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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He reports one day of pain in his right loin spreading round into the groin. The pain comes in waves and he says it is the worst pain he has ever experienced. The ED doctor suspects a diagnosis of renal colic.
      What investigation finding would be the most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Microscopic haematuria

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Urine and Blood Tests for Renal Colic

      Renal colic is a common condition that can cause severe pain in the back and abdomen. When evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, several tests may be ordered to help diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting urine and blood tests for renal colic:

      – Microscopic haematuria with normal nitrites and leukocytes is a common finding in patients with renal colic and/or stones. This suggests that there is blood in the urine, but no signs of infection.
      – Positive leukocytes or nitrites on a urine dipstick would be suggestive of a urinary tract infection and would not be consistent with a diagnosis of renal stones.
      – A raised serum creatinine can occur with severe renal stones where there is urethral obstruction and subsequent hydronephrosis. This would be a urological emergency and the patient would likely require urgent stenting to allow passage of urine.
      – A raised serum white cell count would be more consistent with an infection as the cause of the patient’s pain, making this a less appropriate answer.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, it is important to consider the results of urine and blood tests in conjunction with other clinical findings to make an accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      12.2
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  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with severe scrotal pain that...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with severe scrotal pain that has been ongoing for the past 3 hours. During the examination, he is visibly distressed and his scrotum appears red and tender. He cries out in agony when you try to touch or lift his left testicle. The right testicle appears normal. What test should you perform next?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Testicular Torsion: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis

      Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. It is characterized by excruciating pain and tenderness in one testicle, which worsens when the testicle is raised. This condition typically affects young teenagers and is caused by an anatomical variant that allows the spermatic cord to wind around itself and cut off blood flow to the testicle. If left untreated for more than 4-6 hours, testicular necrosis can occur.

      While orchitis and epididymitis can also cause testicular pain, they are much milder and can be differentiated from testicular torsion by the response to raising the testicle. MRI and X-ray are not helpful in diagnosing this condition, and ultrasound should not delay surgical intervention. Routine blood tests, such as CRP and WCC, may be performed, but surgery should not be delayed while awaiting results.

      In summary, testicular torsion is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and surgical intervention to prevent testicular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 63-year-old man reported experiencing trouble initiating and ending urination. He had no...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man reported experiencing trouble initiating and ending urination. He had no prior history of urinary issues. The physician used a gloved index finger to examine the patient's prostate gland, most likely by palpating it through the wall of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Rectum

      Explanation:

      Anatomy and Digital Rectal Examination of the Prostate Gland

      The prostate gland is commonly examined through a digital rectal examination, where a gloved index finger is inserted through the anus until it reaches the rectum. The anterior wall of the rectum is then palpated to examine the size and shape of the prostate gland, which lies deep to it. The sigmoid colon, which is proximal to the recto-sigmoid junction, cannot be palpated through this method and requires a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. The urinary bladder sits superior to the prostate and is surrounded by a prostatic capsule. The anus, which is the most distal part of the gastrointestinal tract, does not allow palpation of the prostate gland. The caecum, which is an outpouching of the ascending colon, is anatomically distant from the prostate gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      7.8
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  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old boy undergoes a biopsy for a painless testicular tumour. Microscopy reveals...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy undergoes a biopsy for a painless testicular tumour. Microscopy reveals tissue that resembles glomeruli. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Yolk cell tumour

      Explanation:

      Types of Testicular Tumours and Their Characteristics

      Testicular tumours can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. The following are some of the common types of testicular tumours and their distinguishing features:

      1. Yolk Sac Tumour: This is the most common type of testicular tumour in children under the age of 4. It is a mucinous tumour that contains Schiller-Duval bodies, which resemble primitive glomeruli. Alpha fetoprotein is secreted by these tumours.

      2. Embryonal Carcinoma: This type of tumour typically occurs in the third decade of life. On microscopy, glands or papules are seen.

      3. Leydig Cell Tumour: This is a benign tumour that can cause precocious puberty or gynaecomastia. Reinke crystals are noted on histology.

      4. Seminoma: Seminoma is the most common testicular tumour, usually occurring between the ages of 15 and 35. Its features include large cells with a fluid-filled cytoplasm that stain CD117 positive.

      5. Choriocarcinoma: This tumour secretes β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Due to the similarity between thyroid-stimulating hormone and β-HCG, symptoms of hyperthyroidism may develop. Histology of these tumours shows cells that resemble cytotrophoblasts or syncytiotrophoblastic tissue.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of testicular tumours and their characteristics can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      7.5
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain which...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain which started about six hours ago. She claims the pain is in the lower abdomen and has been worsening gradually. She has not been able to pass urine since before the pain started.
      Upon examination, vital signs are stable and suprapubic tenderness is present. There is no rebound tenderness, and the examining doctor does not find any signs of peritonitis. In addition, the doctor finds a large solid abdominal mass in the right lower quadrant. The patient said this mass had been there for a few years and has made it difficult to get pregnant. The patient also claims that she has heavy periods. She is due to have an operation for it in two months. A serum pregnancy test is negative.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis requiring immediate treatment and admission?

      Your Answer: Acute urinary retention

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Acute Urinary Retention and an Abdominal Mass

      During this admission, the patient presents with symptoms consistent with acute urinary retention, including sudden onset of symptoms and suprapubic tenderness. The presence of an abdominal mass suggests a possible gynecological cause, such as a uterine fibroid. However, it is important to note that if cancer is suspected, the patient would be referred for investigation under the 2-week cancer protocol, but the acute admission is required for urinary retention and catheterization.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as ovarian cyst, appendicitis, and caecal tumor, are less likely based on the patient’s symptoms and presentation. While a uterine fibroid may be a contributing factor to the urinary retention, it is not the primary reason for the admission. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      18.4
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man presents with a left-sided, painless testicular lump. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a left-sided, painless testicular lump. He has a history of orchidopexy for an undescended testicle.
      On examination, there is a firm lump lying in the body of the left testicle. His body mass index is 27. There are a few left-sided inguinal lymph nodes palpable. You suspect testicular cancer.
      Which of the following findings on history and examination makes this provisional diagnosis more likely?

      Your Answer: History of orchidopexy for an undescended testicle

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk Factors and Symptoms of Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a serious condition that can have life-altering consequences if not detected and treated early. One of the main risk factors for this type of cancer is a history of undescended testes, which increases the risk significantly. Additionally, men with a high body mass index may have a lower risk of developing testicular cancer.

      It’s important to note that the presence or absence of tenderness in the testicles does not necessarily indicate the presence of cancer. However, any man who notices a lump or mass in the body of the testicle should seek urgent medical attention to rule out the possibility of cancer.

      In terms of metastasis, testicular cancer commonly spreads to the para-aortic lymph nodes rather than the inguinal nodes. By understanding these risk factors and symptoms, men can take proactive steps to protect their health and detect any potential issues early on.

      Understanding the Risk Factors and Symptoms of Testicular Cancer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      24.8
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man presents with a right inguinal mass. Upon examination, the left...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a right inguinal mass. Upon examination, the left testis is found to be normal in size and position, but the right testis cannot be palpated in the scrotum. An ultrasound confirms that the inguinal mass is a cryptorchid testis.
      What is the best course of action for addressing this patient's testicular anomaly?

      Your Answer: Remove it (orchidectomy)

      Explanation:

      Options for Managing Cryptorchidism

      Cryptorchidism, or undescended testis, is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. Here are some options for managing this condition:

      1. Orchidectomy: This involves removing the undescended testis, which eliminates the risk of developing seminoma. If the patient is 30 years old or older, the undescended testis is unlikely to be capable of spermatogenesis, so removal should not affect fertility.

      2. Bilateral orchidectomy: This involves removing both testes, but it is not necessary if only one testis is undescended. The opposite testis is not affected by the undescended testis and should be left intact.

      3. Orchidopexy: This is a surgical procedure to place the undescended testis in the scrotum. It is most effective when done before the age of 2, but it does not reduce the risk of developing testicular cancer.

      4. Testosterone therapy: This is not necessary for patients with cryptorchidism, as the Leydig cells in the testicular interstitium continue to produce testosterone.

      5. Chromosome analysis: This is indicated if there is a suspicion of a chromosomal defect, such as testicular feminisation or Klinefelter syndrome.

      In summary, the management of cryptorchidism depends on the individual case and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      11.3
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old patient is referred to the Outpatient Clinic with raised prostate-specific antigen...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient is referred to the Outpatient Clinic with raised prostate-specific antigen (PSA), but a normal prostate on physical examination. He is later diagnosed with prostate cancer on biopsy.
      What is the most common area of the prostate where this disease develops?

      Your Answer: The peripheral zone

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Prostate Gland and its Relation to Prostate Cancer

      The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located in the male reproductive system. It is divided into several zones, each with its own unique characteristics and potential for developing prostate cancer.

      The peripheral zone is the most common site for developing prostate carcinomas. It extends around the gland from the apex to the base and is located posterolaterally.

      The central zone surrounds the ejaculatory duct apparatus and makes up the majority of the prostatic base.

      The transition zone constitutes two small lobules that abut the prostatic urethra and is where benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) tends to originate. Carcinomas that originate in the transition zone have been suggested to be of lower malignant potential compared to those in the peripheral zone.

      The anterior fibromuscular stroma is the most anterior portion of the gland and is formed by muscle cells intermingled with dense connective tissue. The chance of malignancy occurring in this area is low, but asymmetrical hypertrophy of the anterior fibromuscular stroma can mimic the presence of prostate cancer.

      The posterior capsule is made of connective tissue and is usually not the primary origin of prostate cancer. The cancer usually arises in the peripheral zone and may then extend through the capsule as it progresses.

      Understanding the anatomy of the prostate gland and its relation to prostate cancer can aid in early detection and treatment. Regular prostate exams and screenings are important for maintaining prostate health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      8.8
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  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old man presents with blood in his ejaculate. He reports no lower...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with blood in his ejaculate. He reports no lower urinary tract symptoms and no abdominal pain and is generally healthy. He has been in a long-term monogamous relationship and denies any history of trauma. Examination of his scrotum and penis is unremarkable, and his prostate is normal and non-tender upon digital rectal examination. Urinalysis results are within normal limits, and there is no family history of cancer.
      What is the most appropriate next step, in addition to obtaining a urine sample for microscopy, culture, and sensitivities?

      Your Answer: Reassure him that this symptom is not a sign of anything serious but ask him to return if he has >3 episodes or the problem persists for over a month

      Explanation:

      Haematospermia, or blood in semen, is usually not a cause for concern in men under 40 years old. The most common causes are trauma, urinary tract infection (especially prostatitis), and sexually transmitted infection. However, it is important to rule out cancer through appropriate physical examination. If the symptom persists for over a month or there are more than three episodes, referral is recommended, especially for men over 40 years old. While reassurance is appropriate, patients should be encouraged to seek medical attention if the problem persists. Antibiotics may be prescribed if a urinary tract infection is suspected, but this is unlikely in cases with normal urinalysis. Urgent referral is necessary for men with signs and symptoms suggestive of prostate or urological malignancies, or if the underlying cause of haematospermia may be cysts or calculi of the prostate or seminal vesicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      24.6
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  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old man discovered a painless enlargement of his left testicle during his...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man discovered a painless enlargement of his left testicle during his shower. He is sexually active, but he reports no recent sexual encounters. What would be the most suitable serological test to assist in diagnosing his condition?

      Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein (aFP)

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers: Common Biomarkers for Cancer Diagnosis

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. These biomarkers can be used to aid in the diagnosis and management of cancer. Here are some common tumor markers and their associated cancers:

      – Alpha-fetoprotein (aFP): Elevated levels of aFP may indicate non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis, but biopsy is necessary for definitive diagnosis.
      – Calcitonin: Produced by medullary carcinomas of the thyroid, calcitonin opposes the action of parathyroid hormone.
      – Parathyroid-related peptide (PTHrP): Produced in squamous cell carcinoma of the lung, PTHrP can cause a paraneoplastic syndrome.
      – Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Elevated in cancers of the stomach, lung, pancreas, and colon, and sometimes in yolk sac tumors.
      – CA-125: Elevated in ovarian cancer, but can also be elevated in benign conditions such as endometriosis, uterine fibroids, and ovarian cysts.

      While tumor markers can provide clues to the diagnosis of cancer, biopsy is necessary for definitive diagnosis. It is important to note that elevated levels of these biomarkers do not always indicate cancer and can be caused by other conditions. Consultation with a healthcare provider is necessary for proper interpretation of tumor marker results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      8.8
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of sudden-onset pain in his left scrotum that makes walking difficult. On examination, his left testicle is firm and diffusely tender.
      What is the most urgent management option?

      Your Answer: Scrotal exploration

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Testicular Torsion

      Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. One of the main differential diagnoses to consider in a patient with scrotal pain is testicular torsion. If there is a high suspicion of torsion, emergency exploration surgery should not be delayed by investigations.

      During scrotal exploration, the affected testicle is inspected for viability. If viable, detorsion and orchidopexy are performed. However, if the testicle is non-viable, it must be removed. The salvage rate for detorsion within 6 hours of symptom onset is >95%, but this drops to <10% after 24 hours. While antibiotics and analgesia are appropriate for epididymo-orchitis, ruling out testicular torsion is the priority. Urinalysis may be helpful in borderline cases, but an abnormal result does not exclude testicular torsion. Doppler ultrasound scan of the testes may also be useful, but if there is a high suspicion of torsion, scrotal exploration must not be delayed by investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      23.6
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  • Question 12 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP clinic, reporting discomfort in his scrotum. During...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP clinic, reporting discomfort in his scrotum. During the examination, the doctor notices an abnormality on the right side of the scrotum that feels like a bag of worms. The patient mentions that this has only been present for the past two months and there is no change in the examination when he lies down. What is the recommended next step?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of the kidneys, ureters and bladder

      Explanation:

      Medical Imaging Recommendations for Suspected Left Renal Malignancy

      Introduction:
      When a patient presents with a left-sided varicocele, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying left renal malignancy. In this scenario, we will discuss the appropriate medical imaging recommendations for this suspected condition.

      Ultrasound of the Kidneys, Ureters, and Bladder:
      A varicocele is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus of the spermatic cord, which is dependent on the spermatic vein. In some cases, a left-sided varicocele can be associated with a left renal malignancy. This occurs when a large left renal tumor compresses or invades the left renal vein, causing an obstruction to venous return and resulting in a varicocele. Therefore, an ultrasound of the kidneys is recommended to assess for any potential malignancy.

      Ultrasound of the Liver:
      In this scenario, an ultrasound of the kidneys would be more useful than an ultrasound of the liver, as renal malignancy is suspected.

      Ultrasound of the Left Groin:
      Signs and symptoms of an inguinal hernia include a bulge in the area on either side of the pubic bone, which becomes more obvious when the patient is upright, especially when coughing or straining. However, there are no signs of hernias on clinical examination in this case.

      Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of the Whole Spine:
      MRI of the whole spine is recommended in cases of potential cord compression. However, this is not clinically suspected in this scenario.

      Reassure:
      If a left-sided varicocele does not drain when lying supine, it should be referred for ultrasound to rule out underlying malignancy. The new onset of the varicocele makes this more likely and therefore should be further investigated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      13.3
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain in his left testicle that has been gradually increasing over the past 72 hours. He appears to be in discomfort but is able to walk. Upon examination, his left testicle is tender to firm palpation. His vital signs are normal, and there is no redness or swelling. His abdominal examination is unremarkable. He reports dysuria and has recently started a new sexual relationship.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Treat with ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscular (im) plus doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 10–14 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Epididymo-orchitis: Choosing the Right Antibiotics

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition that causes inflammation of the epididymis and testicles. It is most commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections such as Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. When treating this condition, it is important to choose the right antibiotics based on the suspected causative organism.

      In the case of a sexually transmitted infection, ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscular (im) plus doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 10–14 days is the recommended treatment. However, if an enteric organism is suspected, ciprofloxacin may be preferred.

      It is important to note that pain relief alone is not sufficient and empirical treatment with antibiotics is advised. Additionally, immediate involvement of a urologist is necessary to rule out testicular torsion.

      While hospital admission and intravenous antibiotics may be necessary in severe cases, stable patients with epididymo-orchitis do not require this level of intervention. By choosing the appropriate antibiotics and involving a urologist when necessary, patients can receive effective treatment for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      21
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease comes in for evaluation...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease comes in for evaluation due to left flank pain indicative of renal colic. During the physical examination, a significant midline abdominal scar is observed, which is consistent with a previous small bowel resection. An abdominal X-ray without contrast shows several kidney stones.
      What kind of kidney stones are most likely present in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Calcium oxalate stones

      Explanation:

      Types of Kidney Stones and Their Causes

      Kidney stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause severe pain when they pass through the urinary tract. There are different types of kidney stones, each with their own causes and treatment options.

      Calcium Oxalate Stones
      Increased urinary oxalate can be genetic, idiopathic, or enteric. Calcium citrate supplementation is the preferred therapy to reduce stone formation. Pain relief and infection prevention are important during the acute period of renal colic. Lithotripsy can be used to break up larger stones.

      Uric Acid Stones
      Uric acid stones are not visible on X-rays.

      Cystine Stones
      Cystine stones are also not visible on X-rays.

      Calcium Carbonate Stones
      These stones are linked to high levels of calcium in the body, either from diet or conditions like hyperparathyroidism.

      Magnesium Carbonate Stones
      Also known as struvite stones, these are made from magnesium, ammonia, and phosphate and are associated with urinary tract infections.

      Understanding the different types of kidney stones and their causes can help with prevention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      21.7
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  • Question 15 - A 15-year-old presents with a tender, pea-sized lump in the upper pole of...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old presents with a tender, pea-sized lump in the upper pole of his left testis. He says it has developed gradually over the last 24 hours. His mum states that his grandfather died of testicular cancer at just 45 years of age. Other than pain from the lump, he says he feels generally well in himself. On examination, the lump does not transilluminate and feels regular. There is no associated oedema or erythema.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion of the testicular appendage

      Explanation:

      Common Testicular Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Testicular conditions can cause discomfort and pain in men. Here are some common conditions and their characteristics:

      1. Torsion of the Testicular Appendage: This condition develops over 24 hours and results in a tender, pea-sized nodule in the upper pole of the testis. Oedema and associated symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting, are rare. An ultrasound scan (USS) is done to ensure that the man is not suffering from torsion. Surgical intervention is only necessary if there is a lot of pain.

      2. Testicular Torsion: This condition is characterised by sudden-onset, severe pain. On examination, the cremasteric reflex will be absent, and there may be associated scrotal oedema. Patients often suffer from nausea and vomiting. It requires surgical exploration within 6 hours.

      3. Varicocele: Although a varicocele is most common in teenagers and young men, it rarely causes pain. Characteristically, it feels like a ‘bag of worms’ and may cause mild discomfort.

      4. Testicular Teratoma: This condition typically presents as a firm, tethered irregular mass, which increases in size gradually, rather than appearing over 24 hours. It is the more common testicular malignancy in the 20- to 30-year-old age group.

      5. Epididymal Cyst: An epididymal cyst is more common in older men, typically in the 40- to 50-year old age group. The cyst transilluminates and is palpable separately from the testis.

      Knowing the characteristics of these common testicular conditions can help men identify and seek treatment for any discomfort or pain they may experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      21
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  • Question 16 - A male toddler, on physical examination at the age of 2, is noticed...

    Correct

    • A male toddler, on physical examination at the age of 2, is noticed to have an abnormal opening of the urethra on to the ventral surface of the penis.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypospadias

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Penile Deformities and Conditions

      Hypospadias, Cryptorchidism, Exstrophy, Epispadias, and Phimosis are all congenital penile deformities and conditions that affect newborn boys. Hypospadias is the most common, occurring in about 1 in every 150-300 boys. It is characterized by an abnormal opening of the urethral meatus on the ventral surface of the penis, ventral curvature of the penis, and a hooded foreskin. Cryptorchidism, on the other hand, is the failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac and is seen in 3% of all full-term newborn boys. Exstrophy is a rare condition where the bladder protrudes through a defect in the lower abdominal wall. Epispadias is defined as an abnormal opening of the urethra on the dorsal aspect of the penis, while Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans of the penis. These conditions may have genetic components and can lead to complications such as infection, urinary tract obstruction, and other associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      5.2
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man presents with a gradual reduction in urine flow. His prostate-specific...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a gradual reduction in urine flow. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is found to be 14.3 ng/ml (normal PSA level: 2.5-4.0 ng/mL).
      What is the most important investigation required?

      Your Answer: Multi-parametic MRI

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that are commonly used to detect prostate cancer:

      1. Multi-parametric MRI: This scan is recommended for individuals with a risk of prostate cancer. It can help to locate the site of biopsy and avoid unnecessary procedures.

      2. Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen: This scan can give an indication of the size of the prostate gland, but it cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.

      3. Radioisotope bone scan: This scan can reveal the presence of bony metastases that are common in prostate cancer, but it cannot give a definite diagnosis.

      4. Flexible cystoscopy: This examination can detect any abnormalities of the prostate or bladder and urethra, but a biopsy is still required for a definite diagnosis.

      5. Ultrasound scan of the renal tract: This scan can also give an indication of the size of the prostate gland, but it cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.

      In conclusion, a combination of these tests may be used to diagnose prostate cancer, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      12.7
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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old man presents to his Emergency Department complaining of blood in his...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his Emergency Department complaining of blood in his urine. He reports that this has been happening over the past three days. He denies any pain or fever.
      Physical examination revealed bilateral wheezes but is otherwise unremarkable. He does not have any problem passing urine. He has always lived in the UK and has not travelled anywhere outside the country recently. The patient is retired but used to work in a textile factory where he was responsible for working in the dye plants producing different coloured fabric. He has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and hypertension. He takes losartan for his hypertension and a budesonide and formoterol combination inhaler for his COPD. The man is an ex-smoker with a 30 pack-year smoking history.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bladder cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Painless Haematuria: Bladder Cancer vs. Other Possibilities

      When a patient presents with painless haematuria, bladder cancer should be highly suspected until proven otherwise. While other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, can cause haematuria, a strong history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes increase the likelihood of bladder cancer.

      Prostate cancer is unlikely to present with haematuria and is more likely to be associated with lower urinary tract symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia would present with signs of lower urinary tract obstruction, which this patient does not have. Nephrolithiasis can cause haematuria, but the absence of pain makes it less likely. Renal cancer may also present with haematuria, but it is more likely to be associated with loin or abdominal pain, weight loss, anaemia, and fatigue.

      In summary, when a patient presents with painless haematuria and a history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes, bladder cancer should be the primary concern. Other possibilities should be considered, but they are less likely based on the absence of additional symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      17
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden and severe pain in...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden and severe pain in his groin while playing basketball. He has no significant medical history and denies any trauma to the area. During the exam, he experiences persistent pain in his right testicle when it is raised. An ultrasound with Doppler reveals reduced blood flow in the right testicle. Which artery is most likely occluded in this patient?

      Your Answer: Directly from the aorta

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Arteries Involved in Testicular Torsion

      Testicular torsion is a condition that causes extreme pain in the groin due to the rotation of the testicle within the scrotum, which occludes flow through the testicular artery. This condition is common in male teenagers during exercise and requires immediate medical attention. In this article, we will discuss the arteries involved in testicular torsion and their functions.

      The testicular artery (both left and right) arises from the aorta at the level of L2. Torsion can be diagnosed through colour Doppler ultrasound of the testicle, which shows decreased blood flow. Surgery is required within 6 hours of onset of symptoms to re-establish blood flow and prevent recurrent torsion (orchidopexy). If >6 hours elapse, there is an increased risk for permanent ischaemic damage.

      The right and left renal arteries provide branches to the adrenal gland, not the testicles. Both the left and right renal arteries arise from the aorta at the level of L1/2. The internal iliac artery gives off branches to the perineum, but not the testicles. The internal iliac artery branches from the common iliac artery at the level of L5/S1. The external iliac artery gives off the inferior epigastric artery and becomes the femoral artery when it crosses deep to the inguinal ligament. The external iliac artery bifurcates from the common iliac artery at the level of L5/S1.

      In conclusion, understanding the arteries involved in testicular torsion is crucial for timely diagnosis and treatment. The testicular artery arising from the aorta at the level of L2 is the primary artery involved in this condition, and surgery within 6 hours of onset of symptoms is necessary to prevent permanent damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history of nausea, frank haematuria and sharp, persistent left-sided flank pain, radiating from the loin to the groin. On examination, he has left renal angle tenderness.
      Urine dip shows:
      frank haematuria
      blood 2+
      protein 2+.
      He has a history of hypertension, appendicitis 10 years ago and gout. You order a non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) for the kidney–ureter–bladder (KUB), which shows a 2.2 cm calculus in the proximal left (LT) ureter.
      Which of the following is the definitive treatment for this patient’s stone?

      Your Answer: Percutaneous ureterolithotomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Large Kidney Stones

      Large kidney stones, typically those over 2 cm in diameter, require surgical intervention as they are unlikely to pass spontaneously. Here are some treatment options for such stones:

      1. Percutaneous Ureterolithotomy/Nephrolithotomy: This procedure involves using a nephroscope to remove or break down the stone into smaller pieces before removal. It is highly effective for stones between 21 and 30 mm in diameter and is indicated for staghorn calculi, cystine stones, or when ESWL is not suitable.

      2. Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL): This option uses ultrasound shock waves to break up stones into smaller fragments, which can be passed spontaneously in the urine. It is appropriate for stones up to 2 cm in diameter that fail to pass spontaneously.

      3. Medical Expulsive Therapy: In some cases, calcium channel blockers or a blockers may be used to help pass the stone. A corticosteroid may also be added. However, this option is not suitable for stones causing severe symptoms.

      It is important to note that admission and treatment with diclofenac, antiemetic, and rehydration therapy is only the initial management for an acute presentation and that sending the patient home with paracetamol and advice to drink water is only appropriate for small stones. Open surgery is rarely used and is reserved for complicated cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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