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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea that has persisted for the past 6 months. The patient also reported experiencing fever, weight loss, abdominal pain, and a painful, erythematosus rash on the anterior surface of the leg. A positive faecal occult blood test was obtained, and colonoscopy revealed crypt abscesses. What type of skin lesion is frequently observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes

      Erythema Nodosum: A subcutaneous inflammation, erythema nodosum is often associated with inflammatory bowel disease, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, or a recent streptococcal infection. It is characterized by raised nodules on the lower extremities.

      Morbilliform Rash: A mild hypersensitivity skin reaction, the morbilliform rash is a maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulfonylurea, thiazide, allopurinol, and phenytoin.

      Erythema Multiforme: A target-like lesion that commonly appears on the palms and soles, erythema multiforme is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs, or sulfa drugs. It can also be caused by Mycoplasma or herpes simplex.

      Tinea Corporis: A fungal infection, tinea corporis is characterized by ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.

      Urticaria: A hypersensitivity reaction that results in wheals and hives, urticaria is most often associated with drug-induced mast cell activation. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and phenytoin are common culprits.

      Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man with a history of asthma and ulcerative colitis presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with a history of asthma and ulcerative colitis presents with an itchy, red rash in the right and left popliteal regions. He works as a teacher and continuously scratches the back of his knees when he is at work. This is the second time he has suffered from such a popliteal rash. He states that previously he has had similar skin conditions affecting his anterior wrist and antecubital areas. On examination, both popliteal areas are erythematosus with slight oedema and weeping. There are some overlying vesicles and papules.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Correct Answer: Atopic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Conditions Based on Location and Distribution

      When it comes to diagnosing skin conditions, the location and distribution of the rash or lesion are just as important as its appearance. For example, a rash in the flexural regions of an adult patient, such as the popliteal region, is likely to be atopic dermatitis. This is especially true if the patient has a history of asthma, indicating an atopic tendency. Acute dermatitis typically presents with redness, swelling, vesicles, and papules.

      Other skin conditions have different characteristic distributions. Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is associated with coeliac disease and malabsorption, typically appears as grouped vesicles or papules on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. Seborrhoeic dermatitis is found in areas with sebaceous glands, such as the scalp, eyebrows, and presternal regions. Lichen planus presents as flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques, usually on the wrists, ankles, or genitalia. Psoriasis, on the other hand, produces silvery, scaling, erythematosus plaques, primarily on the extensor surfaces.

      In summary, understanding the location and distribution of a skin condition can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from a regeneration project working with a fishing community in South America. His main complaint is of an itchy, erythematosus rash predominantly affecting both feet. He has no past medical history of note. On examination he has erythematosus, edematous papules and vesicles affecting both feet. There are serpiginous erythematosus trails which track 2-3 cm from each lesion. Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 138 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l
      (slight peripheral blood eosinophilia) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 245 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 79 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray Normal lung fields
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Impetigo

      Correct Answer: Cutaneous larva migrans

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Larva Migrans and Other Skin Conditions: A Differential Diagnosis

      Cutaneous larva migrans is a common skin condition caused by the migration of nematode larvae through the skin. It is typically found in warm sandy soils and can be diagnosed based on the history and appearance of serpiginous lesions. Treatment involves the use of thiobendazole. Other skin conditions, such as impetigo, tinea pedis, and photoallergic dermatitis, have different causes and presentations and are less likely to be the correct diagnosis. Larva currens, caused by Strongyloides stercoralis, is another condition that can cause itching and skin eruptions, but it is typically associated with an intestinal infection and recurrent episodes. A differential diagnosis is important to ensure proper treatment and management of these skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old accountant is referred to Dermatology after developing some patches of hypopigmentation....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old accountant is referred to Dermatology after developing some patches of hypopigmentation. The patient reports a 2-month history of patchy areas of discolouration over her chest and back. She is feeling extremely distressed and self-conscious about these areas. The patient has stopped going to the beach due to the lesions, which she previously enjoyed.

      During examination, the patient has multiple patches of flaky, discoloured hypopigmented lesions distributed over the chest and back.

      What is the most likely cause of hypopigmented skin in this case?

      Your Answer: Whipple’s disease

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and Pigmentation Changes

      Pigmentation changes in the skin can be caused by various factors, including skin conditions and hormonal imbalances. Here are some examples:

      Pityriasis versicolor: This common skin complaint is characterized by flaky, discoloured, hypopigmented patches that mainly appear on the chest and back. It is caused by the overgrowth of a yeast called Malassezia furfur.

      Whipple’s disease: This rare bacterial infection can cause hyperpigmentation in some cases.

      High oestriol: Elevated levels of this hormone, which can occur during pregnancy, are associated with hyperpigmentation.

      Neurofibromatosis type I: This genetic disorder causes numerous café-au-lait patches, which are hyperpigmented patches.

      Urticaria pigmentosa: This condition, which typically develops in childhood, causes hyperpigmented patches that usually fade by the teenage years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man without prior history of skin issues comes in with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man without prior history of skin issues comes in with severe itching that worsens at night. The rash is made up of small, red, extremely itchy bumps on the limbs and torso. His girlfriend is also experiencing itching. Upon closer examination of his skin, what finding would most likely confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema

      Correct Answer: Burrows

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the infestation of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, variety hominis. The female mite burrows into the skin, creating characteristic lesions known as burrows. However, the absence of burrows does not rule out a diagnosis of scabies. Other symptoms include erythema, or redness and scaling of the skin, and excoriations, or skin abrasions caused by scratching. In severe cases, crusting patches may develop, particularly in crusted scabies, a highly contagious variant of the condition. Prurigo nodules, or small bumps on the skin, may also occur in scabies, especially in young children. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies, as prompt treatment can prevent the spread of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops an uncomfortable raised rash on the anterior aspects of both her lower legs. She has prided herself with her remarkably good health over the years. She has recently visited Nigeria, Guyana and Vietnam for her work.
      What would be the most appropriate initial investigation to conduct?

      Your Answer: Stool microbiology

      Correct Answer: Chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with erythema nodosum, which may have an unknown cause or could be related to their extensive travel history. While a skin biopsy may provide a definitive diagnosis, the best initial investigation is a chest X-ray to rule out tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. A blood film is not necessary as there is no indication of malaria. An ultrasound of the abdomen is not useful in this case, as the skin lesions are the primary concern. Stool microbiology is not necessary as there is no mention of diarrhea. While a skin biopsy may provide information on the lesions themselves, it does not aid in identifying the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on her face, back, and arms. Despite trying various hair removal methods and bleaching, she is considering treatment to prevent hair growth. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2, and she reports irregular periods, menstruating once every 7-9 months. Her recent blood tests showed elevated levels of testosterone and luteinising hormone. What is the best course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Oral combined contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Management of Hirsutism in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: First-Line Options

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, excess hair growth, and raised hormone levels. In patients with PCOS experiencing hirsutism and irregular periods, the first-line management option is the oral combined contraceptive pill. This medication reduces hyperandrogenism by suppressing ovarian androgen secretion and increasing binding of androgens, thereby reducing excess hair growth. Metformin can also be used to improve insulin resistance and aid weight management, but it would not be the first-line choice for managing hirsutism. Eflornithine can be used for hirsutism, but in this patient, starting the contraceptive pill will not only treat her hirsutism but also allow for regular withdrawal bleeds and regulate her menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and topical minoxidil are not recommended as first-line options for managing hirsutism in PCOS patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old nursing home resident with a history of hypothyroidism and heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old nursing home resident with a history of hypothyroidism and heart failure presents to you with a complaint of dry, itchy skin that is particularly bothersome on her legs. Upon examination, you observe erythematosus, dry skin on her legs with an unusual pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Venous ulceration

      Correct Answer: Asteatotic eczema

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Asteatotic Eczema, Contact Dermatitis, Lichen Planus, Scabies, and Venous Ulceration

      Asteatotic eczema is a skin condition that commonly affects elderly individuals due to over-washing and dry winter climate. It can also be associated with diuretic use and hypothyroidism. The condition causes dry, itchy skin with a unique crazy paving pattern on the limbs. Treatment involves using emollients and mild topical steroids.

      Contact dermatitis, on the other hand, is caused by friction and environmental factors such as cold or exposure to chemicals like detergents and solvents. It typically affects the hands and does not display the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.

      Lichen planus is characterized by a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape. It presents with a lace-like pattern, unlike the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.

      Scabies is an itchy rash caused by mites that burrow under the skin’s surface. It often affects the very young and elderly, particularly those who live in crowded areas or institutional care. It presents with burrows, particularly on the web spaces between fingers, followed by a hypersensitivity rash. Treatment involves using topical insecticides like 5% permethrin.

      Finally, venous ulceration is present on the lower limbs and can be itchy if associated with venous eczema. However, the legs often display a brown pigmentation of haemosiderin, and a venous ulcer would not present as described in this question.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics of these common skin conditions can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - You are asked to see a 40-year-old man with difficult-to-treat psoriasis. He has...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 40-year-old man with difficult-to-treat psoriasis. He has extensive plaque psoriasis and has tried a number of therapies, including retinoids, topical corticosteroids and photochemotherapy (PUVA).
      What would be the next best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis

      Chronic plaque psoriasis can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when topical therapies are not effective. In such cases, systemic therapies may be considered. Methotrexate and ciclosporin are two such options that can be effective in inducing remission. However, it is important to weigh the potential side-effects of these medications before starting treatment. Vitamin D analogues and coal tar products may not be effective in severe cases of psoriasis. Oral steroids are also not recommended as a long-term solution. Biological therapy, such as etanercept, should only be considered when standard systemic therapies have failed. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and trial other treatments before considering biological agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman with uncontrolled psoriasis is returning with deteriorating symptoms. Despite using...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with uncontrolled psoriasis is returning with deteriorating symptoms. Despite using potent topical treatments, her psoriasis remains uncontrolled.

      What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy

      Explanation:

      Next Steps in Psoriasis Treatment: Narrow-Band UVB Phototherapy

      When topical treatments fail to improve psoriasis symptoms, the next step in treatment is often narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy. While it has a reasonable success rate, it also comes with potential complications such as an increased risk of skin cancer. Patients with a history of skin cancer may not be recommended for this treatment.

      Changing topical steroids would not be an appropriate step in the management plan. Instead, it is necessary to move onto the next step of the psoriasis treatment ladder. Biologics are not indicated at this stage and should only be considered as an end-stage treatment due to their high cost and significant side effects.

      Psoralen with local ultraviolet A (UVA) irradiation may be appropriate for patients with palmoplantar pustulosis. However, for most patients, stopping steroids is not recommended. Instead, narrow-band UVB phototherapy should be commenced without stopping steroids to optimize treatment and increase the chances of success.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (3/8) 38%
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