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Question 1
Correct
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A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s is prescribed metformin. What is the most probable severe complication that may arise from using this medication?
Your Answer: Lactic acidosis
Explanation:Metformin and Renal Failure: Understanding the Risks
Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to understand the risks associated with its use in patients with renal failure. Metformin can accumulate in the body and lead to life-threatening acidosis if not properly monitored. Therefore, it is recommended that the dose be adjusted or the drug avoided in patients with reduced kidney function. Additionally, treatment should be interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. Despite these risks, metformin remains a first-line choice for most patients with type 2 diabetes, particularly those who are overweight. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the risks and benefits of metformin use in patients with renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department with suicidal thoughts following the end of his relationship two weeks ago. He expresses fear of being alone as his partner had always made important decisions for him, as he feels incapable of making the right choices. He has attempted to find a new partner through online dating but has been unsuccessful despite going on several dates. He discloses that he has previously been diagnosed with a personality disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder
Correct Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient in the question is dependent personality disorder. This personality disorder is characterized by a need for excessive reassurance from others, a tendency to seek out relationships, and a reliance on others to make major life decisions. Patients with this disorder often struggle to take care of themselves and become anxious when left to do so. They cope best when in a relationship and will urgently seek out new relationships if one fails. They tend to passively comply with the wishes of others.
Borderline personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and intense but unstable relationships with others. While patients with borderline personality disorder may fear abandonment, they do not typically seek out excessive reassurance and are able to make life decisions.
Paranoid personality disorder is another incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder are often suspicious of others, reluctant to confide in friends and family, and may be unforgiving.
Finally, narcissistic personality disorder is also an incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder have an inflated sense of self-importance, lack empathy, and often feel entitled.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
You saw her several weeks ago with a clinical diagnosis of heart failure and a high brain natriuretic peptide level. You referred her for echocardiography and cardiology assessment. Following the referral she now has a diagnosis of 'Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction'.
Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following combinations of medication should be used as first line treatment in this patient?Your Answer: Beta-blocker and aldosterone antagonist
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor and beta blocker
Explanation:Treatment for Heart Failure with Left Ventricular Systolic Dysfunction
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta-blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The 2003 NICE guidance suggests starting with ACE inhibitors and then adding beta-blockers, but the 2010 update recommends using clinical judgement to determine which drug to start first. For example, a beta-blocker may be more appropriate for a patient with angina or tachycardia. However, combination treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular dysfunction. It is important to start drug treatment in a stepwise manner and to ensure the patient’s condition is stable before initiating therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A father brings his 10-year-old daughter to the GP surgery with heel pain. It started two-weeks ago on both heels. The pain is localised to the heel and is worse following exercise and gets better on resting. There is no reported swelling, stiffness or redness. There are no other joint complaints. She is well in herself with no temperature symptoms, night sweats or weight loss. There is no history of trauma. She is an active child and plays for the soccer team at school.
On examination, her gait and range of movements of her ankle joints are normal. Her temperature is 37.2ºC. Apart from mild swelling over both heels, there is no redness on the heel or other swellings of the foot joints. There is no tenderness on palpation of the Achilles tendon and the plantar aspect of the foot. Pain is elicited on squeezing the sides of both heels.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this child?Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Correct Answer: Calcaneal apophysitis
Explanation:Sever’s disease, also known as calcaneal apophysitis, should be considered as a possible cause of heel pain in children and adolescents. It is characterized by swelling and irritation of the growth plate in the heel, and is often seen in active kids who are going through a growth spurt. Tenderness and swelling in the affected area are common symptoms.
Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the connective tissue supporting the arch of the foot. It typically presents as unilateral pain and tenderness in the plantar aspect of the foot, which was not observed in this case. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.
Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that usually affects the edges of long bones, such as the femur. It can cause bone pain and interfere with normal activities, but is often accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and fatigue. Since the child did not exhibit these symptoms, osteosarcoma is an unlikely diagnosis.
Achilles tendinitis is a condition that often develops after an injury, and is characterized by pain and swelling in the Achilles or ankle joints. However, since there was no history of trauma in this case, Achilles tendinitis is also an unlikely cause of the child’s symptoms.
Understanding Calcaneal Apophysitis (Sever Disease)
Calcaneal apophysitis, commonly known as Sever disease, is a condition that causes heel pain in active children. It is an overuse injury that occurs when the growth plate in the heel bone becomes inflamed due to repetitive stress. This condition is most common in children between the ages of 8 and 14 who participate in sports that involve running and jumping.
The pain associated with Sever disease is typically felt in the back or bottom of the heel and can be severe enough to limit a child’s activity level. Rest, ice, and stretching exercises are often recommended as initial treatment options. In some cases, orthotics or heel lifts may be prescribed to help alleviate symptoms.
It is important for parents and coaches to be aware of the signs and symptoms of Sever disease, as early intervention can prevent the condition from worsening and potentially causing long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man, John, reports that his older brother has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer after having his PSA test done as part of the national screening programme. John says that he has had his PSA test today and the results were normal.
When will John's next PSA test be due?Your Answer: 5 years
Correct Answer: 3 years
Explanation:In the UK, breast cancer screening is currently offered to women between the ages of 50 and 70 every three years. However, there are plans to expand this service to include women aged 47 to 73 by the end of 2016. Additionally, women between the ages of 40 and 50 who are at a high risk of developing breast cancer may be offered screening every two years.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl is brought to the operating room by her mother due to experiencing headaches for the past few months. These headaches occur approximately once a week and are described as a 'pulsing' feeling in the right temple region. The pain is severe and accompanied by nausea and sensitivity to light. Her neurological examination is unremarkable. What is the most probable treatment to alleviate her symptoms during a headache episode?
Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Headache in Children: Migraine and Tension-Type Headache
Headaches are a common complaint in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing paediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanied by nausea/vomiting and/or photophobia/phonophobia. Acute management of paediatric migraine involves ibuprofen, which is more effective than paracetamol, and triptans, which may be used in children over 12 years old but require follow-up. Prophylaxis for migraine is limited, with pizotifen and propranolol recommended as first-line preventatives, followed by valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline as second-line options.
Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children. The IHS diagnostic criteria for TTH in children include headache lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with at least two of three specific pain characteristics and no nausea/vomiting but with photophobia/phonophobia present. Treatment for TTH involves identifying and addressing triggers, as well as using non-pharmacological interventions such as relaxation techniques and cognitive-behavioural therapy. Overall, headache in children requires careful diagnosis and management to improve quality of life and prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old infant comes in with a one day history of fever (39°C), and a generalised rash, which started on the legs and is now present on limbs and trunk virtually equally. The rash is purplish, non-palpable, and non-blanching. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Measles in mild form
Correct Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia
Explanation:Meningococcal Septicaemia and Other Skin Conditions
Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious condition that can cause a non-blanching purpuric eruption all over the body. This symptom is a key indicator of the disease and should be taken seriously. Other skin conditions, such as giant urticaria, measles rash, and haemophilia, do not typically present with this type of rash.
Giant urticaria is characterised by recurrent attacks of oedema that appear suddenly in various areas of the body. The measles rash, on the other hand, appears as a macular eruption on the face and neck that spreads over three days. Haemophilia is not associated with any generalised rash.
HSP, another skin condition, may present in a subacute manner and is not typically associated with a high fever in an acutely unwell child. It may occur following an upper respiratory tract infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis presents with abdominal pain. There is no associated nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?
Your Answer: Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome in Cystic Fibrosis Patients
Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) is a common complication in 10-20% of cystic fibrosis patients, with incidence increasing as they age. It is caused by the loss of CFTR function in the intestine, leading to the accumulation of mucous and fecal material in the terminal ileum, caecum, and ascending colon. DIOS is usually diagnosed through a plain abdominal radiograph, which shows faecal loading in the right iliac fossa, dilatation of the ileum, and an empty distal colon. Ultrasound and CT scans can also be used to identify an obstruction mass and show dilated small bowel and proximal colon.
Treatment for mild and moderate episodes of DIOS involves hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives. N-acetylcysteine can be used in moderate episodes to loosen and soften the plugs. Severe cases may require gastrograffin or Klean-Prep, and surgical review should be obtained if there are signs of peritoneal irritation or complete bowel obstruction. In resistant cases, phosphate or gastrograffin enemas can be used, or colonscopy with installation of gastrograffin.
In summary, DIOS is a common complication in cystic fibrosis patients that can be diagnosed through radiographs, ultrasound, and CT scans. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the episode, but hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives are often used for mild and moderate cases. Severe cases may require more aggressive treatment and surgical review.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old nursing student asks if she should be vaccinated against Chickenpox. She cannot recall having had the disease, although her mother tells her that she thinks her siblings have had it.
Select the single most appropriate course of action in this situation.Your Answer: Reassure her that if she is otherwise healthy she doesn't need vaccination against Chickenpox because it is generally a mild disease
Correct Answer: Test for varicella antibodies and, if negative, vaccinate her
Explanation:Chickenpox Immunisation for Healthcare Workers
Most children in the UK will develop Chickenpox during their childhood, and it is rare for a child to avoid the disease if their siblings have it. However, for healthcare workers, it is important to be immune to prevent the spread of the disease to patients, especially those who are immunocompromised. To determine immunity, a varicella antibody test should be conducted. If the test is negative, the individual should be vaccinated with a live attenuated vaccine, as recommended by the Green Book guidelines. It is important to note that the vaccine is contraindicated for those who are immunocompromised themselves. While there are currently no plans to make Chickenpox immunisation routine for British children, healthcare workers and those in contact with immunocompromised individuals should take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?Your Answer: Cardiovascular disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis
Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What term is most suitable for describing the spread of blood pressures in a specific ethnic population that is larger than that of the general population?
Your Answer: Mean
Correct Answer: Standard deviation
Explanation:Understanding Standard Deviation
Standard deviation is a statistical measure that helps to determine the spread of observations around the mean. It is calculated by finding the deviation of each observation from the mean value, squaring each value, summing them up, and dividing the total by the number of observations minus one. The standard deviation is then obtained by taking the square root of this value. In essence, standard deviation provides a measure of how much the observations deviate from the mean, and it is a useful tool for analyzing data in various fields, including finance, science, and engineering. By understanding standard deviation, researchers and analysts can gain insights into the variability of data and make informed decisions based on their findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Start exenatide only
Correct Answer: Start insulin only
Explanation:The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes is to commence insulin immediately if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority. This is in line with NICE guidelines, which recommend immediate insulin initiation (with or without metformin) and lifestyle advice for glucose levels between 6 and 6.9 mmol/L, especially if there are complications such as macrosomia or hydramnios.
Re-checking the glucose level in two weeks is not appropriate as uncontrolled hyperglycaemia can be dangerous for both the mother and the unborn child.
Starting exenatide is not recommended during pregnancy as there is insufficient data on its safety. Studies in mice have shown adverse effects on fetal and neonatal growth and skeletal development.
Starting metformin alone is not sufficient if the fasting glucose level is greater than 7 mmol/L. However, metformin can be prescribed in combination with insulin.
A trial of lifestyle changes alone is not appropriate if the fasting glucose level is already above 7 mmol/L. If the level is below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be tried for 1-2 weeks, and if glucose targets are not met, metformin can be offered.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and seeks advice on managing her condition. What treatment option is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)?
Your Answer: Aloe vera
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Explanation:Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
When it comes to treating irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), there are several options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends tricyclic antidepressants as a second-line treatment if other medications have not been effective. Treatment should start at a low dose and be reviewed regularly. Acupuncture and aloe vera are not recommended by NICE for the treatment of IBS. It is suggested to limit intake of high-fibre foods and increase intake of fresh fruit, but to limit it to three portions per day. It’s important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) requesting a referral to a Fertility Clinic. She has had two first-trimester miscarriages and, six months ago, one second-trimester miscarriage. Karyotyping of the fetus showed no chromosomal abnormalities. Her body mass index (BMI), blood and urine tests in her last pregnancy showed no abnormalities. She has regular periods, no known medical problems, and takes only folic acid and vitamin D regularly. Her mother had two miscarriages, before having a successful pregnancy with no complications, and is now well. Her maternal aunt had two unprovoked deep-vein thrombosis (DVTs) in her thirties.
What is the most likely cause of her recurrent miscarriages?Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation
Explanation:Causes of Recurrent Miscarriage: Understanding the Factors Involved
Recurrent miscarriage, defined as the loss of three or more consecutive pregnancies, affects 1% of couples trying to conceive. While up to 50% of cases remain unexplained after investigation, there are several factors that can contribute to this condition.
One of the most common causes of recurrent miscarriage is the Factor V Leiden mutation, which is the most common inherited thrombophilia. This mutation increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) and recurrent miscarriage, particularly in the second trimester. Carriers of this mutation have double the risk of miscarriage compared to those without it. Therefore, all women with second-trimester miscarriages should be screened for inherited thrombophilias, including Factor V Leiden mutation.
Chromosomal abnormality is another potential cause of recurrent miscarriage, affecting 2-5% of couples. This is more common in women over the age of 35 and men over the age of 40. Karyotyping of products of conception should be undertaken from the third (and any subsequent) miscarriages.
Uncontrolled diabetes is also a risk factor for recurrent miscarriage. However, in cases where there is no indication of diabetes, this cause is less likely.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a syndrome that can cause infertility and miscarriage, affecting up to 50% of pregnancies in people with PCOS. However, this is more common in young females with obesity, acne, hirsutism, male-pattern balding, oligomenorrhoea or subfertility.
In conclusion, understanding the potential causes of recurrent miscarriage is crucial in identifying the underlying factors and providing appropriate treatment. While some cases may remain unexplained, screening for inherited thrombophilias and chromosomal abnormalities, as well as considering factors such as diabetes and PCOS, can help in determining the best course of action for couples trying to conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Benjamin, who has been struggling with bowel issues, has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome based on routine blood tests and his medical history. He experiences loose stool and abdominal discomfort, which is relieved after bowel movements, but there is no presence of blood in his stool. Despite increasing his fiber intake with brown rice, high bran cereals, and grains, as well as consuming three portions of fresh fruit daily for the past 18 months, his symptoms persist. What dietary recommendations would be suitable for him?
Your Answer: Increase insoluble fibre intake
Correct Answer: Reduce insoluble fibre intake
Explanation:Loose stool and bloating have been linked to the consumption of insoluble fibre found in foods like brown rice, bran cereals, and grains. As a result, it is recommended to decrease the intake of insoluble fibre.
To maintain a healthy digestive system, it is suggested to limit the consumption of fresh fruit to a maximum of three portions per day. There is currently no scientific evidence to support the use of aloe vera or prebiotics.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review. He is currently taking metformin 500 mg twice daily.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/84 mmHg. His glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is 63 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol), while his urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 1.2 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
What is the most appropriate action to take to minimise his risk of kidney disease?Your Answer: Start losartan
Correct Answer: Increase metformin to 1 g twice daily
Explanation:Optimizing Glycemic Control in Type II Diabetes: Treatment Options for Renal Protection
The prevalence of kidney disease is increasing in those with type II diabetes, making primary prevention crucial. Optimal control of blood glucose and blood pressure are key factors in preventing renal disease. In a patient with normal blood pressure but elevated HbA1c, increasing metformin to optimize glycemic control is appropriate. While ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor antagonists are useful for renoprotection in diabetic patients, they should be reserved for those with evidence of kidney failure. Insulin therapy should also be considered only after trying other oral diabetic medications. Low-protein diets are recommended for patients with established renal disease, but not for those without microalbuminuria. Overall, optimizing glycemic control is the priority in preventing renal disease in type II diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes is prescribed insulin by the diabetic specialist nurses. He holds a group 1 driving licence and drives to his job as an accountant and auditor. Occasionally, he has to travel longer distances for work, which can involve 4-hour car rides.
The nurses advise him to check his blood glucose before starting his car journey and to monitor it during longer trips. What is the recommended frequency for this patient to check his blood glucose?Your Answer: Only when he feels the symptoms of hypoglycaemia e.g. shakiness
Correct Answer: Every 2 hours
Explanation:Individuals with insulin-dependent diabetes who are driving must monitor their blood glucose levels every 2 hours, according to DVLA guidelines. This man falls under this category and must adhere to this requirement. It would not be advisable to suggest that he only check his blood glucose when experiencing symptoms, as this could lead to impaired cognitive function and potentially cause an accident while driving before he has a chance to check his levels.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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A researcher measures the height of 1000 6-year-old children. She finds that the mean height is 110 cm. She wants to calculate how dispersed the data is in relation to the mean.
Which of the following measurements would provide this information?Your Answer: The standard deviation
Explanation:Understanding Statistical Measures: Standard Deviation, Confidence Interval, Median, Mode, and Standard Error
Statistical measures are essential tools in analyzing data. They provide insights into the distribution, dispersion, and uncertainty of a dataset. In this article, we will discuss five common statistical measures: standard deviation, confidence interval, median, mode, and standard error.
Standard Deviation
The standard deviation is a measure of how dispersed the data is in relation to the mean. It tells us whether the data is clustered around the mean or spread out over a wider range. A low standard deviation indicates that the data is tightly clustered around the mean, while a high standard deviation suggests that the values are more spread out.Confidence Interval
The confidence interval measures the degree of uncertainty or certainty in a sampling method. It tells us the probability that a population parameter will fall between a set of values for a certain proportion of times. A wider confidence interval indicates greater uncertainty, while a narrower interval suggests greater certainty.Median
The median is the middle number in a sorted list of numbers. It gives us an idea of the central tendency of the data and can indicate whether the distribution is skewed. However, the standard deviation provides more information about the dispersion of the data.Mode
The mode is the value that occurs most frequently in a distribution. It can also indicate whether the distribution is skewed, but again, the standard deviation is a better measure of dispersion.Standard Error
The standard error of the mean measures how much discrepancy there is likely to be in a sample’s mean compared with the population mean. It takes into account the sample size and the standard deviation. A smaller standard error indicates greater precision in the sample mean.In conclusion, understanding these statistical measures is crucial in analyzing data and drawing meaningful conclusions. Each measure provides unique insights into the data, and using them together can give a more comprehensive understanding of the dataset.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male comes to the surgery with a chronic issue of excessive sweating in his armpits. Apart from this, he is healthy, but the problem is impacting his self-esteem and social activities. What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Refer to dermatology
Correct Answer: Topical aluminium chloride
Explanation:Hyperhidrosis is typically treated with topical preparations containing aluminium chloride as the first-line option.
Managing Hyperhidrosis
Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by excessive sweating. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, which can cause skin irritation as a side effect. Another option is iontophoresis, which is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are several management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should work with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 32-year-old female who has been dealing with premenstrual syndrome (PMS) for a few years. She experiences lower abdominal cramping and bloating 1-2 days before her menstrual period. Recently, she found herself becoming more irritable and upset with her coworkers, which is out of character for her. What advice can you offer to help improve her PMS symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-3 hourly small balanced meals rich in complex carbohydrates
Explanation:To manage premenstrual syndrome, it is recommended to make specific lifestyle changes such as consuming 2-3 hourly small balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates. This is because complex carbohydrates are more nutrient-dense and higher in fiber compared to simple carbohydrates. Consuming complex carbohydrates in smaller, frequent meals helps to stabilize blood sugar levels and provide the body with essential nutrients throughout the day, which can help control PMS symptoms. Other options have not been proven to improve the severity of symptoms.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is a risk factor for clubfoot in infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spina bifida
Explanation:Talipes Equinovarus: A Common Birth Defect
Talipes equinovarus, also known as club foot, is a common birth defect that affects 1 in 1,000 newborns. It is more prevalent in males than females and can occur bilaterally in 50% of cases. The condition is characterized by an inward turning and plantar flexed foot, which is usually diagnosed during the newborn exam. While the cause of talipes equinovarus is often unknown, it can be associated with conditions such as spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and oligohydramnios.
Diagnosis of talipes equinovarus is typically clinical, and imaging is not usually necessary. In recent years, there has been a shift towards conservative management methods, such as the Ponseti method. This approach involves manipulation and progressive casting, which begins soon after birth and can correct the deformity within 6-10 weeks. In some cases, an Achilles tenotomy may be required, but this can usually be done under local anesthesia. Night-time braces are also recommended until the child is four years old to prevent relapse, which occurs in 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly develops a painful red rash on her trunk that spreads to her face and limbs. The rash consists of macules, some of which resemble target lesions, and numerous flaccid bullae. Skin erosion is present in areas where the bullae have ruptured. She has conjunctivitis, crusted red lips, mouth ulcers, and dysuria. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug induced
Explanation:Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Serious Skin Reaction
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but serious skin reaction that can be fatal. It is considered to be part of a disease spectrum that includes erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, some experts believe that erythema multiforme should not be classified as part of the same spectrum as it is associated with infections while SJS and TEN are reactions to certain drugs.
The most common drugs implicated in SJS are sulphonamides, but other medications such as penicillins, antifungals, and anticonvulsants can also cause the reaction. Less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in SJS, compared to over 30% in TEN.
Management involves stopping the suspected causative drugs as soon as possible and immediate admission to an intensive care or burns unit. The prognosis is better if the drugs are stopped within 24 hours of bullae appearing.
Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome is a differential diagnosis that can be mistaken for SJS. It is caused by a bacterial infection and tends to occur in young children.
Herpes simplex virus can cause erythema multiforme, but this rash is not the same as SJS. Shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is another condition with a painful blistering rash that is confined to a dermatome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought in to the surgery having become progressively more ill over a few hours. She is febrile, looks unwell, is pale with cold extremities, tachypnoeic and complains of leg pain. She keeps asking for water but drinks very little. She has had some diarrhoea and vomited once.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningococcal disease
Explanation:Early Diagnosis of Meningococcal Disease: Importance of nonspecific Features
Meningococcal disease is a severe bacterial infection caused by Neisseria meningitidis. Although it is a common commensal of the nasopharynx, it is also the leading infectious cause of death in early childhood. The disease can present as bacterial meningitis, septicaemia, or a combination of both.
A recent study of children with meningococcal disease found that classical signs such as haemorrhagic rash, meningism, and impaired consciousness did not appear until 13-22 hours after onset. However, nonspecific features such as leg pain, cold hands and feet, abnormal skin colour, breathing difficulty, and thirst appeared much earlier, with a median onset of 7-12 hours.
These nonspecific features are crucial for early diagnosis and may allow for earlier initiation of life-saving treatment. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be aware of these early symptoms and consider meningococcal disease as a potential diagnosis in children presenting with these features. Early recognition and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for children with meningococcal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 70-year-old woman attends with her daughter, who noted that her mother has had a poor appetite, lost at least 4.5 kg and has lacked energy three months. The patient has not had cough or fever, but she tires easily.
On examination she is rather subdued, is apyrexial and has a pulse of 100 per minute irregular and blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg. Examination of the fundi reveals grade II hypertensive changes. Her JVP is elevated by 8 cm but the neck is otherwise normal.
Examination of the heart and lungs reveals crackles at both lung bases. The abdomen is normal. She has generalised weakness that is most marked in the hip flexors but otherwise neurologic examination is normal.
Investigations reveal:
Haemoglobin 110 g/L (115-165)
White cell count 7.3 ×109/L (4-11)
Urea 8.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Which of the following would be most useful in establishing the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone
Explanation:Thyrotoxicosis as a Cause of Heart Failure
This patient presents with symptoms of heart failure, including fast atrial fibrillation, weight loss, and proximal myopathy. Although hyperthyroidism is typically associated with an increased appetite, apathy and loss of appetite can occur, especially in older patients. The presence of these symptoms suggests thyrotoxicosis, which would be confirmed by a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
The absence of a thyroid goitre doesn’t rule out Graves’ disease or a toxic nodule as the underlying cause. Echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of heart failure but cannot determine the underlying cause. Therefore, it is important to consider thyrotoxicosis as a potential cause of heart failure in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of nausea, headache and difficulty sleeping over the past few days. She has been experiencing moderate symptoms of depression without any suicidal ideation. She is employed as a nurse and resides with her husband and 12-year-old daughter who are supportive. She doesn't consume alcohol. She commenced taking sertraline 50 mg daily five days ago but has not observed any improvement in her mood.
What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue sertraline at 50 mg daily
Explanation:Treatment Options for Depression: Sertraline and Alternatives
When treating depression with sertraline, it is important to understand the common side-effects, which include headache, insomnia, nausea, and diarrhea. These side-effects are usually mild and resolve within three weeks. Improvement in mood is expected 4-6 weeks after starting medication, so not noticing improvement after one week is normal. It is recommended to continue sertraline at the current dose and review in 3-5 weeks, increasing the dose if there has been a partial improvement or considering changing to an alternative antidepressant if there has been no improvement.
If there has been no improvement after 4-6 weeks, switching to an alternative SSRI, such as citalopram, may be indicated. If two SSRIs have failed to achieve a good response, or if there are contraindications for SSRIs, a selective noradrenaline-reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), such as venlafaxine, may be an option. However, it should not be prescribed concomitantly with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor due to the risk of serotonin syndrome.
It is important to counsel the patient about the possibility of increased anxiety, worsening mood, and suicidality in the first two weeks and to instigate an early review after 1-2 weeks if aged under 30 years or at high risk of suicide. Discontinuation of sertraline is not recommended as side-effects are normal and should improve in time. Increasing the dose should not be done more frequently than weekly and would more commonly be increased after 4-6 weeks if there has been a partial response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a known adverse effect of clozapine treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersalivation
Explanation:Clozapine therapy often leads to excessive salivation, which is a commonly observed side effect. However, this issue can be effectively managed with the use of hyoscine hydrobromide.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had sexual intercourse 3 days ago and is currently not using any form of birth control. After discussing her options, you both agree that she will take EllaOne (Ulipristal Acetate) and start a progestin-only pill for ongoing contraception.
What guidance should you provide to this woman regarding the use of these contraceptives?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take EllaOne today and then start combined oral contraceptive pill 5 days later
Explanation:Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before beginning regular hormonal contraception. It is crucial to note that the effectiveness of EllaOne decreases if progestogen is used within 5 days after taking it. Therefore, it is essential to start hormonal contraceptives 5 days after taking EllaOne. Starting the combined oral contraceptive pill at the same time or less than 5 days after taking EllaOne would be incorrect. It is a misconception that EllaOne is only effective if the combined oral contraceptive pill has already been started. Taking EllaOne 14 days after the start of the last menstrual period is also incorrect. The copper coil could be inserted as an effective form of contraception 5 days after the expected date of ovulation, but EllaOne must be taken within 5 days of unprotected sexual intercourse.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to see you to ask about travel to India to visit his relatives. He has been discharged recently from the local district general hospital after suffering an inferior myocardial infarction. He had an exercise test prior to discharge and has made a good recovery. He looks well wants to return to his family home to Mumbai to recuperate.
According to the UK Civil Aviation Authority, what is the minimum time after an uncomplicated MI that he would be OK to fly home?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Travel Restrictions After Myocardial Infarction
After experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI), also known as a heart attack, patients may wonder when it is safe to travel by air. The minimum time for flying after an uncomplicated MI is generally accepted to be seven days, although some authorities suggest waiting up to three weeks. It is important to note that this question specifically asks for the minimum time after an uncomplicated MI that would be safe for air travel.
Consensus national guidance in the UK, including advice from the Civil Aviation Authority and British Airways, supports the seven-day minimum for uncomplicated MI. Patients who have had a complicated MI should wait four to six weeks before flying. Patients with severe angina may require oxygen during the flight and should pre-book a supply with the airline. Patients who have undergone coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) or suffered a stroke should not travel for ten days. Decompensated heart failure or uncontrolled hypertension are contraindications to flying.
In summary, patients who have experienced an uncomplicated MI may fly after seven days without requiring an exercise test. It is important to follow national guidance and consult with a healthcare provider before making any travel plans after a heart attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 65-year-old gentleman who has come to discuss PSA testing. He recently read an article in a newspaper that discussed the potential role of PSA testing in screening for prostate cancer and mentioned seeing your GP to discuss this further.
He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.
What advice would you give regarding PSA testing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 25 men with a normal PSA level will turn out to have prostate cancer
Explanation:PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer: Benefits and Limitations
PSA testing for prostate cancer in asymptomatic men is a contentious issue with some advocating it as a screening test and others wary of over-treatment and patient harm. It is important to clearly impart the benefits and limitations of PSA testing to the patient so that they can make an informed decision about whether to be tested.
One of the main debates surrounding PSA testing is its limitations in terms of sensitivity and specificity. Two out of three men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, and 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, leading to potential over-treatment.
There is also debate about the frequency of PSA testing. Patients with elevated PSA levels who are undergoing surveillance often have PSA levels done every three to six months, but how often should a PSA level be repeated in an asymptomatic man who has had a normal result? Some experts suggest a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.
When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. It is important for patients to weigh the potential benefits and limitations of PSA testing before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for an urgent appointment with the duty doctor. He reports experiencing severe chest pain on the right side, along with fever and malaise for the past three days. Upon examination, there are red papules and vesicles closely grouped on the affected area. No abnormalities are noted in his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological assessments.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise the patient that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over and prescribe a course of antivirals
Explanation:The patient should be informed that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over, which usually takes 5-7 days following onset of shingles. Therefore, a course of antiviral therapy should be prescribed to reduce the risk of postherpetic neuralgia. Analgesia should also be given to alleviate severe pain. Prescribing antibiotics or emollients would not be useful in this case.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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