or axillary lymph nodes and she appears otherwise well.

      What should you do?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to breast clinic

      Explanation:

      Management of Unilateral Spontaneous Bloody Nipple Discharge

      When a patient presents with unilateral spontaneous bloody nipple discharge, it is important to rule out breast cancer before assuming it is duct ectasia. Reassuring the patient without proper investigation is inappropriate. Prescribing antibiotics or sending a sample for culture without evidence of cellulitis can delay a diagnosis and is not the correct management. Advising the patient to express the discharge again is also inappropriate.

      If a non-lactational abscess is suspected, it is best to refer the patient to the emergency department for proper drainage. However, if infection is less likely, an urgent referral for suspected cancer is appropriate. According to NICE guidelines, patients aged 50 and over with any symptoms in one nipple only, such as discharge, retraction, or other changes of concern, should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks. However, regardless of age, a patient presenting with unilateral spontaneous bloody discharge should have an urgent referral.

      In summary, proper investigation and referral are crucial in managing unilateral spontaneous bloody nipple discharge to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 24 - A 76-year-old patient comes to you complaining of intense pain in their right...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old patient comes to you complaining of intense pain in their right shoulder. After an X-ray examination, it is discovered that they have a pathological fracture in their proximal humerus. Which primary solid tumor cancer groups are most prone to metastasizing to bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast, lung, thyroid, colorectal, cervix

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pathological Fractures in the Elderly

      Pathological fractures are fractures that occur due to weakened bones caused by underlying medical conditions. While any type of bone tumour can cause pathological fractures, the majority of cases in the elderly are due to metastatic carcinomas. This is because as people age, their risk of developing cancer increases. Multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow, is also common in the elderly and has a high incidence of pathological fractures. Lymphoma, although uncommon, can also cause pathological fractures.

      It is important to keep this information in mind when evaluating elderly patients who present with musculoskeletal problems such as shoulder or back pain. A thorough medical history and physical examination can help identify the underlying cause of the fracture and guide appropriate treatment. By understanding the common causes of pathological fractures in the elderly, healthcare providers can provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her recent smear test. The test showed normal cytology and was negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV). However, her previous smear test 6 months ago showed normal cytology but was positive for hrHPV.

      What guidance would you provide to the patient after receiving her latest smear test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Return to routine recall in 3 years time

      Explanation:

      If the result of the first repeat smear at 12 months for cervical cancer screening is negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can resume routine recall. This means they should undergo screening every 3 years from age 25-49 years or every 5 years from age 50-64 years. However, if the repeat test is positive again, the patient should undergo another HPV test in 12 months. If the cytology sample shows dyskaryosis, the patient should be referred for colposcopy.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 26 - A parent brings her 6-year-old daughter to the clinic with concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings her 6-year-old daughter to the clinic with concerns about her health since starting first grade. The child has developed various new symptoms, and the parent suspects a food allergy as the symptoms improve during breaks from school. Which of the following symptoms would suggest a non-IgE-mediated allergy rather than an IgE-mediated allergy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      A non-IgE mediated food allergy is indicated by the presence of atopic eczema.

      Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 27 - John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged for a routine DEXA scan. The DEXA results are as follows:

      Spine (L2-4) T: -2.6 Z: -1.7
      Left femur T: -1.5 Z: -0.9
      Right femur T: -2.3 Z: -1.5

      What is your interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The results of the DEXA scan show that the spine has osteoporosis with a T-score below -2.5, while the left and right femur have osteopenia with T-scores between -1 and -2.5. It is important to note that osteoporosis is diagnosed when the T-score is below -2.5, while osteopenia is diagnosed when the T-score is between -1 and -2.5. The z score takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, but the T score is used to determine the presence of osteoporosis and osteopenia.

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of a cottage-cheese like vaginal discharge that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of a cottage-cheese like vaginal discharge that started one day ago. She is in a committed relationship and is currently taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill for birth control. Her last menstrual period was one week ago, and she denies experiencing dysuria or bleeding. She has never had similar symptoms before and is generally healthy. She is up to date with her cervical smears.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omit further testing and prescribe clotrimazole vaginal pessary

      Explanation:

      If a woman has symptoms of candidiasis or BV and is unlikely to have an STI or serious illness, vaginal examination may be unnecessary. However, if a woman has vaginal discharge and a history of BV or candidiasis, and is not pregnant or postnatal, and has not recently undergone a gynecological procedure, examination should not be omitted.

      Understanding Vaginal Discharge: Common and Less Common Causes

      Vaginal discharge is a common symptom experienced by many women, but it is not always a sign of a serious health issue. In fact, some amount of discharge is normal and helps to keep the vagina clean and healthy. However, when the discharge is accompanied by other symptoms such as itching, burning, or a foul odor, it may be a sign of an underlying condition.

      The most common causes of vaginal discharge include Candida, Trichomonas vaginalis, and bacterial vaginosis. Candida is a fungal infection that can cause a thick, white discharge that resembles cottage cheese. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause a yellow or green, frothy discharge with a strong odor. Bacterial vaginosis is a bacterial infection that can cause a thin, gray or white discharge with a fishy odor.

      Less common causes of vaginal discharge include gonorrhea, chlamydia, ectropion, foreign bodies, and cervical cancer.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 29 - You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic cancer. The lady was diagnosed with diabetes from a range of tests. In addition, she noticed that her skin started to have a yellow tinge and she complained of itching over her body.

      Which is the best management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an MRI of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer

      With a strong family history of pancreatic cancer, it is important to have a low threshold for investigating any concerning symptoms. In addition, if a patient aged 60 or over presents with weight loss and any of the following symptoms – diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes – a CT scan should be carried out urgently.

      In this case, the patient has also been diagnosed with diabetes and jaundice, which further warrants an urgent referral for suspected cancer. It is important to note that an MRI should not be arranged in primary care, and the decision can be left with the specialist. Additionally, an ultrasound is not the preferred investigation in this instance.

      A routine referral would be inappropriate due to the red flags highlighted in the patient’s history. With such a strong family history, it is crucial to investigate this patient further and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis comes in with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis comes in with a red right eye that has been present for two days. She reports no pain or itching. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive to light, measuring 3mm. Her visual acuity is 6/5 in both eyes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Episcleritis is not painful, whereas scleritis causes pain.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that affects the joints, but it can also have ocular manifestations. In fact, about 25% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis experience eye problems. The most common ocular manifestation is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, which is dryness and inflammation of the eyes. Other ocular manifestations include episcleritis, which is redness of the outer layer of the eye, and scleritis, which is redness and pain in the white part of the eye. Corneal ulceration and keratitis are also possible.

      In addition to these manifestations, some treatments for rheumatoid arthritis can also have ocular side effects. Steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy. It is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to have regular eye exams to monitor for any ocular manifestations or side effects from treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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