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Question 1
Correct
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A patient who is known to be a cocaine user is discovered collapsed in the waiting area. He is blue around the lips, has a pulse of 60 / min, and is taking only occasional breaths. Oxygen is administered. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer: Intravenous naloxone
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s respiratory depression is a heroin overdose.
Understanding Opioid Misuse and Management
Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including both natural and synthetic opioids. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning. Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death.
In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C can also be helpful.
Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is recovering on the ward after experiencing a subarachnoid haemorrhage 6 days ago. She has been able to maintain her oral fluid intake above 3 litres per day and her heart rate is 72 bpm at rest, while her blood pressure is 146/88 mmHg at rest. Over the last 6 days, her fluid balance shows that she is net positive 650 ml. Her daily blood tests reveal the following results:
- Hb 134 g/l
- Platelets 253 * 109/l
- WBC 5.1 * 109/l
- Neuts 3.9 * 109/l
- Lymphs 1.2 * 109/l
- Na+ 129 mmol/l
- K+ 4.1 mmol/l
- Urea 2.3 mmol/l
- Creatinine 49 µmol/l
- CRP 12.3 mg/l
Paired serum and urine samples show the following:
- Serum Osmolality 263 mosm/l
- Urine Osmolality 599 mosm/l
- Serum Na+ 129 mmol/l
- Urine Na+ 63 mmol/l
What is the most likely reason for the patient's hyponatraemia?Your Answer: Iatrogenic fluid overload
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Subarachnoid haemorrhage often leads to SIADH.
To determine the cause of the low sodium levels, the paired serum and urine samples and fluid status must be examined. The patient’s positive fluid balance and stable haemodynamics suggest that diabetes insipidus or adrenal insufficiency, which cause fluid depletion, are unlikely causes. The high urine sodium levels indicate either excessive sodium loss or excessive water retention. If the cause were iatrogenic, the urine would be as dilute as the serum.
Cerebral salt-wasting syndrome can occur after subarachnoid haemorrhage, but it results in both sodium and water loss, as the kidneys are functioning normally and urine output is high. In contrast, SIADH causes the kidneys to retain too much water, leading to diluted serum sodium levels and concentrated urine, as seen in this case.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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An 81-year-old man with heart failure and depression presents with a sodium level of 130. He is currently asymptomatic and his heart failure and depression are well managed. He has mild pitting pedal oedema and is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, simvastatin and citalopram. What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: Restrict his fluid input to 1.5 l/day and recheck in 3 days
Explanation:Managing Hyponatraemia: Treatment Options and Considerations
Hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low serum sodium levels, requires careful management to avoid potential complications. The first step in treating hyponatraemia is to restrict fluid intake to reverse any dilution and address the underlying cause. Administering saline should only be considered if fluid restriction fails, as treating hyponatraemia too quickly can lead to central pontine myelinolysis.
In cases where medication may be contributing to hyponatraemia, such as with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), it is important to weigh the benefits and risks of discontinuing the medication. Abruptly stopping SSRIs can cause withdrawal symptoms, and patients should be gradually weaned off over several weeks or months.
Other treatment options, such as increasing salt intake or administering oral magnesium supplementation, may not be appropriate for all cases of hyponatraemia. It is important to consider the patient’s overall clinical picture and underlying conditions, such as heart failure, before deciding on a course of treatment.
Overall, managing hyponatraemia requires a careful and individualized approach to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has observed that her hands' skin has become extremely tight, and her fingers occasionally turn blue. She has also experienced difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. Which autoantibody is primarily linked to these symptoms?
Your Answer: Anti-mitochondrial (AMA)
Correct Answer: Anti-centromere
Explanation:AMA (Anti-mitochondrial antibodies)
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman underwent a kidney transplant four years ago due to end stage renal failure caused by lupus nephritis. The transplant was from her sister, and she received anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) induction and plasma exchange pre-transplant due to low-grade donor specific antibodies. She has been stable on tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and prednisolone, with only one episode of acute cellular rejection at six months post-transplant. During her four-year follow-up, she presented with a creatinine level of 150 umol/l and high blood pressure at 150/95 mmHg, which increased to 160 umol/l in a repeat sample one month later. She was admitted for further investigations and biopsy, which revealed double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane, without inflammatory infiltrate and negative C4d. Donor specific antibodies were still present, but titres were low. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute cellular rejection
Correct Answer: Transplant glomerulopathy
Explanation:Pathological Processes in Renal Transplant Patients
Double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane is a characteristic feature of transplant glomerulopathy, a chronic antibody-mediated rejection that affects up to 15% of renal transplant patients at five years post-transplant. Acute cellular rejection, on the other hand, is characterized by interstitial inflammation, tubulitis, and/or arthritis, and is unlikely to occur in patients on stable medication doses. Acute humoral rejection, which is characterized by C4d deposition, capillaritis, and/or arthritis, is another possible pathological process in renal transplant patients.
BK viral nephropathy, which occurs in 1-8% of renal transplant patients, is associated with T cell depleting agents such as ATG. Biopsy findings in BK viral nephropathy typically show nuclear viral inclusions in the tubular epithelial cells, which can be limited to the medulla in early disease, and tubulointerstitial inflammation. Urine cytology can also be used to detect decoy cells and urothelial cells with characteristic nuclear viral inclusions, thus avoiding the need for biopsy.
Finally, acute calcineurin inhibitor (CNI) toxicity is unlikely in patients on stable doses of tacrolimus, but almost all patients develop chronic CNI nephrotoxicity. Biopsy findings in chronic CNI nephrotoxicity typically show interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy, and arteriolar hyalinosis. In the case of this patient, some background CNI toxicity is likely, but the biopsy findings are more consistent with transplant glomerulopathy as the primary pathological process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old asthmatic has been feeling unwell for the past day, experiencing a productive cough, fever, and occasional wheezing. Despite using his regular salbutamol inhaler, his shortness of breath has been worsening, prompting him to seek medical attention at the hospital.
After being assessed by a colleague, the patient has received four rounds of back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers, one round of ipratropium nebulisers, and intravenous hydrocortisone. However, the patient's condition is deteriorating, with increasing respiratory rate and speaking in words only. His chest is now silent, and his oxygen saturation is at 90% despite receiving 10 litres of oxygen.
What is the next recommended therapeutic intervention for this patient?Your Answer: Adrenaline nebuliser 5 mg 1:1000
Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate 2 g
Explanation:The British Thoracic Society guidelines should be followed for managing acute asthma, with patients stratified into moderate, severe, or life threatening categories. This patient has life threatening features and may require anaesthetic intervention for intubation and ventilation. Magnesium sulphate is the next important drug intervention. Adrenaline nebulisers have no role unless there are signs of upper airway obstruction. Aminophylline infusions are no longer recommended for initial stabilisation. Salbutamol inhalers can be used as a rescue measure in moderate exacerbations but have no role in severe or life threatening cases. Both prednisone and hydrocortisone are equally effective for steroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing pain in his left upper leg over the past 4 months. After conducting a thorough examination and taking a detailed medical history, the GP decides to order a set of blood tests and an X-ray of the left femur. Upon reviewing the results, the GP notices that the X-ray report indicates an area of cotton-wool calcification. What condition is cotton-wool calcification on an X-ray typically linked to?
Your Answer: Osteoclastoma
Correct Answer: Chondrosarcoma
Explanation:Different Types of Bone Tumours and their Characteristics
Bone tumours can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of bone tumours and their features:
Chondrosarcoma: This is a malignant tumour that arises from cartilage. It is commonly found in long bones and is characterized by popcorn or cotton wool calcification. Paget’s disease is also associated with cotton wool calcification.
Osteoid osteoma: This is a benign, isolated lesion that is usually less than 2 cm in size and has an ovoid shape.
Osteosarcoma: This is the most common malignant bone tumour and is characterized by sun-ray spiculations and Codman’s triangle. Codman’s triangle is a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when the periosteum is raised away from the bone by an aggressive bone lesion.
Ewing’s sarcoma: This is the second most common malignant bone tumour and is characterized by onion skin periostitis and Codman’s triangle.
Osteoclastoma: This is a well-defined, non-sclerotic area that is usually not malignant.
In summary, bone tumours can have different characteristics and features, and their classification can help in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 43-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with four months of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solid food. He also complains of regurgitation of undigested food and retrosternal chest pain when this happens. He no longer looks forward to his meals and thinks he may be starting to lose weight. He has no other medical problems. He has never smoked or drank alcohol and denies drug use. He presented two months ago with similar symptoms and a different GP treated the patient with a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI), which his symptoms did not respond to.
Physical examination is normal. A recent chest radiograph appears to be normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) does not show any ischaemic changes.
His observations and blood tests results are shown below:
Temperature 36.9 °C
Blood pressure 125/59 mmHg
Heart rate 65 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 14 breaths per minute
Sp(O2) 96% (room air)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Dysphagia: Achalasia, Acute Coronary Syndrome, Diffuse Oesophageal Spasm, Oesophageal Carcinoma, and Pill-Induced Oesophagitis
Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can be caused by various conditions. Among the possible diagnoses, achalasia is the most suitable response for a patient who presents with dysphagia to both solids and liquids with regurgitation of food. Achalasia is a rare motility disorder that affects the oesophagus, resulting in the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax. The patient may also have a normal ECG and no atherosclerotic risk factors, ruling out acute coronary syndrome. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, which causes intermittent and poorly coordinated contractions of the distal oesophagus, is less likely as the patient has continuous symptoms. Oesophageal carcinoma, which typically presents with progressive dysphagia from solids to liquids, is also unlikely as the patient lacks risk factors for the disease. Pill-induced oesophagitis, on the other hand, should be suspected in patients with heartburn or dysphagia and a history of ingestion of medications known to cause oesophageal injury. In summary, the differential diagnosis for dysphagia includes achalasia, acute coronary syndrome, diffuse oesophageal spasm, oesophageal carcinoma, and pill-induced oesophagitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old primiparous woman is being monitored on the labour ward after a midwife raised concerns about her CTG tracing. She is currently in active second stage labour for 2 hours and is using gas and air for pain relief. At 39 weeks gestation, her CTG shows a foetal heart rate of 90 bpm (110 - 160), variability of 15 bpm (5 - 25), and no decelerations. She is experiencing 6-7 contractions per 10 minutes (3 - 4) for the past 7 minutes. What is the most appropriate immediate next step?
Your Answer: Arrange a caesarean section within 75 minutes
Correct Answer: Arrange a caesarean section within 30 minutes
Explanation:In the case of persistent foetal bradycardia with a higher than expected frequency of contractions, a category 1 caesarean section is necessary due to foetal compromise. This procedure should occur within 30 minutes. Therefore, the correct course of action is to arrange a caesarean section within this time frame. It is important to note that a category 2 caesarean section, which should occur within 75 minutes, is not appropriate in this situation as it is reserved for non-immediately life-threatening maternal or foetal compromise. Foetal blood sampling, placing a foetal scalp electrode, and taking an ECG of the mother are also not necessary in this scenario as urgent delivery is the priority.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A two-hour-old baby born at 38+5 weeks in the Special Care Baby Unit is exhibiting mild respiratory distress, with subcostal recessions and grunting. The baby's respiratory rate is 68/min without any apnoeas, their heart rate is 150 bpm, and their axillary temperature is 36.8ºC. The baby appears pink, with normal pre-post ductal saturations and no additional heart sounds. Fontanelles are normal, and their birth weight is within the normal range.
The chest X-ray shows hyperinflation and a thin fluid line in the right horizontal fissure. What is the most significant risk factor for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Smoking during pregnancy
Correct Answer: Caesarean section delivery
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is most likely the diagnosis for a baby with mildly raised respiratory rate and increased work of breathing in the hours after labour, with all other observations being normal. Caesarean section delivery is the most important risk factor for TTN, with other risk factors including male gender, birth asphyxia, and gestational diabetes. Breech presentation is not a risk factor for TTN, while meconium in liquor would make meconium aspiration the most likely diagnosis. Fever during vaginal delivery would make other infective differentials more likely, but a sepsis screen would be needed to rule this out before a diagnosis of TTN could be made.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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