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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalised lethargy and weakness. She has...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalised lethargy and weakness. She has a significant medical history of childhood asthma and vitiligo, and currently only uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. She reports feeling constantly worn out, weak, and experiencing body aches. She also feels dizzy when standing up quickly. On examination, she appears well and has no fever, shortness of breath, or pain. Her blood pressure is 106/60, but drops to 94/56 when standing, causing brief lightheadedness. Cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examinations are normal. There is no joint swelling and she walks with a normal gait. Blood tests reveal a slightly low sodium of 130 mmol/L and a slightly raised potassium of 5.5 mmol/L. Which investigation is most likely to aid in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum cortisol level obtained at 9 am

      Explanation:

      Understanding Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a rare condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Patients may experience chronic fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness, among other symptoms. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.

      Clinical examination and blood tests can provide clues to the presence of Addison’s disease. Postural hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are common features. A serum cortisol level done at 8-9 am can also be helpful in diagnosing the condition. Levels below 100 nanomol/L require hospital admission, while levels between 100 and 500 nanomol/L merit endocrinology referral for further investigation.

      It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease, as early detection and treatment can prevent acute crises and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 2 - You see a 65-year-old patient in your emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone diproprionate...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old patient in your emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg two puffs twice daily for his asthma. He also uses salbutamol as and when required but says he has been needing two puffs four times a day for the past few days. Over the past two weeks he has been coughing thick green phlegm and feels more wheezy and says he is a lot shorter of breath than usual. He has been feeling feverish intermittently.

      His symptoms are not getting better despite increasing his salbutamol. On examination, his temperature is 38.1 and his oxygen saturations are 92% in air. His chest sounds wheezy and he has crackles to the right basal region. His peak flow is 300 L/min (predicted of 610 L/min). His respiration rate is 24/minute and his pulse is 110 per minute. His blood pressure is 120/59.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit him to hospital

      Correct Answer: Trial 500 micrograms ipratropium bromide nebulizer

      Explanation:

      Hospital Admission Necessary for Patient with Asthma and Pneumonia

      There are several indicators that suggest hospital admission is necessary for this patient. Despite already taking preventative measures for his asthma with Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg, his usage of salbutamol has increased and he has a productive cough with fevers, indicating a potential bacterial infection. Additionally, his oxygen levels are low, requiring oxygen therapy and monitoring of his oxygen saturations. He is also febrile with evidence of a focal infection and tachycardic. His CRB-65 score of 2, due to his blood pressure being <60 diastolic and his age being >65, further supports the need for hospitalization. Furthermore, his peak flow is less than 50%, indicating both pneumonia and an acute asthma attack.

      While other options may be reasonable, such as adjusting his medication or providing home care, this patient requires intravenous antibiotics, oxygen therapy, and monitoring of his oxygen saturations and steroids, all of which can only be provided in a hospital setting.

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  • Question 3 - What is a symptom that is unique to a severe asthma attack in...

    Incorrect

    • What is a symptom that is unique to a severe asthma attack in an adult that could be life-threatening?

      Your Answer: Always evolves quickly

      Correct Answer: Loud inspiratory and expiratory wheezes

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Acute Severe and Life Threatening Asthma

      Asthma attacks can vary in their severity and duration. Tachycardia, or a rapid heart rate of over 110 beats per minute, is common during an attack. However, as the attack progresses, bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, may develop. Attacks can occur quickly, in less than an hour, or gradually over several days.

      During an asthma attack, loud wheezing sounds usually indicate adequate air entry. However, as the attack worsens, the chest may become silent, and the patient may experience pulsus paradoxus, a condition where the pulse weakens during inhalation. Pulse oximetry readings are typically less than 90%.

      Patients with acute severe and life-threatening asthma may struggle to complete sentences in one breath. However, a peak expiratory flow (PEF) of less than 33% of the predicted value is a sign of life-threatening asthma. It’s important to note that the inability to complete a full sentence in one breath alone doesn’t differentiate between acute severe and life-threatening asthma. Understanding these symptoms can help individuals with asthma seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

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  • Question 4 - You are investigating a 70-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result...

    Incorrect

    • You are investigating a 70-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result arrived today as 2200 ng/litre.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Referral to cardiology within 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call cardiologist

      Explanation:

      NT-proBNP Guidelines for Heart Failure Diagnosis

      NICE guidelines provide clear instructions for the interpretation of NT-proBNP levels in the diagnosis of heart failure. An NT-proBNP level above 2000ng/litre indicates a poor prognosis and requires urgent referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks. For levels between 400 and 2000 ng/litre, referral should be made within 6 weeks. However, an NT-proBNP level less than 400 ng/litre makes a diagnosis of heart failure less likely. It is important to keep in mind that certain factors such as obesity, Afro-Caribbean family origin, and medication use can reduce the reading. Therefore, careful consideration of these factors is necessary when interpreting NT-proBNP levels. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of heart failure.

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  • Question 5 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough that...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough that has been troubling him for the last six months. His wife has brought him in as he has coughed up small amounts of blood on several occasions and has lost about a stone in weight over the last few months. He is a heavy smoker of 40 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years and has developed noisy breathing over the last few days. He also complains of a persistent headache and feeling a little dizzy. On examination, he has a soft stridor at rest and dilated veins on his chest wall. His oxygen saturations are 98% in room air, blood pressure is 128/88 mmHg, and pulse rate is 90 regular. He is alert, oriented, and afebrile with clear chest sounds on auscultation. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Refer as an urgent suspected cancer to a chest physician

      Correct Answer: Admit as a medical emergency

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is an obstruction of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by extraluminal compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      The typical features of SVCO include facial/upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncopal attacks, and headache due to pressure effect. Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds and immediate referral for specialist assessment is crucial. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO is considered a medical emergency.

      Management of SVCO involves treatment with steroids and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy and stent insertion may also be indicated. It is important to address the underlying cause of SVCO to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old medical student comes to you in January complaining of flu-like symptoms....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old medical student comes to you in January complaining of flu-like symptoms. She has been experiencing an on-and-off fever for the past few weeks, but no other physical symptoms are present. Interestingly, she completed an elective period in India nine months ago. What is the most likely cause of her illness?

      Your Answer: Vivax malaria

      Explanation:

      This case highlights the significance of obtaining a thorough travel history when diagnosing illnesses. In this scenario, the patient presented with symptoms of fever, headache, weakness, vomiting, and diarrhoea. While influenza is a common cause of winter illnesses, meningococcal meningitis and trypanosomiasis did not fit the chronology, and cryptosporidium infection typically presents with watery diarrhoea within days of infection.

      Upon further investigation, it was discovered that the patient had recently travelled to India, where malaria is prevalent. Falciparum malaria typically presents within three months of infection, but Vivax malaria can take up to a year to manifest. The symptoms of malaria include cyclical fever and chills, headache, weakness, vomiting, and diarrhoea, and patients may also present with splenomegaly.

      Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to obtain a detailed travel history when evaluating patients with symptoms of infectious diseases. This information can aid in the timely and accurate diagnosis and management of illnesses.

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  • Question 7 - A 78-year-old man presents with a suspected right sided deep vein thrombosis (DVT)....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man presents with a suspected right sided deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has a history of cardiac failure and is currently taking ramipril 5 mg BD, bisoprolol 7.5 mg OD, atorvastatin 20 mg OD and furosemide 40 mg OD.
      Upon examination, his right calf measures 2 cm larger than the left (when measured 10cm below the tibial tuberosity) and there is mild erythema of the skin on the right lower leg. Palpation of the back of the right calf elicits some tenderness. He also has mild bilateral pitting oedema of the feet that is symmetrical when comparing both feet.
      Which of the following would earn one point when calculating his two-level DVT Wells score?

      Your Answer: The size difference of the calves

      Explanation:

      Two-Level DVT Wells Score

      A Two-Level DVT Wells score is a tool used to determine the likelihood of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a patient. The score is calculated based on several factors, including cancer, recent immobilization, major surgery, tenderness along the deep venous system, leg swelling, pitting edema, non-varicose collateral superficial veins, and past medical history of DVT.

      A score of one point is given for each of these factors, except for past medical history of DVT, which automatically scores one point. Two points are subtracted if another diagnosis is more likely. If the score is two points or more, the probability of a DVT is likely, while a score of one point or less indicates an unlikely probability.

      It is important to note that in this case, the swelling is not greater than 3 cm and the minimal pitting is equal on both sides, which may affect the overall score and probability of a DVT.

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  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old male is brought to see you by his mother following an...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male is brought to see you by his mother following an episode of collapse. He tells you that on a few occasions whilst playing basketball he has had some chest pain and breathlessness, and has felt as though he were going to faint. Last night during practice he collapsed and 'blacked out' for a few seconds. On examination he has a harsh ejection systolic murmur with a palpable systolic thrill at the left sternal edge; and a prominent jerky carotid pulse. What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition caused by left ventricular outflow tract obstruction due to septal hypertrophy. It can be inherited or sporadic, and a family history of sudden death should be considered. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, palpitations, pre-syncope, and syncope. Clinical signs include a ‘jerky’ pulse, double apex impulse, and a prominent systolic thrill with a harsh ejection systolic murmur.

      Brugada syndrome is a rare inherited cardiac condition that can cause sudden cardiac death. It is caused by a genetic mutation affecting the cardiac sodium channels and is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

      Long-QT syndrome can be inherited or acquired and predisposes to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. Causes include various drugs, ischaemic heart disease, and metabolic abnormalities such as hypocalcaemia.

      Pericarditis can present acutely with chest pain that worsens when lying flat and with inspiration. A pericardial rub may be audible, and causes include viruses, bacteria, fungi, and systemic diseases.

      Constrictive pericarditis occurs when the pericardium becomes rigid and mainly leads to signs of right heart failure. Clinical signs include a diffuse apex beat, quiet heart sounds, and Kussmaul’s sign (JVP rises with inspiration paradoxically). It can occur after an episode of acute pericarditis.

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is caused by an accessory pathway that conducts between the atrium and ventricle, facilitating abnormal conduction and often presenting with supraventricular tachycardia.

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  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old woman presents with a painful swollen left calf. She recently returned...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents with a painful swollen left calf. She recently returned from a walking holiday in Austria where she walked up to 10 miles a day. There is no history of venous thromboembolism. On examination, the left calf is 4 cm larger than the right with tenderness and mild pitting oedema. Non-varicose superficial collateral veins are present. The right calf is normal. What is the correct diagnostic reasoning and management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: A Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is likely, refer for immediate D-dimer blood testing

      Correct Answer: A DVT is likely, refer for a proximal leg vein ultrasound to be carried out within four hours

      Explanation:

      Two-Level DVT Wells Score for Assessing Probability of DVT

      When assessing the probability of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a two-level DVT Wells score should be used. This score takes into account various factors and findings, such as cancer, recent immobilization, leg swelling, and tenderness. One point is given for each of these factors, and two points can be subtracted if another diagnosis is more likely.

      If the score is two points or more, it is likely that the patient has a DVT and a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be performed within four hours. If the scan cannot be carried out within four hours, a parenteral anticoagulant should be given and the scan arranged within 24 hours.

      If the score is one point or less, D-dimer testing should be performed. A positive result should be followed up with a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan within four hours, and a negative result should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

      In the case of the patient described, she scores at least two points, making a DVT likely. Therefore, she should be referred for a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan to be performed within four hours.

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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. Her usual peak flow is 400 L/min. What characteristic indicates acute severe asthma in this individual?

      Your Answer: Peak flow rate 250 L/min

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate 26/min

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.

      Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients, as it depends on their usual best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, then it is a marker of an acute severe attack.

      According to BTS guidance, pulsus paradoxus is not an adequate indicator of the severity of an acute asthma attack and should not be used. A pulse of 101/min would not be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater. However, a respiratory rate of 26/min is clearly above the threshold advised by BTS and would be a marker of an acute severe attack. If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, then the patient should be admitted.

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  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old man presents with severe, left, renal, angle pain. On examination he has...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with severe, left, renal, angle pain. On examination he has severe, left, renal, angle tenderness, his BP is elevated at 155/90 mmHg, and his pulse is 95. He is apyrexial. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 121 g/L (135-180) White cell count 6.1 ×109/L (4-10) Platelets 201 ×109/L (150-400) Sodium 140 mmol/L (134-143) Potassium 4.9 mmol/L (3.5-5) Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-120) Urine blood +++ Which one of the following would be your best next step?

      Your Answer: Give him an injection of IM diclofenac

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from acute renal colic due to a calcium-containing renal stone. IM diclofenac is the initial step in management, along with increased fluid intake and arranging for a urology opinion. Antispasmodics should not be offered. Assess response to initial treatment and admit if no response within 1 hour. Offer urgent imaging to confirm diagnosis and assess likelihood of spontaneous stone passage. Offer NSAIDs for pain relief, and consider opioids if necessary. Do not offer antispasmodics. Provide written information on renal and ureteric stones.

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  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old male presents with a two hour history of severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents with a two hour history of severe pain in the left testis. He is unaware of preceding trauma and feels that the pain has increased since it began. He feels nauseated and has been pyrexial.

      Whilst examining him he confesses to having a sexual relationship. On examination, he has a tender swollen left testis with a temperature of 37.5°C.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange emergency admission

      Correct Answer: Take FBC and MSU and await results before prescribing.

      Explanation:

      Acute Testicular Pain in Young Males: Torsion as the Primary Concern

      In young males under 20 years of age who experience sudden testicular pain, it is crucial to consider torsion as the primary diagnosis. Failure to recognize this condition can lead to irreversible damage to the testes. Therefore, the most important action is to seek immediate medical attention and admission for acute urology opinion.

      Prompt treatment within six hours of symptom onset can save most testes, while delaying treatment beyond 12 hours can result in the loss of the affected testicle. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize timely diagnosis and management of testicular torsion to prevent long-term complications and preserve fertility.

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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with abdominal discomfort and bloody stools. She has been managing her condition with daily mesalamine 1 g. She has not undergone any previous surgeries.
      Upon further questioning, she reports experiencing colicky abdominal pain and passing bloody stools 8-10 times a day for the past three days.
      During the physical examination, her temperature is 37.8°C, pulse rate is 96 bpm, and blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. The abdomen is tender to palpation but no masses or signs of peritonitis are present.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital for inpatient management

      Explanation:

      Severity of Ulcerative Colitis and the Truelove-Witts Criteria

      Severe flare-ups of inflammatory bowel disease can lead to serious complications such as toxic megacolon, perforation, sepsis, and severe bleeding. Hospital admission and inpatient treatment are necessary in such cases. Severe ulcerative colitis is characterized by significant systemic upset and severe lower gastrointestinal symptoms. Blood investigations can provide further information on disease severity.

      The Truelove-Witts criteria are a validated way of stratifying disease severity. According to these criteria, acute severe ulcerative colitis is defined as bowels open more than six times daily plus one or more of the following: haemoglobin less than 105 g/L, ESR greater than 30 mm/hr, pulse rate greater than 90 bpm, and temperature greater than 37.8°C.

      If a patient presents with bloody diarrhea and systemic unwellness (fever and/or tachycardia), immediate hospital admission for in-patient assessment is necessary. Approximately half of severe ulcerative colitis attacks occur as a first attack in a patient without a previous diagnosis.

      Moderate disease is classified as four to six stools a day (with or without blood) with minimal systemic disturbance. Mild disease is classified as less than four stools a day (with or without blood) with no systemic unwellness (no fever or tachycardia) and a normal ESR.

      It is important to note that anti-diarrheal agents such as loperamide should be avoided as they have not been shown to reduce stool frequency in ulcerative colitis and have been associated with an increased risk of toxic megacolon. Studies from the 1950s show that untreated severe ulcerative colitis had a mortality rate of almost 25%, but with the use of corticosteroids and expert surgical input, this figure has been reduced to less than 1%.

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  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old girl presents with complaints of feeling tired and lethargic for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with complaints of feeling tired and lethargic for the past six months. She also reports experiencing generalised abdominal discomfort and constipation. Despite denying depression, her academic performance has declined this year. On examination, she appears pale and thin, with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg and no postural drop in BP. Her laboratory results show a Hb of 134 g/L (115-165), WBC of 4.8 ×109/L (4-11), Platelet of 290 ×109/L (150-400), ESR of 7 mm/hr (<10), Na of 131 mmol/L (135-144), K of 2.7 mmol/L (3.4-4.5), Urea of 3.0 mmol/L (3-7), Creat of 90 µmol/L (50-100), Bicarbonate of 35 mmol/L (20-28), Alkaline phosphatase of 90 IU/L (50-110), Bilirubin of 12 µmol/L (0-17), AST of 30 IU/L (5-40), and Albumin of 36 g/L (33-44). Her CXR is normal. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis Considerations for a Patient with Anorexia Nervosa

      This patient is presenting with anorexia nervosa and self-induced vomiting, which can explain the low levels of sodium, potassium, and alkalosis. It is important to note that hypoalbuminemia may not be present until later stages of the disease.

      When considering other potential diagnoses, Addison’s disease can cause hyponatremia and hyperkalemic acidosis, but the patient’s clinical presentation doesn’t align with this diagnosis. Additionally, there is no postural drop in blood pressure, which is not supportive of Addison’s disease.

      Cushing’s disease can cause hypokalemic alkalosis, but again, the patient’s presentation doesn’t fit with this diagnosis.

      Conn’s syndrome, which is associated with adrenal adenoma, can cause hypertension and hypokalemia. However, this diagnosis is not likely in this case.

      In summary, the patient’s symptoms and laboratory results are consistent with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa with self-induced vomiting.

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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to hospital after a fall. He denies any...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to hospital after a fall. He denies any loss of consciousness but admits to increasing dizziness when attempting to get around his flat.

      He has a past medical history of cardiac failure, type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. His medications, which were recently altered by the hospital clinic, include bendroflumethiazide, aspirin, ramipril, gliclazide, furosemide, simvastatin and doxazosin, the latter being recently introduced.

      What single observation would help establish his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lying and standing blood pressures

      Correct Answer: Arterial blood gases

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced Postural Hypotension

      Drug-induced postural hypotension is a condition that can occur as a side effect of antihypertensive therapy, especially with the use of alpha-blockers. In this case, the patient’s recent introduction to doxazosin is a clue to the cause of their symptoms. Postural hypotension is characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up, leading to dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. It is important to monitor patients closely when starting new medications and adjust dosages as needed to prevent this potentially dangerous condition.

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  • Question 16 - A 48-year-old-man presents with right sided loin pain radiating to the tip of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old-man presents with right sided loin pain radiating to the tip of his penis. Urinalysis shows non-visible haematuria. He has a past history of renal calculi.

      On examination he is hydrated and is taking fluids orally but has not eaten anything for the past 24 hours. He has a temperature of 38.1°C.

      Which of the following features in the history and examination should prompt admission to hospital?

      Your Answer: Non-visible haematuria

      Correct Answer: Age of the patient

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Renal Colic/Renal Calculi

      This case involves a patient presenting with acute renal colic, which requires careful management to determine whether hospital admission is necessary. While a past history of renal calculi is not necessarily a reason for admission, the presence of a fever should prompt hospital referral to prevent the development of sepsis. Non-visible haematuria is a common finding in acute renal colic and doesn’t influence the decision to admit. However, age should be considered, particularly in men over 60 with left-sided pain, as they may have an aortic aneurysm mimicking renal colic. If the patient is dehydrated and unable to take oral fluids due to vomiting, admission and IV fluids are necessary. In this case, the patient is drinking satisfactorily. For more information on the management of acute renal colic, refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries page.

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  • Question 17 - A 31-year-old woman presents to surgery with a flare-up of her ulcerative colitis.

    She...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presents to surgery with a flare-up of her ulcerative colitis.

      She was seen four days ago with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea and has returned today as her symptoms have worsened. She currently complains that over the last two days she has been passing at least eight loose stools a day all of which have be associated with the passage of fresh blood.

      On examination, her temperature is 37.4°C, pulse rate is 104 b.p.m., and blood pressure is 98/72 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness on deep palpation but no peritonism or masses.

      Blood tests performed yesterday show a modest anaemia with a haemoglobin 109 g/L (normal range 115-135), an ESR of 23 mm/hr (normal range <15) and an albumin of 35 g/L (normal range 35-50).

      Which of the following parameters in this instance is an indication of severe colitis and should prompt consideration of hospital admission?

      Your Answer: Pulse rate

      Correct Answer: Inflammatory marker levels

      Explanation:

      Severity of Ulcerative Colitis and Hospital Admission

      Severe flare-ups of inflammatory bowel disease require hospital admission and inpatient treatment due to potential complications such as toxic megacolon, perforation, sepsis, and severe bleeding. In the case of ulcerative colitis, disease severity can be determined using the Truelove-Witts criteria, which includes symptoms such as bowel movements more than six times a day, along with low hemoglobin levels, high ESR, elevated pulse rate, and fever.

      A patient presenting with severe symptoms such as bloody diarrhea and systemic unwellness should be admitted immediately for in-patient assessment. The tachycardia should alert the clinician to systemic upset and prompt hospital admission to initiate treatment to guard against the development of complications. Studies have shown that untreated severe ulcerative colitis had a mortality rate of almost 25%, but with the use of corticosteroids and expert surgical input, this figure has been reduced to less than 1%.

      It is important to note that approximately half of severe ulcerative colitis attacks occur as a first attack in a patient without a previous diagnosis. Moderate disease is classified as four to six stools a day (with or without blood) with minimal systemic disturbance, while mild disease is classified as less than four stools a day (with or without blood) with no systemic unwellness (no fever or tachycardia) and a normal ESR. Overall, the severity of ulcerative colitis should be carefully assessed to determine the appropriate level of care and treatment needed for the patient.

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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic with a deep wound on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic with a deep wound on his hand caused by a terrier bite. The wound is accompanied by swelling. After receiving tetanus immunisation and wound cleaning, what would be the most suitable antibiotic regimen for this patient?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav oral

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim oral

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Antibiotics in Dog Bites

      The use of prophylactic antibiotics in dog bites is a controversial topic. However, evidence supports their use in deep wounds, bites to the hands, and signs of infection. It is also important to consider immune compromise as an indication, along with involvement of deep structures such as joints or tendons, or in the presence of prosthetic joints.

      For complicated animal bites, including those from cats or humans, co-amoxiclav is recommended as the first-line treatment. It is important to note that the treatment of animal bites, especially those on the hand, may require more than just antibiotics. Seeking the advice of a plastic surgeon for debridement or tendon repair may also be necessary. Proper treatment and care can help prevent further complications and promote healing.

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  • Question 19 - You are seeing a middle-aged patient in your morning clinic. You suspect he...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a middle-aged patient in your morning clinic. You suspect he had a TIA three days ago. He has no neurological deficit at present and is otherwise well.

      Which of the following does NICE advise as the next step of management?

      Your Answer: Perform an ABCD2 score to decide the urgency of referral

      Correct Answer: Arrange for specialist assessment within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Suspected TIA

      When suspecting a TIA has occurred within the last week, NICE advises administering aspirin 300 mg and seeking assessment within 24 hours by a stroke specialist physician. However, they no longer recommend using the ABCD2 scoring system as evidence shows it is poor at distinguishing between high and low risk of stroke after a TIA.

      If the suspected TIA happened over one week ago, the patient can be referred for assessment within 7 days. Immediate admission should be considered for patients with a bleeding disorder or on an anticoagulant, those who have had more than one TIA (consider crescendo TIAs), severe carotid stenosis, suspected cardioembolic source, or lack reliable support at home to contact emergency services if further symptoms occur.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure proper assessment and treatment for patients with suspected TIA.

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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. During previous consultations, his best peak flow measurements were recorded at 600 L/min. Upon initial assessment, it appears to be an acute severe attack and he is given appropriate treatment. What symptom, if still present after initial treatment, would necessitate hospitalization?

      Your Answer: Peak flow rate of 280 L/min

      Correct Answer: SpO2 95%

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      Assessment and severity of acute asthma are common topics in exams. The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma, which should be familiar to healthcare professionals.

      Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. Oxygen therapy should aim to maintain SpO2 levels between 94-98%.

      It is important to note that increasing symptoms is not a marker of an acute severe attack, but rather denotes a moderate asthma exacerbation. Additionally, there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients to determine the severity of their asthma. It depends on their personal best or predicted peak flow reading.

      If a patient’s actual peak flow is 33-50% of their personal best or predicted rate, it is a marker of an acute severe attack. If any of the indicators of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, admission is advised. A simple rule of thumb is that if the peak flow remains at <50% predicted or best after initial treatment, admission is recommended.

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  • Question 21 - A 48-year-old pub owner is brought to the out of hours centre by...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old pub owner is brought to the out of hours centre by his wife. He has been unwell for the past few hours complaining of excruciating epigastric abdominal pain and vomiting.

      She tells you that he has an alcohol problem, and finishes off the bottles of beer by the glass each evening, sometimes drinking up to eight glasses and spirits each night before going to bed.

      He struggles onto the bed and you are immediately concerned. He is hypotensive with a BP of 90/60, and has a pulse of 95. He is pyrexial 37.8°C. He has severe epigastric pain on palpation of the abdomen and you notice purple discolouration of the left flank of the abdomen

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perforated duodenal ulcer

      Correct Answer: Cholecystitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Pancreatitis with Grey Turner’s Sign

      The image depicts a case of acute pancreatitis, which is characterized by severe pain in the upper abdomen, vomiting, low blood pressure, and rapid heartbeat. The purple discoloration on the patient’s flank is known as Grey Turner’s sign, which is believed to be caused by bleeding in the retroperitoneal area associated with pancreatitis. This condition requires immediate hospitalization and medical attention.

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  • Question 22 - A 10-year-old boy comes to you with a purpuric rash and symptoms and...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to you with a purpuric rash and symptoms and signs that strongly indicate Meningococcal meningitis. He has no known allergies.

      What immediate steps should you take?

      Your Answer: Give an injection of parenteral benzylpenicillin first then phone 999 for an ambulance

      Correct Answer: Give an injection of parenteral ampicillin after phoning 999 for an ambulance

      Explanation:

      Emergency Treatment in Primary Care

      Potentially life-threatening situations are rare in primary care, but prompt action by a vigilant GP can save lives. Both NICE/CKS and the BNF are reference sources for the AKT exam, and they recommend admitting the person to the hospital as an emergency by calling 999. Treatment should not delay transfer to the hospital, and a single dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin should be administered as soon as possible, provided that it doesn’t delay urgent transfer to the hospital.

      Emergency treatment is a crucial topic for the exam, and candidates have performed poorly in the past. It is essential to have benzylpenicillin, a suitable diluent, needles and syringes, and to be familiar with the correct doses for the age range. It is also crucial to ensure that the medicines in the emergency drug bag have not expired and to know who pays for them. More general GP admin and management issues appear to be a weak area for Registrars. If you are unsure about any of the questions posed, ask your trainer who pays for emergency drugs and whether the cost can be claimed back.

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  • Question 23 - A 22-year-old female presents with shortness of breath. She is known to suffer...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female presents with shortness of breath. She is known to suffer from asthma and her usual best PEFR is 410 L/min.

      Which of the following features would suggest that this is a severe asthma attack?

      Your Answer: PEFR 200 L/min

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Identifying Acute Severe and Life-Threatening Asthma

      Guidelines from the British Thoracic Society suggest that certain symptoms may indicate acute severe asthma, including an inability to complete sentences, a tachycardia above 110 bpm, a respiratory rate above 25/minute, and a PEFR of 33-50% of the predicted value. It is important to note that the threshold for pulse is higher than expected at 110 bpm.

      In contrast, life-threatening asthma is characterized by more severe symptoms such as a silent chest, bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoxia. These symptoms require immediate medical attention and intervention to prevent further complications. By recognizing the signs of acute severe and life-threatening asthma, individuals can seek appropriate medical care and potentially prevent serious health consequences.

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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and ascites.

    On examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and ascites.

      On examination, he is hypotensive, has an elevated JVP which rises on inspiration, (Kussmaul's sign) and has a 'knock' on auscultation of the heart.

      Past history of note includes TB which was treated with aggressive quadruple therapy some three years ago.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pericardial effusion

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Paradoxical JVP Rise in Pericardial Effusion

      Pericardial effusion, which may be infective as a result of previous tuberculosis, can cause a paradoxical rise in the jugular venous pressure (JVP) during inspiration. This is in contrast to the typical fall in JVP seen with inspiration. Treatment for pericardial effusion depends on the underlying cause, with an echocardiogram being the crucial initial investigation. If the effusion is particularly large and causing haemodynamic compromise, it may need to be tapped. Additionally, re-treatment with anti-tuberculous therapy is necessary. Proper diagnosis and management of pericardial effusion are essential to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 25 - A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. She is an only child...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. She is an only child and lives at home with her mother. Her mother has a history of epilepsy treated with valproate.
      What prophylaxis should be given to the mother?

      Your Answer: Ofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Antibiotic for Epilepsy Patients

      When it comes to choosing an antibiotic for patients with epilepsy, it’s important to consider the history of epilepsy. Rifampicin is the best option in this case, although it may reduce the effectiveness of other medications like phenytoin. Ofloxacin is an alternative, but it’s not recommended for patients with epilepsy. Ciprofloxacin is generally preferred for chemoprophylaxis, but it’s contraindicated for patients with epilepsy or conditions that increase the risk of seizures. However, in patients being treated with phenytoin, the benefits may outweigh the risks. It’s crucial to carefully consider the patient’s medical history and medication regimen before selecting an appropriate antibiotic.

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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old man presented after several days of high fever and headache, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presented after several days of high fever and headache, which began to resolve. He presents now with jaundice on returning from a holiday in Spain. As part of a group of 20 he had visited hillside forests and went fishing in mountain streams. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for his illness?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae

      Explanation:

      Leptospirosis, also known as Weil’s disease, is a bacterial infection that can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals, including rodents, skunks, foxes, cattle, and dogs. Rat urine and faeces are common sources of transmission. Due to its varied symptoms, leptospirosis can be easily missed, making thorough history taking essential for diagnosis.

      Symptoms of leptospirosis include fever, headache, myalgia, oliguria, jaundice, and enlargement of the liver and spleen. In some cases, patients may also experience haemorrhagic tendencies with purpura or petechiae. It is important to note that not all infected individuals will exhibit all of these symptoms.

      Weil’s disease is a particular concern for those who participate in water sports, as the bacteria can survive in fresh and saltwater. In the UK, there are approximately 40 cases of leptospirosis reported each year, with the majority of cases occurring between June and October. Awareness of the potential for leptospirosis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 27 - A 62-year-old woman with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and wheezing over the past few hours. She has a history of asthma but has not been consistent with her medication. During previous consultations, her best peak flow measurements were recorded at 300 L/min. What is the identifying characteristic of acute severe asthma in this patient?

      Your Answer: Peak flow rate 200 L/min

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >20/min

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.

      Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of best or predicted, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. The goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 at 94-98%.

      It is important to note that increasing symptoms is a vague description that only indicates a moderate asthma exacerbation and is not a marker of an acute severe attack. The only indicator of an acute severe asthma attack in this case is the patient’s inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.

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  • Question 28 - Whilst doing morning housecalls, you are phoned to visit the home of a...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst doing morning housecalls, you are phoned to visit the home of a 47-year-old man who is known to suffer from benign paroxysmal vertigo. The visit was requested by a relative on the basis of his ongoing dizziness but upon arrival, it becomes clear that he has sustained a head injury.

      Whilst fixing a shelf in his garage, he became dizzy and fell to the ground.

      Which of the following symptoms require immediate referral to the emergency ambulance services (i.e. 999) for emergency transportation to the emergency department?

      Your Answer: Bleeding from one or both ears

      Correct Answer: Bleeding from the nose

      Explanation:

      NICE’s Guidance on Head Injury Management

      A base of open or depressed skull fracture or penetrating head injury requires immediate referral to the emergency ambulance (999) service. Signs of a skull fracture that warrant referral to the emergency ambulance service include clear fluid running from the ears or nose, black eye with no associated damage around the eyes, bleeding from one or both ears, and bruising behind one or both ears.

      On the other hand, a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver is simply consistent with benign positional paroxysmal vertigo. It is important to follow NICE’s guidance on head injury management to ensure prompt and appropriate care for patients with head injuries. Proper identification and referral of patients with skull fractures can prevent further complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 29 - You see a 65-year-old man with known peripheral vascular disease on a home...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old man with known peripheral vascular disease on a home visit. He has been complaining of worsening pain in his left leg and since this morning has been in pain all the time.

      On examination his left leg appears pale and feels cold to touch. You think you can perhaps feel a peripheral pulse but are unable to count the rate.

      What should be your next action?

      Your Answer: Arrange urgent referral to vascular surgeons

      Correct Answer: Arrange routine referral to vascular surgeons

      Explanation:

      Acute Limb Ischaemia: Urgent Treatment Required

      Patients experiencing acute limb ischaemia require immediate medical attention to potentially save their limb. This condition is characterized by several features, including pain, pallor, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and perishingly cold skin. Pain is always present, and the ankle pulses are always absent. A useful rule of thumb is that if you can count the pulse, it’s there, but if not, it probably isn’t. Paraesthesia and paralysis are late, limb-threatening signs that require urgent treatment. Therefore, patients with acute limb ischaemia should be admitted as an emergency to receive potentially limb-saving treatment.

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  • Question 30 - For which of the following should an urgent referral to the urology services...

    Incorrect

    • For which of the following should an urgent referral to the urology services be made?

      Your Answer: A 61-year-old female with dysuria who on urine testing is found to have haematuria only

      Correct Answer: A 38-year-old male who on insurance medical examination is found to have + haematuria on urinalysis

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Urgent Referral to Urology

      There are specific criteria for urgent referral to urology that are based on the potential risk of underlying carcinoma. These criteria include macroscopic haematuria, microscopic haematuria in subjects over 60 who have either dysuria or a raised WBC count in blood, swellings of the body of the testis, palpable renal mass, solid renal mass found on imaging, an elevated age-specific prostate-specific antigen (PSA), and a clinically suspicious penile lesion.

      It is important to familiarize oneself with the current indications for urgent referral. It is worth noting that patients over 60 years old may require more urgent attention, as indicated by the criteria for microscopic haematuria. By being aware of these criteria, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive timely and appropriate care.

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  • Question 31 - What is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilations for adult cardiopulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilations for adult cardiopulmonary arrest for a rescuer working alone, according to the Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines?

      Your Answer: 30:02:00

      Correct Answer: 15:01

      Explanation:

      CPR Guidelines for Adults

      For adults, the recommended CPR technique involves a chest compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2. It is important to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines provided by the Resuscitation Council (UK) as they offer useful and clearly presented algorithms. Familiarizing yourself with the latest information is crucial as the management of acute emergencies in the primary care setting is a popular subject for MRCGP AKT examination questions. You will be expected to be competent at carrying out the latest guidance, so make sure to read and understand the most recent guidelines.

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  • Question 32 - A 20-year-old man presents with headache and chills, accompanied by a persistent dry...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man presents with headache and chills, accompanied by a persistent dry cough. The cough has been present for some weeks. He is off his food and feels very lethargic. Temperature is 37.8°C and he has a rash consistent with erythema multiforme.

      Respiratory examination reveals scattered wheeze throughout both lung fields.

      Investigations show:

      Haemoglobin 119 g/L (135-180)

      White cell count 10.1 ×109/L (4-10)

      Platelets 189 ×109/L (150-400)

      Sodium 139 mmol/L (134-143)

      Potassium 4.5 mmol/L (3.5-5)

      Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-120)

      ESR 62 s (<10)

      CXR Left lower lobe consolidation

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma Infection: Diagnosis and Treatment

      The symptoms of a young man with a chronic course, less severe chest signs than x-ray appearance, and erythema multiforme suggest mycoplasma infection. However, culture of mycoplasma is difficult, so diagnosis is mainly done through serology and PCR. The incubation period is around three weeks, and the infection is more common in the first two decades of life, especially in summer and autumn. Macrolides like erythromycin or clarithromycin are the primary treatment, with doxycycline as an alternative. With appropriate antibiotics, full recovery without long-term sequelae is expected. For more information on mycoplasma pneumonia, refer to the BMJ Best Practice and Clinical Features and Management articles.

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  • Question 33 - A 25-year-old man presents to you urgently with a facial issue. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to you urgently with a facial issue. He has been feeling unwell for a few weeks since returning from a camping trip in Hampshire. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. He initially experienced a flu-like illness with painful widespread arthralgia. He also has a rash, which has gradually increased in size and now measures approximately 5 cm in diameter on his leg. You observe a central spot surrounded by clear skin ringed by an outer erythematous area. There is local lymphadenopathy. He reports that he blacked out earlier this week. He hoped to recover from the illness, but when he developed a facial problem, he became concerned and made an appointment to see you. During the cranial nerve examination, you discover an isolated lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy. You also perform an ECG due to the loss of consciousness history, which reveals first-degree heart block. What is the underlying cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Vasculitis

      Correct Answer: Viral infection

      Explanation:

      Lyme Disease: A Tick-Borne Infection

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted through tick bites. The disease was first described in Lyme, Connecticut, USA, and is also prevalent in areas such as the New Forest in Hampshire, UK. Not all patients remember being bitten, so a lack of tick bite history doesn’t rule out the disease.

      Symptoms of Lyme disease include lethargy, arthralgia, and cognitive impairment, as well as lymphadenopathy, myocarditis, meningitis, cranial nerve palsies, and neuropathy. The typical rash, erythema chronicum migrans, presents as a papule that develops into a large spreading annular lesion with central fading. This rash can last up to three months, and multiple lesions can develop.

      This patient has developed the typical rash and acute illness with a facial nerve palsy and evidence of myocarditis on the background of a trip to an area where infection is endemic. Serological diagnosis is needed to confirm infection, and treatment is with antibiotics active against the causative bacterium. Early treatment is essential, and treatment with antibiotics doesn’t preclude later testing. A common regime is several weeks’ treatment with doxycycline, provided treatment is started early.

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  • Question 34 - A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He has been experiencing increasing difficulty with swallowing and feels like food is getting stuck shortly after he swallows. He has resorted to blending most of his meals and has lost 4 kg in weight over the past two months. He has also developed a hoarse voice recently.
      The patient has a history of knee osteoarthritis and regularly takes ibuprofen. He has a BMI of 21 kg/m2 and no cervical lymphadenopathy is noted.
      Laboratory results show:
      - Hb 98 g/L (135-180)
      - WCC 7.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
      - PLT 182 ×109/L (150-450)
      - Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      - Cr 115 µmol/L (70-110)
      Based on these findings, you suspect an upper esophageal cancer.
      What is the most important next step?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to gastroenterologist

      Correct Answer: Trial of omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Upper GI Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Carcinoma

      This patient’s medical history is indicative of an oesophageal carcinoma in the upper third, which is commonly associated with smoking and exposure to human papillomavirus. Although there are no signs of cervical lymphadenopathy, urgent referral to a gastroenterologist for upper GI endoscopy is necessary to rule out any underlying cancer.

      Barium swallow is not recommended as upper GI endoscopy is a more effective option that allows for early tissue diagnosis. Helicobacter pylori testing is only useful in cases of potential duodenal ulcer disease, which is not the case here.

      Stopping ibuprofen and trying omeprazole are not appropriate options as they may delay the diagnosis of any underlying oesophageal lesion. Therefore, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy is the best course of action in suspected cases of oesophageal carcinoma.

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  • Question 35 - A 28-year-old patient visits your clinic seeking travel and immunisation advice for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient visits your clinic seeking travel and immunisation advice for an upcoming trip overseas. The patient has Addison's disease and takes hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone on a daily basis. She plans to bring extra medication with her and has been advised by her travel agent to obtain a letter from you confirming the need to carry injections. During the consultation, she asks what she should do if she experiences vomiting.

      What guidance would you provide?

      Your Answer: Use her emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone immediately, then call a doctor, saying Addison's emergency

      Correct Answer: Take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately

      Explanation:

      Sick Day Rules for Patients with Addison’s Disease

      Patients with Addison’s disease need to follow specific sick day rules to avoid catastrophic consequences. There are four scenarios that may be tested in the AKT exam: a patient with a temperature >37.5 degrees or treated with antibiotics, a patient who is vomiting, a patient with nausea, and a patient who has sustained major trauma and is at significant risk of shock.

      According to the Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel, patients must double their normal dose of hydrocortisone for a fever of more than 37.5 C or for infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics. For severe nausea, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally and sip rehydration/electrolyte fluids. On vomiting, patients should use the emergency injection (100 mg hydrocortisone) immediately and then call a doctor, saying Addison’s emergency. After a major injury, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately to avoid shock.

      It is essential to ensure that the anaesthetist and surgical team, dentist, or endoscopist are aware of the need for extra oral medication and that they have checked the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover, available at www.addisons.org.uk/publications. By following these sick day rules, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition effectively and avoid potential complications.

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  • Question 36 - A 12-year-old girl is brought to see you during an out-of-hours shift.
    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is brought to see you during an out-of-hours shift.
      She has a past history of asthma and usually takes salbutamol 100 mcg 2 puffs as required and beclomethasone 100 mcg twice a day. Her usual peak flow is 280. She has been on her current inhalers for over a year with no problems or flare-ups.Over the last two days she has become increasingly wheezy and this seems to have been triggered by an upper respiratory tract infection.
      On examination, she has a temperature of 37.5℃, and has a widespread polyphonic wheeze on auscultation of the chest. Her peak flow rate is measured at 190. Oxygen saturations are 97% in air. There is no respiratory distress.
      She receives six puffs of salbutamol via a spacer and following this feels much better, with a PEFR of 260. The child is monitored in the department for a further hour and remains stable with her chest sounding clear.
      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Add in a long-acting beta agonist to his regular treatment

      Correct Answer: Advise use of salbutamol two to four puffs 4 hourly until acute infection resolved

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma Exacerbation in Children

      This article discusses the appropriate management of acute asthma exacerbation in children. In cases where the exacerbation is caused by an upper respiratory tract infection, symptom control and short-term measures are crucial. Adding long-acting beta agonists or leukotriene receptor antagonists is not recommended during acute exacerbation.

      Hospital referral is not necessary if the child has no worrying features, no respiratory distress, and good oxygen saturations. However, advice on worsening should be given in case of relapse. Steroid treatment should be considered with any acute exacerbation, with oral prednisolone 1-2 mg/kg up to a maximum of 40 mg per day for three to five days.

      Doubling the inhaled beclomethasone is not the correct answer. Instead, regular use of salbutamol during the current illness should be advised to prevent relapse and improve symptoms acutely. Delivery through a spacer device should also be encouraged. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute asthma exacerbation in children.

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  • Question 37 - A 15-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis presents with abdominal pain. There is no...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis presents with abdominal pain. There is no associated nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Renal calculi

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome in Cystic Fibrosis Patients

      Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) is a common complication in 10-20% of cystic fibrosis patients, with incidence increasing as they age. It is caused by the loss of CFTR function in the intestine, leading to the accumulation of mucous and fecal material in the terminal ileum, caecum, and ascending colon. DIOS is usually diagnosed through a plain abdominal radiograph, which shows faecal loading in the right iliac fossa, dilatation of the ileum, and an empty distal colon. Ultrasound and CT scans can also be used to identify an obstruction mass and show dilated small bowel and proximal colon.

      Treatment for mild and moderate episodes of DIOS involves hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives. N-acetylcysteine can be used in moderate episodes to loosen and soften the plugs. Severe cases may require gastrograffin or Klean-Prep, and surgical review should be obtained if there are signs of peritoneal irritation or complete bowel obstruction. In resistant cases, phosphate or gastrograffin enemas can be used, or colonscopy with installation of gastrograffin.

      In summary, DIOS is a common complication in cystic fibrosis patients that can be diagnosed through radiographs, ultrasound, and CT scans. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the episode, but hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives are often used for mild and moderate cases. Severe cases may require more aggressive treatment and surgical review.

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  • Question 38 - You are asked to see a 4-month-old baby girl as an emergency.
    Her parents...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 4-month-old baby girl as an emergency.
      Her parents are increasingly concerned about her, she has a four day history of runny nose, and increasing difficulty in breathing, and has worsened over the past 24 hours.
      She was born at 35/40 weighing 2.2 kg and bottle feeds. There were no neonatal problems. She has received the first two routine immunisations. Both parents are heavy smokers.
      On examination she has a temperature of 38.3°C, with respiratory rate of 65/min and a heart rate of 150/min. She has nasal flaring, grunting and marked recession and scattered wheeze and crackles throughout both lung fields. You cannot hear any heart mumurs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Correct Answer: Virus-induced wheeze

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis: A Common Respiratory Infection in Infants

      Bronchiolitis is a respiratory infection that commonly affects infants, with symptoms ranging from mild upper respiratory tract infection to severe lower respiratory tract symptoms. The infection is typically caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), which leads to epidemics during the winter season. The severity of the infection is influenced by both baby and maternal factors.

      Baby factors that increase the risk of severe bronchiolitis include chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, immunodeficiency, and gastro-oesophageal reflux. On the other hand, maternal factors such as smoking and bottle feeding can also contribute to the severity of the infection. Breastfeeding, however, has been found to be partly protective against bronchiolitis.

      In summary, bronchiolitis is a common respiratory infection in infants that can range from mild to severe. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the risk factors that can increase the severity of the infection and take appropriate measures to prevent and manage it.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 39 - A 32-year-old woman develops chest pain after an argument with her 16-year-old daughter.

    She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman develops chest pain after an argument with her 16-year-old daughter.

      She is brought to the surgery where you are asked to see her. She is hyperventilating and looks very anxious. She is tender to light pressure on the front of her chest, but examination is otherwise unremarkable. Breathing room air, her oxygen saturation (finger probe) is 99%. Her ECG is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this woman?

      Your Answer: Check troponin and send with routine samples. Plan to repeat ECG in two hours. Explain that you think that there is probably nothing serious going on, but you want to make sure that she has not had a heart attack.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Panic Attack

      The ECG and pulse oximetry tests were normal, and the clinical context and examination findings all point to the diagnosis of a panic attack. It is appropriate to explain the diagnosis to the patient and provide reassurance.

      Psychological symptoms of an anxiety state include irritability, intolerance of noise, poor concentration/memory, fearfulness, apprehensiveness, restlessness, and continuous worrying thoughts. On the other hand, physical symptoms of an anxiety state include dry mouth, difficulty in swallowing, chest pain, shakiness, diarrhoea, urinary frequency, paraesthesiae, and hot flashes. Physical signs of an anxiety state include tenseness, sweating, shaking, pallor, restlessness, and sighing.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of a panic attack to provide appropriate care and support to the patient.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 40 - Each of the following is a characteristic of organophosphate poisoning, except for which...

    Correct

    • Each of the following is a characteristic of organophosphate poisoning, except for which one?

      Your Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.

      The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Urgent And Unscheduled Care (10/40) 25%
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