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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fever, malaise and headache. During the examination, the GP notices a macular rash on her trunk and limbs. The patient confirms that the rash is not causing any itching. The GP suspects that the patient may have developed secondary syphilis. If the patient had untreated chancre-associated primary syphilis, how many weeks would it take for secondary syphilis to appear?
Your Answer: 2â8 weeks
Explanation:The Timeline and Symptoms of Secondary Syphilis
Secondary syphilis is a multisystem disease that usually develops between 2 and 8 weeks following the appearance of a chancre. In women, chancres can be found on the labia, vulva, or cervix, making it easy to miss the primary stage.
Symptoms of secondary syphilis include mild fever, malaise, and headache. A rash on the trunk and limbs is also common, which may involve the palms and soles of the feet. If left untreated, the rash can last up to 12 weeks.
It’s important to note that clinical manifestations of secondary syphilis will resolve without treatment, but relapse may occur within the first year.
In summary, the timeline for secondary syphilis is between 2 and 8 weeks following the chancre, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, and a rash on the trunk and limbs. Early detection and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her left hand that sometimes disturbs her sleep. She usually shakes her hand to alleviate the symptoms, which disappear entirely. She has a history of uncontrolled type 2 diabetes and breast cancer. During the examination, there is no evidence of deformity or wasting, and she has good power throughout her hand. The symptoms are reproduced when forced wrist flexion is performed.
What is the best initial course of action?Your Answer: Referral for surgical decompression
Correct Answer: Wrist splinting
Explanation:For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, conservative treatment with a wrist splint, with or without steroid injection, should be attempted first. This woman’s symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome, and therefore, first-line management should involve conservative measures before symptoms worsen. While amitriptyline may be useful for neuropathic pain, it is not the first-line treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs may be appropriate for osteoarthritis involving the hands, but this presentation does not suggest osteoarthritis. Surgical decompression may eventually be necessary if symptoms worsen, but it is not the first-line treatment for mild-moderate symptoms, and conservative management is more appropriate initially. While a steroid injection may be appropriate as a first-line treatment when used in conjunction with wrist splinting, steroid treatment alone is generally not the first-line treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of recurrent spontaneous miscarriages and DVT / PEs comes for a follow-up appointment at your clinic. During the examination, you observe the presence of purpuric rashes, splinter haemorrhages, and livedo reticularis. Considering the probable diagnosis, what would be the most suitable auto-immune antibody test to conduct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-cardiolipin antibodies
Explanation:The antibodies associated with antiphospholipid syndrome are lupus anticoagulant (LA) and anti-cardiolipin antibodies (aCL).
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following checks is not included in the pre-operative checklist of the WHO (World Health Organisation) for patients over 60 years of age before the administration of anaesthesia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Does the patient have 12-lead ECG monitoring in place?
Explanation:Checklists are a highly effective tool in reducing errors in various fields, including medicine and aviation. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has developed a Surgical Safety Checklist to prevent common surgical mistakes.
The checklist is divided into three phases of the operation:
1) Before administering anaesthesia (sign-in)
2) Before making an incision in the skin (time-out)
3) Before the patient leaves the operating room (sign-out).During each phase, a checklist coordinator must confirm that the surgical team has completed the listed tasks before proceeding with the operation.
Before administering anaesthesia, the following checks must be completed:
– The patient has confirmed the site, identity, procedure, and consent.
– The site is marked.
– The anaesthesia safety check is completed.
– The patient has a functioning pulse oximeter.
– Is the patient allergic to anything?
– Is there a risk of a difficult airway or aspiration?
– Is there a risk of blood loss exceeding 500ml (7 ml/kg in children)?The Importance of Surgical Safety Checklists
Checklists have proven to be an effective tool in reducing errors in various fields, including medicine and aviation. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has developed a Surgical Safety Checklist to minimize the occurrence of common surgical mistakes.
The checklist is divided into three phases of an operation: before the induction of anaesthesia (sign in), before the incision of the skin (time out), and before the patient leaves the operating room (sign out). In each phase, a checklist coordinator must confirm that the surgical team has completed the listed tasks before proceeding with the operation.
Before the induction of anaesthesia, the checklist ensures that the patient’s site, identity, procedure, and consent have been confirmed. The site must also be marked, and an anaesthesia safety check must be completed. Additionally, the pulse oximeter must be on the patient and functioning. The checklist also prompts the team to check for any known allergies, difficult airway/aspiration risks, and risks of significant blood loss.
Using a surgical safety checklist can significantly reduce the occurrence of surgical errors and improve patient outcomes. It is essential for surgical teams to prioritize patient safety by implementing this tool in their practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP after her 38-year-old sister was diagnosed with breast cancer. She is worried about her own risk of developing the disease, especially since their mother passed away from breast cancer at age 41. The patient requests a referral for genetic testing to determine if she carries mutations commonly associated with inherited breast cancer.
In which genes are these mutations most frequently found?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: BRCA2
Explanation:Genetic Mutations and Their Associated Risks
Inherited genetic mutations can increase the risk of developing certain diseases, including cancer. The BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are associated with an increased incidence of breast and ovarian cancers, with a 50% chance of inheritance from a parent. Mutations in these genes significantly increase the lifetime risk of developing these malignancies, with women with the BRCA1 mutation having a 72% risk of developing breast cancer and a 44% risk of developing ovarian cancer. The APC gene is associated with familial polyposis and an increased risk of colorectal cancer, while mutations in the PKD1 gene are associated with polycystic kidney disease. The delta F508 gene mutation causes cystic fibrosis, and mutations in the RAS gene are implicated in a wide range of malignancies. Understanding these genetic mutations and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention efforts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A child is put on a new agonist medication for asthma. While it works well at first, its effectiveness appears to diminish after a few months. What is the probable reason for this outcome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desensitisation
Explanation:Desensitisation and Drug Intolerance
When a person takes agonist drugs repeatedly, their effectiveness may decrease over time. This phenomenon is known as desensitisation or tachyphylaxis. There are several possible mechanisms that can contribute to desensitisation, including changes in the receptor structure, down-regulation of the number of receptors, increased degradation of receptors or the drug itself, physiological adaptation, and exhaustion of mediators. In the case of antimicrobial medications, the effect may be due to the microbe developing resistance to the drug. However, this term is not generally used to describe the effect of medications that are not antimicrobials.
On the other hand, drug intolerance refers to the development of side effects that limit the use of the drug or the dosage at which it can be given. This can occur even if the drug is effective in treating the condition it was prescribed for. Drug intolerance can be caused by a variety of factors, including individual differences in metabolism, interactions with other medications, and underlying medical conditions. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for signs of desensitisation and drug intolerance and adjust treatment plans accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has done some research but is still unsure about the risk of unintended pregnancy if she were to start taking this form of birth control. Can you explain the failure rate of the combined oral contraceptive pill when used correctly, given its Pearl Index of 0.2?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: For every thousand women using this form of contraception for one year, two would become pregnant
Explanation:The Pearl Index is frequently utilized to measure the effectiveness of a contraception method. It indicates the number of pregnancies that would occur if one hundred women used the contraceptive method for one year. Therefore, if the Pearl Index is 0.2 and the medication is used perfectly, we can expect to see 0.2 pregnancies for every hundred women using the pill for one year – or 2 for every thousand.
Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.
Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucous. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucous, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.
It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A mother of three brings her youngest daughter, aged 15, to the general practitioner (GP) as she is yet to start menstruating, whereas both her sisters had menarche at the age of 12.
The patient has developed secondary female sexual characteristics and has a normal height. She reports struggling with headaches and one episode of galactorrhoea.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals an intracranial tumour measuring 11 mm in maximal diameter.
Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the first-line management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medical treatment with cabergoline
Explanation:The patient has primary amenorrhoea due to a macroprolactinoma, which is a benign prolactin-secreting tumor of the anterior pituitary gland. Treatment in the first instance is with a dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine or cabergoline. Surgery is the most appropriate management if conservative management fails or the patient presents with visual field defects. Radiotherapy is rarely used. Exclusion of pregnancy is the first step in every case of amenorrhoea. Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and a cause of hyperprolactinaemia, so it should not be used to treat this patient. Thyroxine is not appropriate as hyperprolactinaemia is secondary to a pituitary adenoma. Indications for surgery are failure to respond to medical therapy or presentation with acute visual field defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What are the clinical signs that indicate a child has acute rheumatic fever carditis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pericardial rub
Explanation:Acute Rheumatic Fever
Acute rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs after a bacterial infection and is caused by pathogenic antibodies. It is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response that affects the heart, joints, and skin. The condition is triggered by antibodies that cross-react with cardiac tissue, which can lead to pancarditis, arthritis, and intra-dermal inflammation. The diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever is based on a combination of clinical and investigatory findings, which are known as the revised Jones criteria.
The pancarditis associated with acute rheumatic fever can cause a sustained tachycardia, which is particularly prominent at night. Conduction abnormalities, including prolonged PR interval, are also common. Pericarditis may be detected clinically with a pericardial rub, and patients may exhibit features of congestive cardiac failure, such as cardiomegaly. Several murmurs are recognized in patients with acute rheumatic fever, including aortic regurgitation, mitral regurgitation, and the Carey Coombs murmur.
In summary, acute rheumatic fever is a serious condition that can have significant effects on the heart, joints, and skin. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. The revised Jones criteria provide guidance for clinicians in making an accurate diagnosis and initiating appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department, complaining of severe headache, neck stiffness and photophobia. There is no history of trauma and there has been no recent foreign travel. On examination, he has fever and a non-blanching rash on his chest. Meningococcal septicaemia is suspected and treatment is commenced. A lumbar puncture was performed.
Select the result most consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose low and the predominant cells are polymorphs
Explanation:Interpreting CSF Results: Understanding Meningitis
Meningitis is a serious condition that can be caused by bacterial, viral, or tuberculous infections. The diagnosis of meningitis is often made by analyzing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obtained through a lumbar puncture. The results of the CSF analysis can provide important clues about the underlying cause of the infection.
CSF pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose low and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result is indicative of bacterial meningitis, specifically meningococcal septicaemia. Immediate antibiotic treatment is necessary to prevent serious complications.
CSF pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes: This result can be consistent with either viral or tuberculous meningitis. Further testing, such as PCR, may be necessary to determine the specific cause.
CSF pressure low, protein normal, glucose raised and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result is less indicative of infection, as the normal protein level and raised glucose level make bacterial meningitis unlikely. However, further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause.
CSF pressure normal, protein low, glucose normal and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result suggests that infection is unlikely, as the low CSF pressure and protein level are not consistent with meningitis.
CSF pressure normal, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes: This result is consistent with viral meningitis, and further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
Understanding the results of a CSF analysis is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of meningitis. Prompt and appropriate treatment can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department by ambulance after falling in her nursing home room. She is experiencing severe pain and is unable to bear weight on her leg, which appears shortened and externally rotated. An X-ray reveals a displaced intracapsular neck of femur fracture, and the orthopaedic team is contacted. The patient has a history of heart failure, mild Alzheimer's disease, and kidney stones. What is the most suitable form of pain relief for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iliofascial nerve block
Explanation:An iliofascial nerve block is a widely used and effective method of pain relief for patients with a fracture of the neck of the femur. By injecting local anaesthetic into the potential space between the fascia iliaca and the iliacus and psoas major muscles, the femoral, obturator, and lateral femoral cutaneous nerves can be affected, reducing the need for opioid analgesics like morphine. This is particularly beneficial for elderly patients who are more susceptible to the side effects of opioids. As most patients with neck of femur fractures are elderly, iliofascial nerve blocks are now the recommended first-line method of pain relief in many UK hospitals.
While rectal diclofenac is an effective form of pain relief for kidney stones, it is not the preferred method for a fractured neck of femur. Oral paracetamol is unlikely to provide sufficient pain relief for this type of injury. Intravenous propofol is an anaesthetic agent and not appropriate for initial pain relief in the emergency department. Spinal anaesthesia is commonly used during surgery for neck of femur fractures, but it is less suitable than an iliofascial nerve block in the emergency department.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is scheduled for a routine tooth extraction with his dentist. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and depression, but is otherwise in good health. His daily medications include metformin 850 mg three times a day, glimepiride 1 mg once a day, ramipril 5 mg once a day, isocarboxazid 20 mg once a day, and aspirin 75 mg once a day. Which medication should the dentist be informed about as a priority?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isocarboxazid
Explanation:Isocarboxazid is an antidepressant drug that inhibits both MAO-A and MAO-B, leading to increased neurotransmitter concentration and improved symptoms of depression and other psychiatric conditions. MAOIs have dietary restrictions and can interact with certain drugs, such as synthetic catecholamines. Aspirin may increase bleeding during dental procedures, but it is still recommended to continue use. Metformin increases the risk of lactic acidosis if the patient becomes dehydrated post-procedure. Ramipril and Glimepiride are considered safe to continue during dental extraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is pregnant with her first child. She is offered screening for chromosomal abnormalities and an ultrasound assessment. She decides to proceed with testing, which assesses nuchal thickness, pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A), free beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (ÎČ-hCG) and crownârump length. She is told the pregnancy is high risk for Down syndrome, and she and her partner are offered an amniocentesis.
Which one of the following statements regarding amniocentesis is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is associated with an increased risk of fetal limb defects
Explanation:Understanding the Risks and Limitations of Amniocentesis
Amniocentesis is a medical procedure that involves the extraction of amniotic fluid from the uterus of a pregnant woman. While it is a commonly used diagnostic tool, there are several risks and limitations associated with the procedure that should be taken into consideration.
One of the risks associated with amniocentesis is an increased risk of fetal limb defects. Additionally, there is a small chance of fetal injury due to trauma from the needle. While amniocentesis is estimated to be approximately 80% accurate, it cannot test for every birth defect, and in some cases, a conclusive result may not be possible.
Perhaps the most significant risk associated with amniocentesis is the chance of miscarriage, which is estimated to be between 10-20%. However, the risk of miscarriage is lower for operators who perform the procedure frequently. It is also important to note that amniocentesis should be performed after week 15, as early procedures are associated with pregnancy loss, fetal talipes, and respiratory morbidity.
Finally, it is worth noting that amniocentesis is typically carried out before week 10, as there is an increased risk of cell culture failure before this time. Overall, while amniocentesis can be a valuable diagnostic tool, it is essential to understand the risks and limitations associated with the procedure before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner with severe right ear pain, swelling, and itching. Her mother reports that it all started after her daughter began swimming lessons two months ago. During examination, the clinician notes tenderness when pulling the right ear upwards. Otoscopy is challenging due to the painful, swollen ear canal and white discharge. Additionally, the girl has tender cervical lymph nodes on the right side below the ear and experiences pain when moving her jaw sideways. She has a mild fever (38.3 °C), but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical acetic acid 2% spray (with wick placement) and oral antibiotics
Explanation:The recommended treatment for this patient’s severe otitis externa involves a combination of topical acetic acid 2% spray with wick placement and oral antibiotics. The use of wick placement is necessary due to the swelling in the ear canal, which can hinder the effectiveness of the topical solution. Oral antibiotics are necessary in cases where the infection has spread to adjacent areas, as evidenced by the patient’s tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Flucloxacillin or clarithromycin are commonly used for severe cases. Cleaning and irrigation of the ear canal may be performed under otoscope guidance to remove debris and promote better absorption of topical medication. Oral aminoglycosides are effective but should only be used if the tympanic membrane is intact. NSAIDs can provide symptomatic relief but are not sufficient for treating severe otitis externa. While topical acetic acid 2% spray is a first-line treatment for mild cases, a combination of topical therapy and oral antibiotics is necessary for severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy is presented to an urgent GP appointment with an acute limp. He has a runny nose but no fever. There is no reported injury. He is able to bear weight on the affected leg.
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent specialist assessment
Explanation:A child under the age of 3 who presents with an acute limp requires urgent specialist assessment. This is because septic arthritis is more common than transient synovitis in this age group. A routine paediatric referral is not appropriate as the concern is ruling out septic arthritis, which requires urgent attention. An urgent X-ray or hip ultrasound scan is also not sufficient, as a comprehensive specialist examination is necessary to exclude serious pathology.
Causes of Limping in Children
Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man is undergoing an elective transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hyperplasia with spinal anaesthesia. After 40 minutes into the procedure, he complains of headache and visual disturbances. A venous blood gas analysis is ordered, and the results show severe hyponatremia. What could be the reason for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irrigation with glycine
Explanation:TURP syndrome can be caused by irrigation with glycine during a transurethral resection of prostate. This complication presents with various symptoms affecting the central nervous system, respiratory system, and the body as a whole. The hypo-osmolar nature of glycine leads to its systemic absorption when the prostatic venous sinuses are opened up during the procedure. This results in hyponatremia, which is further exacerbated by the breakdown of glycine into ammonia by the liver. The resulting hyper-ammonia can cause visual disturbances. It is important to note that TURP syndrome can occur under general anesthesia or spinal anesthesia, but it is not a side effect of spinal anesthesia.
Understanding TURP Syndrome
TURP syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can occur during transurethral resection of the prostate surgery. This condition is caused by the use of large volumes of glycine during the procedure, which can be absorbed into the body and lead to hyponatremia. When the liver breaks down the glycine into ammonia, it can cause hyper-ammonia and visual disturbances.
The symptoms of TURP syndrome can be severe and include CNS, respiratory, and systemic symptoms. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including a surgical time of more than one hour, a height of the bag greater than 70cm, resection of more than 60g, large blood loss, perforation, a large amount of fluid used, and poorly controlled CHF.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of TURP syndrome in order to quickly identify and treat this condition if it occurs. By taking steps to minimize the risk of developing TURP syndrome and closely monitoring patients during and after the procedure, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan of his abdomen, claiming that he is certain he has cancer despite previous negative test results. What type of disorder does this behavior exemplify?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder
Explanation:Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing a red rash on her face for 6-12 months and is now having joint pain in multiple areas. She also reports having chest pain that feels like it's coming from the lining of her lungs. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 155/92 mmHg, and she has a butterfly-shaped rash on her face.
The following tests were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 119 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
- White cell count (WCC): 4.2 Ă 109/l (normal range: 4-11 Ă 109/l)
- Platelets: 192 Ă 109/l (normal range: 150-400 Ă 109/l)
- Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K+): 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine: 160 Όmol/l (normal range: 50-120 ”mol/l)
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr (normal range: 0-10mm in the 1st hour)
- Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): positive
- Urine: blood and protein present
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Differentiating Systemic Lupus Erythematosus from Other Connective Tissue Diseases
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can present with a variety of symptoms. Patients may experience pleuritic chest pain, arthralgia, and a typical rash, which are all indicative of SLE. Anti-nuclear antibodies are typically positive, although they are not specific to lupus. Treatment for SLE involves glucocorticoids as the mainstay, with second-line agents including cyclophosphamide, hydroxychloroquine, and azathioprine. BLyS inhibitors are also showing promise in clinical trials.
Other connective tissue diseases, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and mixed connective tissue disease, have distinct features that differentiate them from SLE. GPA is a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs, with palpable purpura on the extremities. Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents with joint pain and swelling, but without a butterfly rash or hypertension. Systemic sclerosis affects the skin on the face, forearms, and lower legs, with Raynaud’s, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. Mixed connective tissue disease has features of SLE, but without any other connective tissue disease symptoms.
It is important to differentiate between these diseases to provide appropriate treatment and management for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. She has widespread aches in multiple joints, including the hips, wrists and knees. She is normally fit and well, and the only medical history to note was eczema as a child, which she has now grown out of. The patientâs mother mentions that she did have a sore throat around two weeks ago, which was self-limiting. From the history and examination findings, the examining doctor feels that the patient is likely to have rheumatic fever.
Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of rheumatic fever?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group A Streptococcus
Explanation:Different Types of Streptococcus Bacteria and Their Associated Infections
Streptococcus bacteria are a group of Gram-positive bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Here are some of the different types of Streptococcus bacteria and the infections they are associated with:
1. Group A Streptococcus: This type of bacteria can cause rheumatic fever, tonsillitis, erysipelas, scarlet fever, cellulitis, septic arthritis, HenochâSchönlein purpura, post-streptococcal autoimmunity, and erythema multiforme.
2. Group B Streptococcus: This type of bacteria can cause septic abortion and bacterial meningitis.
3. Gamma-haemolytic Streptococcus: This type of bacteria is classified as gamma-haemolytic because it does not break down red blood cells on blood agar plates.
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae: This type of bacteria is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.
5. Streptococcus viridans: This type of bacteria is an important cause of bacterial endocarditis.
Overall, it is important to be aware of the different types of Streptococcus bacteria and the infections they can cause in order to properly diagnose and treat these infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male with a history of hypertension, obesity, gout and hypercholesterolemia experiences an abrupt onset of diarrhea. Which medication is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Colchicine is known to induce diarrhoea as a side effect.
One of the common side effects of colchicine, a medication utilized for treating acute gout attacks, is diarrhoea. Due to this, some physicians opt for naproxen or prednisolone instead of prescribing colchicine. The remaining drugs on the list are not typically associated with diarrhoea.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 ”mol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his left upper and both lower limbs for the last six months. He developed digital infarcts involving his second and third toes on his left side and the fourth toe on his right side.
On examination, his blood pressure was 170/110 mmHg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was an asymmetrical neuropathy.
Investigations showed:
- Haemoglobin 118 g/L (120-160)
- White cell Count 11 Ă109/L (3.5-10)
- Platelets 420 Ă109/L (150-450)
- ESR 55mm/hr (0-15)
Urine examination showed proteinuria +++ and RBC 10-15/hpf without casts.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa
Explanation:Polyarteritis Nodosa
Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized arteries. It can cause damage to various organs, including the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. The symptoms of PAN can range from mild to severe, depending on the extent of the damage. Some of the common symptoms include hypertension, nephropathy, digital infarcts, and mononeuritis multiplex.
One of the key diagnostic features of PAN is the presence of multiple aneurysms at vessel bifurcations, which can be detected through angiography. Treatment for PAN typically involves the use of immunosuppressive drugs to reduce inflammation and prevent further damage to the affected organs. With proper management, many people with PAN are able to achieve remission and maintain a good quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman, a mother of three, comes to see you on day 20 postpartum and asks for contraception. She is currently alternating between breastfeeding and bottle-feeding her newborn, struggling with sleepless nights, and wants a referral for Fallopian tube ligation as she explains that, at present, she does not want any other children. She is a smoker.
Which of the following is the best method of contraception in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill
Explanation:Contraception Options for Postpartum Women: A Guide for Healthcare Providers
Postpartum women have unique contraceptive needs and considerations. In this guide, we will discuss the various contraception options available for postpartum women and their suitability based on individual circumstances.
Progesterone-Only Pill
The progesterone-only pill is a safe option for women who are breastfeeding and < six weeks postpartum. It can be started immediately after delivery and is the first-line management for women who cannot take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The pill thickens mucous, preventing sperm from entering the uterus, and suppresses ovulation. However, compliance can be an issue, and long-acting progesterone contraceptives may be more appropriate. Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP) The COCP should not be used before six weeks postpartum in breastfeeding women and before 21 days in non-breastfeeding women. A risk assessment should be performed, and contraindications, such as smoking and age over 35, should be considered. Intrauterine System The intrauterine system is a highly effective long-acting reversible contraceptive that can be inserted at the time of delivery or within the first 48 hours postpartum. Delayed insertion until after four weeks postpartum is recommended to reduce the risk of uterine perforation. No Contraception Required Breastfeeding can suppress ovulation, but if a woman is not exclusively breastfeeding, contraception should be offered. The patient’s wishes should be established, and contraception should be discussed at the 6-week postpartum check. Tubal Ligation (Sterilisation) Tubal ligation is a permanent form of contraception that should not be considered until after six weeks postpartum. The patient should be counselled regarding the risks and benefits, the low success of reversibility, and the possibility of future desire for children. Male sterilisation should be considered first, and both partners should be present for the consultation. In conclusion, healthcare providers should consider individual circumstances and preferences when discussing contraception options with postpartum women. A thorough risk assessment and counselling should be performed before recommending any form of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing pain in his left forefoot over the past three weeks. He is an avid runner, typically running for two to three hours daily, but has never experienced this issue before. There is no history of direct injury to the foot. Upon examination, he is afebrile with a pulse rate of 88 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute. Point tenderness is noted on the left foot, but there is no swelling. X-ray results reveal periosteal thickening, and a diagnosis of metatarsal stress fracture is made. Which metatarsal is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Second
Explanation:Metatarsal stress fractures are commonly caused by repeated stress over time and typically occur in healthy athletes, such as runners. The second metatarsal shaft is the most frequent site of these fractures due to its firm fixation at the tarsometatarsal joint, which results in increased rigidity and a higher risk of fracture. Diagnosis is often based on clinical history and examination, as early x-rays may not show any abnormalities. The first metatarsal is the least commonly fractured due to its larger size, which requires greater force to break. On the other hand, the fifth metatarsal is the most commonly fractured as a result of direct trauma or crush injuries.
Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.
Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.
Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency department with a painful, swollen right eye. She is compliant with her hydroxychloroquine medication and has had three arthritic flares in the past year, all of which responded well to IV steroids. The patient frequently uses artificial teardrops for foreign body sensation, but her current ocular symptoms are not improving with this treatment. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.
The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.
In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.
Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 29-year old teacher's aide is admitted with severe dehydration after experiencing vomiting and diarrhea for the past three days. She has no history of foreign travel and has not been in contact with anyone who is ill. The patient is typically healthy, but has mild asthma and occasionally takes salbutamol. Upon examination, the patient has a pulse of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 104/65 mmHg, and mild epigastric tenderness. An antiemetic is prescribed and IV hydration is initiated. Which antiemetic primarily acts on the histaminergic system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Understanding Antiemetics: Mechanisms of Action and Examples of Drugs
Antiemetics are drugs used to suppress the vomiting reflex by acting on specialized sites within the central nervous system (CNS). These sites include the vomiting center, the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), and the vestibular system. Different antiemetics act on different neurochemical systems, resulting in a similar desired effect of vomiting suppression. Combining different antiemetics can result in pharmacological synergy, allowing clinicians to choose the best drug for a specific clinical scenario.
Examples of chemical neurotransmitters and their corresponding drugs include acetylcholine and anticholinergics (e.g. hyoscine), histamine and antihistamines (e.g. cyclizine), 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT or serotonin) and 5-HT3-receptor antagonists (e.g. ondansetron, granisetron), and dopamine and dopamine antagonists (e.g. metoclopramide, domperidone, prochlorperazine). Domperidone is the drug of choice in Parkinson’s disease because it is a dopamine antagonist that does not cross the blood-brain barrier, while metoclopramide exacerbates Parkinson’s symptoms. Ondansetron is an antagonist of the 5HT3 receptor and can be given orally, intramuscularly, or intravenously to treat post-operative nausea and vomiting. Prochlorperazine is primarily a dopamine antagonist that inhibits dopaminergic stimulation of the CTZ and can also treat psychosis and motion sickness. Hyoscine is an anticholinergic that is most effective in treating motion sickness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old asthmatic has been admitted to the hospital with a worsening wheeze that has persisted for 24 hours. You are urgently called as the patient has become acutely short of breath despite receiving three sets of salbutamol nebulisers. The patient is now hypotensive and desaturating. Upon examination, you notice reduced air entry with a resonant percussion note in the left lung field and a trachea deviated to the right. Based on these symptoms, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:Urgent Treatment for Evolving Pneumothorax
This patient is showing clinical signs of a developing pneumothorax, which requires urgent treatment. While a tension pneumothorax is typically associated with a deviated trachea and hyper-resonance, these signs may not appear until later stages. It is possible that the patient has a simple pneumothorax, but given their hypotension, urgent needle decompression is necessary to treat a potential tension pneumothorax. In such cases, chest imaging should not be prioritized over immediate intervention. The procedure involves inserting a large bore needle in the second intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line, followed by a chest drain.
Pneumonia can often trigger asthma exacerbations, which can lead to severe chest sepsis and SIRS criteria evolving into severe sepsis. In such cases, ARDS may be the predominant clinical picture with wet lung fields. While massive pulmonary embolism can also cause desaturation and hypotension, there are no other apparent risk factors in this patient’s case. It is important to note that while acute asthma exacerbations can cause anxiety, the diagnosis of panic attacks should only be made after excluding other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the GP with a 3-week history of generalised fatigue and weakness. He reports difficulty walking or standing for extended periods and struggles to get up from chairs. During examination, a violaceous non-oedematous rash is observed around his eyes, and his hands are extremely dry. Additionally, rough red papules are present over the extensor surfaces of his fingers. He has smoked 20 cigarettes a day for the last 45 years.
What is the most crucial next step in managing his likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignancy screening
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is often associated with an underlying malignancy, therefore malignancy screening is necessary. The patient’s symptoms, including proximal muscle weakness, heliotrope rash, dry hands, and Gottron’s papules, suggest a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. While an electromyogram may aid in diagnosis, it is not essential. Fundoscopy and referral to ophthalmology are not necessary as there are no eye-related symptoms. Instead, screening for malignancy through chest x-rays, CT scans, and blood tests is crucial.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of intermittent abdominal pain for the past 24 hours. He is experiencing vomiting and has not been able to eat. During the examination, scleral icterus is observed, and there is guarding in the right upper quadrant. His vital signs show a heart rate of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 25/min, temperature of 37.9ÂșC, and blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this patient is ascending cholangitis, as evidenced by the presence of Charcot’s triad of fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. This condition is commonly caused by gallstones and is often seen in individuals with recurrent biliary colic. It is important to note that acute cholangitis is a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment with antibiotics and preparation for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).
Acute cholecystitis is a possible differential diagnosis, but it is less likely in this case as it typically presents without jaundice. Acute pancreatitis is also a potential differential, but it is characterized by epigastric pain that radiates to the back and is relieved by sitting up. A serum amylase or lipase test can help differentiate between the two conditions. Biliary colic is another possible diagnosis, but the presence of secondary infective signs and jaundice suggest a complication of gallstones, such as cholangitis.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has suffered a left-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain has been inserted through the left fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line.
As well as the intercostal muscles, which other muscle is likely to have been pierced?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serratus anterior
Explanation:Muscles and Chest Drains: Understanding the Anatomy
The human body is a complex system of muscles, bones, and organs that work together to keep us alive and functioning. When it comes to chest drains, understanding the anatomy of the surrounding muscles is crucial for successful placement and management. Let’s take a closer look at some of the key muscles involved.
Serratus Anterior
The serratus anterior muscle is located on the lateral chest and plays a vital role in protracting the scapula and contributing to rotation. It is likely to be pierced with most chest drains due to its position, with its lower four segments attaching to the fifth to eighth ribs anterior to the mid-axillary line.Latissimus Dorsi
The latissimus dorsi muscle is a back muscle involved in adduction, medial rotation, and extension of the shoulder. It is not pierced by a chest drain.External Oblique
The external oblique muscle is located in the anterior abdomen and is not involved with a chest drain.Pectoralis Major
The pectoralis major muscle is situated in the anterior chest and is not affected by a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line. It flexes, extends, medially rotates, and adducts the shoulder.Pectoralis Minor
The pectoralis minor muscle lies inferior to the pectoralis major on the anterior chest. It is a small muscle and is not usually pierced with a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line.In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the muscles surrounding the chest is essential for successful chest drain placement and management. Knowing which muscles are likely to be pierced and which are not can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP for a follow-up on her depression. She is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of low mood, anhedonia, poor appetite, and poor sleep, despite completing a full course of cognitive behavioural therapy. Her therapist has recommended medication, and the patient is open to this option. What is the appropriate first-line treatment for her depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Antidepressant Medications: Recommended Use and Precautions
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for moderate to severe depression or mild depression that has not responded to initial interventions. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are not recommended as first-line treatment due to their toxicity in overdose. Dosulepin, in particular, has been linked to cardiac conduction defects and other arrhythmias. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), like phenelzine, may be prescribed by a specialist in refractory cases but are not recommended as first-line treatment. Venlafaxine, a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor, is also not recommended as first-line treatment due to the risk of hypertension, arrhythmias, and potential toxicity in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the most appropriate medication for individual cases of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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