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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down frequently. She has had no other health issues. The patient works in an office.
      During the physical examination, the patient is found to have clubbing and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse reticulonodular shadows, particularly in the lower lobes.
      What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition that can be diagnosed through a patient’s medical history. When it comes to treatment options, oxygen therapy is the most appropriate as it can prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, there are other treatments available such as steroids and immune modulators like azathioprine, cyclophosphamide methotrexate, and cyclosporin. In some cases, anticoagulation may also be used to reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      129.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her concerned son. He tells you that his mother had got lost when returning home from shopping yesterday, a trip that she had been carrying out without problems for over 20 years. He also notes that she has had a general decline in her memory function over the past year or so, frequently repeating stories, and not being able to remember if she had eaten a meal or not that day when questioned. The son would like to know if his mother could be tested for Alzheimer’s disease, a condition that also affected her maternal grandmother.

      Deposition of which of the following is associated with the development of Alzheimer’s disease?

      Your Answer: Amyloid precursor protein (APP)

      Explanation:

      Proteins Associated with Neurodegenerative Diseases

      Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Several proteins have been identified as being associated with these diseases. For example, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with both amyloid precursor protein (APP) and tau proteins. Lewy body disease and Parkinson’s disease are associated with alpha-synuclein, while fronto-temporal dementia and ALS are associated with TARDBP-43 and tau protein. Additionally, Huntington’s disease is associated with huntingtin. Other changes, such as bunina bodies and Pick bodies, are also seen in certain neurodegenerative diseases and can serve as markers of neuronal degeneration. Understanding the role of these proteins in disease pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease has been experiencing lower back pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease has been experiencing lower back pain, stiffness, and buttock pain for the past six months. He notices that his pain improves after playing squash on Saturdays. He has tested positive for HLA-B27 and his blood tests, including C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, are normal except for a mild hypochromic microcytic anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Arthritis: Ankylosing Spondylitis, Osteoarthritis, Prolapsed Intervertebral Disc, Reactive Arthritis, and Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the sacroiliac joints, causing pain and stiffness that improves with exercise. It may also involve inflammation of the colon or ileum, which can lead to inflammatory bowel disease in some cases. The presence of the HLA-B27 gene is often associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is unlikely in younger individuals and is not linked to bowel disease. Prolapsed intervertebral disc is characterized by severe lower back pain and sciatica, but stiffness is not a typical symptom. Reactive arthritis is usually triggered by a recent GI illness or sexually transmitted infection and is associated with arthritis, a psoriatic type rash, and conjunctivitis. Finally, rheumatoid arthritis rarely affects the sacroiliac joints as the primary site. It is important to understand the differences between these types of arthritis to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      213.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 51-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of abdominal discomfort and bloating....

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of abdominal discomfort and bloating. She reports feeling fatigued and has lost around 5 kg in weight during this time. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a solid mass with multiple compartments and high vascularity originating from the left ovary. Which tumour marker is expected to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ca-125

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers for Ovarian Cancer: Understanding Ca-125 and Other Tests

      Ovarian cancer is a serious condition that can be difficult to diagnose. However, there are several tumour markers that can help healthcare professionals identify the presence of ovarian cancer and monitor its progression. One of the most well-established tumour markers for epithelial ovarian cancer is Ca-125. This marker is likely to be elevated in patients with ovarian malignancies, particularly those over the age of 50 who present with symptoms such as abdominal distension, pain, early satiety, loss of appetite, urinary frequency and urgency, unexplained weight loss, fatigue, or change in bowel habit.

      While Ca-125 is not specific to ovarian cancer, a raised level of 35 iu/ml or greater should prompt an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis. If the scan is suggestive of ovarian cancer, the patient must be referred to Gynaecology on an urgent basis. Other tumour markers, such as SCC antigen, Ca 19-9, calcitonin, and CEA, may also be used to aid in the management of advanced cervical cancers, gastrointestinal malignancies, thyroid malignancies, and other types of cancer, respectively. However, these markers are not commonly associated with ovarian tumours.

      It is important to note that tumour markers should not be used in isolation to diagnose or monitor ovarian cancer. They should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests, such as imaging studies and biopsies, to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. With proper use and interpretation, tumour markers can be a valuable tool in the fight against ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old male presents with complaints of brown coloured urine and abdominal distension....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents with complaints of brown coloured urine and abdominal distension. On examination, he displays signs of large bowel obstruction with tenderness in the central abdomen. The left iliac fossa is the most tender area. The patient is stable hemodynamically. What investigation should be performed?

      Your Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomogram of the abdomen and pelvis

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely suffering from a colovesical fistula due to diverticular disease in the sigmoid colon. There may also be a diverticular stricture causing a blockage in the large intestine. Alternatively, a locally advanced tumor in the sigmoid colon could be the cause. To properly investigate this acute surgical case, an abdominal CT scan is the best option. This will reveal the location of the disease and any regional complications, such as organ involvement or a pericolic abscess. A barium enema is not recommended if large bowel obstruction is suspected, as it requires bowel preparation. A flexible sigmoidoscopy is unlikely to be useful and may worsen colonic distension. A cystogram would provide limited information.

      Understanding Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of colonic mucosa through the muscular wall of the colon. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.

      To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. For acutely unwell surgical patients, plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray can identify perforation, while an abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can detect acute inflammation and local complications.

      Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses may require surgical or radiological drainage, while recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis may necessitate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, typically require a resection and stoma, with a high risk of postoperative complications and HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed with laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      112.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old man has been referred to the rheumatology clinic by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man has been referred to the rheumatology clinic by his GP due to suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient complains of symmetrical arthralgia affecting the MCP and PIP joints for the past 3 months, along with mouth ulcers and photosensitivity. Which of the following medical histories would support a diagnosis of SLE?

      Your Answer: Type 1 diabetes

      Correct Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      The revised ARA criteria for the classification of lupus includes serositis (pleuritis or pericarditis) as a defining feature. Pericarditis is the most prevalent cardiac manifestation of SLE and is also included in the classification criteria of the British Society for Rheumatology 2018 guidelines for SLE. It is important to note that the other options are not part of these criteria, which are not comprehensive but are still considered a valuable diagnostic aid.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.

      Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      78.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the mechanism of action of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Enhance osteoblast activity

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of osteoclast activity

      Explanation:

      Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator used for treating postmenopausal osteoporosis. It mimics the effects of oestrogen on bone while avoiding negative effects on other tissues. Oestrogens reduce differentiation and maturation of osteoclasts and their activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      148.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old man with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He reports occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground, but is otherwise feeling well. He admits to smoking five cigarettes a day. During the exam, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological exam is normal and his fundi appear normal. However, examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent feet pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He is started on antihypertensive therapy and his U+Es are measured over a two-week period, with the following results:

      Baseline:
      Sodium - 138 mmol/L
      Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
      Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 138 µmol/L

      2 weeks later:
      Sodium - 140 mmol/L
      Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
      Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 310 µmol/L

      Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors

      This individual with diabetes is experiencing hypertension and arteriopathy, as indicated by mild claudication symptoms and absent pulses in the feet. These factors, combined with macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment, suggest a potential diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS). The introduction of an antihypertensive medication, specifically an ACE inhibitor, resulted in a decline in renal function, further supporting the possibility of RAS. In RAS, hypertension occurs due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in an attempt to maintain renal perfusion. However, ACE inhibition can lead to relative renal ischemia, exacerbating the condition. This highlights the importance of considering RAS as a potential cause of hypertension and carefully monitoring the use of ACE inhibitors in individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      86.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of mild abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of mild abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and is otherwise feeling well. On examination, she is tender in the right iliac fossa and has a small amount of blood in the vaginal vault with a closed cervical os. There is no cervical excitation. Her vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, heart rate of 80 bpm, temperature of 36.5ºC, saturations of 99% on air, and respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute. A urine dip reveals blood only, and a urinary pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for immediate assessment at the Early Pregnancy Unit

      Explanation:

      A woman with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be immediately referred for assessment due to the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. Arranging an outpatient ultrasound or reassuring the patient is not appropriate. Urgent investigation is necessary to prevent the risk of rupture. Expectant management may be appropriate for a woman with vaginal bleeding and no pain or tenderness, but not for this patient who has both.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.

      A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.

      In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      279.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A pediatric hospital adopts a set of infection management practice guidelines developed within...

    Incorrect

    • A pediatric hospital adopts a set of infection management practice guidelines developed within the local community. If the medical staff follows these guidelines, what is the expected outcome?

      Your Answer: No change in overall use of antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Stable antibiotic susceptibility patterns for bacteria

      Explanation:

      The Benefits of Guideline Use in Antibiotic Treatment

      Guideline use in antibiotic treatment has been linked to stable antibiotic susceptibility patterns in both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. This is thought to be due to the promotion of antimicrobial heterogeneity. Additionally, guideline use has been associated with a decrease in overall antibiotic use and a reduction in the use of inadequate treatment regimens. These factors could potentially impact the development of antibiotic resistance. The use of automated guidelines has also been shown to decrease adverse drug effects and improve antibiotic selection. Overall, the use of guidelines in antibiotic treatment can have numerous benefits for both patients and the healthcare system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      122.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following statements regarding the reporting of medication related adverse...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the reporting of medication related adverse events using the Yellow Card scheme is accurate?

      Your Answer: An allergic rash that develops in an elderly man secondary to co-amoxiclav should be reported

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea occuring after starting a black triangle medicine should be reported

      Explanation:

      The Yellow Card Scheme for Reporting Adverse Reactions to Medications

      The Yellow Card scheme is a widely recognized method for reporting adverse reactions to medications. It is managed by the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). The scheme is designed to encourage healthcare professionals and patients to report any suspected adverse drug reactions, including those related to new medicines, off-label use of medicines, and herbal remedies.

      The MHRA recommends that all suspected adverse drug reactions for new medicines, identified by the black triangle symbol, should be reported. Additionally, all suspected adverse drug reactions occurring in children, even if a medicine has been used off-label, should be reported. Serious suspected adverse drug reactions for established vaccines and medicines, including unlicensed medicines, should also be reported.

      Yellow Cards can be found at the back of the British National Formulary (BNF) or completed online through the Yellow Card website. It is important to note that any suspected reactions, not just confirmed ones, should be reported. Patients can also report adverse events through the scheme.

      Once Yellow Cards are submitted, the MHRA collates and assesses the information. The agency may consult with the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM), an independent scientific advisory body on medicines safety, to further evaluate the reported adverse reactions. Reactions that are fatal, life-threatening, disabling or incapacitating, result in or prolong hospitalization, or are medically significant are considered serious.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2725.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Addison's disease after presenting with symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Addison's disease after presenting with symptoms of fatigue, weakness, gastrointestinal upset, and skin hyperpigmentation. Which adrenal hormone deficiency is typically responsible for the loss of sodium and water in Addison's disease?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Hormones Affected in Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a condition where the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. This can lead to a variety of symptoms, including salt wasting and hyperkalaemia. Here are the hormones affected in Addison’s disease:

      1. Aldosterone: Produced in the adrenal cortex, aldosterone is responsible for reabsorbing sodium and secreting potassium in the kidney. In Addison’s disease, aldosterone levels are low, leading to salt wasting and hyperkalaemia.

      2. Cortisol: Low cortisol levels are a diagnostic marker for Addison’s disease. While cortisol does affect sodium homeostasis, its deficiency alone does not lead to salt wasting.

      3. Adrenaline: The function of the adrenal medulla, which produces adrenaline, is preserved in Addison’s disease.

      4. Angiotensin: While angiotensin does affect sodium reabsorption in the kidney, its levels would not be low in Addison’s disease.

      5. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH): Levels of ACTH are high in Addison’s disease, which leads to the characteristic skin pigmentation.

      Understanding the hormones affected in Addison’s disease can help with diagnosis and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What hormone does the heart produce under stressed conditions? ...

    Correct

    • What hormone does the heart produce under stressed conditions?

      Your Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular system relies on a complex network of hormones and signaling molecules to regulate blood pressure, fluid balance, and other physiological processes. Here are some key players in this system:

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP): This hormone is secreted by the ventricle in response to stretch, and levels are elevated in heart failure.

      Angiotensin II: This hormone is produced mostly in the lungs where angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) concentrations are maximal.

      C-type natriuretic peptide: This signaling molecule is produced by the endothelium, and not the heart.

      Nitric oxide: This gasotransmitter is released tonically from all endothelial lined surfaces, including the heart, in response to both flow and various agonist stimuli.

      Renin: This enzyme is released from the kidney, in response to reductions in blood pressure, increased renal sympathetic activity or reduced sodium and chloride delivery to the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

      Understanding the roles of these hormones and signaling molecules is crucial for managing cardiovascular health and treating conditions like heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      83
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 33-year-old woman finds herself with an unexpected and undesired pregnancy. She has...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman finds herself with an unexpected and undesired pregnancy. She has two children and experienced a miscarriage 4 years ago. Her medical history indicates subclinical hypothyroidism, but she is generally healthy. After an ultrasound scan estimates her gestation at 7 weeks and confirms an intrauterine pregnancy, she decides on a medical termination of pregnancy. What treatment options will be available to her?

      Your Answer: Oral mifepristone and vaginal prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Medical abortions involve the use of mifepristone followed by at least one dose of prostaglandins and can be performed at any stage of pregnancy. The preferred method is oral mifepristone followed by vaginal administration of prostaglandins, such as misoprostol. This method is particularly suitable for pregnancies up to 7 weeks gestation, as it has a lower failure rate than surgical termination. The dosing schedule and location of administration may vary, with some women choosing to undergo the procedure at home rather than in a clinic. It is important to note that IM methotrexate is not used in terminations of pregnancy, but rather in the medical management of ectopic pregnancies, as well as in the treatment of certain cancers and rheumatoid conditions. Methotrexate and vaginal misoprostol is not a common combination for medical terminations, as mifepristone is typically used instead. Oral mifepristone alone is not sufficient for medical terminations, but may be used in cervical priming for surgical abortion in cases where misoprostol is contraindicated.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      120
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes is urgently sent to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes is urgently sent to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP). The patient had seen her GP that morning and reported an episode of chest pain that she had experienced the day before. The GP suspected the pain was due to gastro-oesophageal reflux but had performed an electrocardiogram (ECG) and sent a troponin level to be certain. The ECG was normal, but the troponin level came back that afternoon as raised. The GP advised the patient to go to Accident and Emergency, given the possibility of reduced sensitivity to the symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI) in this diabetic patient.
      Patient Normal range
      High-sensitivity troponin T 20 ng/l <14 ng/l
      What should be done based on this test result?

      Your Answer: Safety-netting and return to the GP

      Correct Answer: Repeat troponin level

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Myocardial Infarction

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction (MI), a troponin level should be checked. If the level is only slightly raised, it does not confirm a diagnosis of MI, but neither does it rule it out. Therefore, a repeat troponin level should be performed at least 3 hours after the first level and sent as urgent.

      In an MI, cardiac enzymes are released from dead myocytes into the blood, causing enzyme levels to rise and eventually fall as they are cleared from blood. If the patient has had an MI, the repeat troponin level should either be further raised or further reduced. If the level remains roughly constant, then an alternative cause should be sought, such as pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease, acute kidney injury, pericarditis, heart failure, or sepsis/systemic infection.

      Admission to the Coronary Care Unit (CCU) is not warranted yet. Further investigations should be performed to ascertain whether an admission is needed or whether alternative diagnoses should be explored.

      Safety-netting and return to the GP should include a repeat troponin level to see if the level is stable (arguing against an MI) or is rising/falling. A repeat electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed, and a thorough history and examination should be obtained to identify any urgent diagnoses that need to be explored before the patient is discharged.

      Thrombolysis carries a risk for bleeding, so it requires a clear indication, which has not yet been obtained. Therefore, it should not be administered without proper evaluation.

      The alanine transaminase (ALT) level has been used as a marker of MI in the past, but it has been since superseded as it is not specific for myocardial damage. In fact, it is now used as a component of liver function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      413.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 23-year-old man was stabbed with a knife and brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man was stabbed with a knife and brought to the Emergency Department, with the knife still in the left posterolateral side of his body. The knife entered the intercostal space between the left ninth and tenth ribs, 10 cm posterior to the mid-axillary line.
      What is the most likely structure to have been damaged first by the knife?

      Your Answer: Left kidney

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of Abdominal Organs and Knife Damage: Understanding the Positioning of Spleen, Left Kidney, Pancreas, Stomach, and gallbladder

      The human abdomen is a complex region that houses several vital organs. In the case of knife damage, understanding the positioning of these organs is crucial in determining the extent of injury. Here, we discuss the anatomy of abdominal organs and their vulnerability to knife damage.

      Spleen: The spleen is the first organ to be damaged by a knife due to its position. It is located adjacent to the inner surface of the intercostal space between the left ninth and tenth ribs, posterior to the mid-axillary line.

      Left Kidney: The left kidney is situated inferior to the spleen and posterior to the tail of the pancreas. Although it is vulnerable to knife damage, the spleen is more likely to be damaged first due to its proximity to the entry position of the knife.

      Pancreas: The pancreas is located medially in the retroperitoneal area of the abdomen. The tail of the pancreas is anterior to the left kidney and reaches the hilum of the spleen.

      Stomach: The stomach lies anteriorly over the left kidney and spleen and is not the first organ to be damaged by a knife.

      gallbladder: The gallbladder is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen near the liver and is not vulnerable to knife damage in the case described.

      In conclusion, understanding the positioning of abdominal organs is crucial in determining the extent of injury in cases of knife damage. The spleen is the most vulnerable organ due to its position, followed by the left kidney and pancreas. The stomach and gallbladder are less likely to be damaged in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      76.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What are the clinical signs that indicate a child has acute rheumatic fever...

    Correct

    • What are the clinical signs that indicate a child has acute rheumatic fever carditis?

      Your Answer: Pericardial rub

      Explanation:

      Acute Rheumatic Fever

      Acute rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs after a bacterial infection and is caused by pathogenic antibodies. It is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response that affects the heart, joints, and skin. The condition is triggered by antibodies that cross-react with cardiac tissue, which can lead to pancarditis, arthritis, and intra-dermal inflammation. The diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever is based on a combination of clinical and investigatory findings, which are known as the revised Jones criteria.

      The pancarditis associated with acute rheumatic fever can cause a sustained tachycardia, which is particularly prominent at night. Conduction abnormalities, including prolonged PR interval, are also common. Pericarditis may be detected clinically with a pericardial rub, and patients may exhibit features of congestive cardiac failure, such as cardiomegaly. Several murmurs are recognized in patients with acute rheumatic fever, including aortic regurgitation, mitral regurgitation, and the Carey Coombs murmur.

      In summary, acute rheumatic fever is a serious condition that can have significant effects on the heart, joints, and skin. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. The revised Jones criteria provide guidance for clinicians in making an accurate diagnosis and initiating appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Mrs. Jane is a 55-year-old woman who visits her GP with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Jane is a 55-year-old woman who visits her GP with a complaint of frank haematuria that has been present for a week. She also reports a persistent dry cough and dyspnoea that has been bothering her for the past 3 months, along with a long-standing history of sinusitis and nosebleeds. During the examination, the patient is found to have a saddle-shaped nasal deformity and bilateral crepitations on auscultation. What is the specific antibody that is most closely associated with this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody (anti-GBM)

      Correct Answer: Cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cANCA)

      Explanation:

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management

      Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 19 - What statement is true about fragile X syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement is true about fragile X syndrome?

      Your Answer: Learning difficulties are found in all males

      Correct Answer: Affected children are taller than average

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: Characteristics and Diagnosis

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects children, causing them to be taller than average and exhibit physical characteristics such as a high arched palate, long ears, a long face, and macro orchidism. The diagnosis of this syndrome was originally based on the expression of a folate-sensitive fragile X site induced in cell culture under conditions of folate deprivation. While affected males usually have learning difficulties, not all do. Additionally, one third of females with the mutation also experience learning difficulties.

      Diagnosis of fragile X syndrome can be made through the detection of the mutant FMR 1 gene by chorionic villus sampling. In some cases, confirmatory amniocentesis may be required. It is important to identify this syndrome early on in order to provide appropriate support and interventions for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 20 - A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes of frank haematuria. He does not recall any abdominal or loin pain. He had an upper respiratory tract infection a few days ago. Urine dipstick shows blood, and blood tests are normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Minimal change disease

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Glomerulonephritis and Other Possible Causes of Haematuria in a Young Patient

      Haematuria in a young patient can be caused by various conditions, including glomerulonephritis, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, sexually transmitted infections, and bladder cancer. IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s Disease, is the most common glomerulonephritis in the developed world and commonly affects young men. It presents with macroscopic haematuria a few days after a viral upper respiratory tract infection. A renal biopsy will show IgA deposits in the mesangium, and treatment is with steroids or cyclophosphamide if renal function is deteriorating.

      Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, on the other hand, presents in young children usually one to two weeks post-streptococcal infection with smoky urine and general malaise. Proteinuria is also expected in a glomerulonephritis. Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and is associated with an upper respiratory tract infection. However, nephrotic syndrome involves proteinuria, which this patient does not have.

      It is also important to exclude sexually transmitted infections, as many are asymptomatic, but signs of infection and inflammation would likely show up on urine dipstick. Bladder cancer is unlikely in such a young patient devoid of other symptoms. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and proper diagnosis are necessary to determine the underlying cause of haematuria in a young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about blood in his stool....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about blood in his stool. He has been noticing red blood for a few weeks now. Recently, he experienced pain while passing stools and felt a lump around his anus. During the examination, a purple mass is observed in the perianal area. Upon direct rectal examination, a tender lump is confirmed at the 7 o'clock position. What is the best course of action for managing this presentation?

      Your Answer: Admit under general surgery for haemorrhoidectomy

      Correct Answer: Advise analgesia and stool softeners, suggest ice packs around the area

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described strongly suggest thrombosed haemorrhoids, as the patient experiences pain during bowel movements and has a tender lump near the anus, along with rectal bleeding. Normally, haemorrhoids do not cause pain unless they are thrombosed.
      If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of the onset of pain, NICE recommends hospital admission for surgical treatment of the haemorrhoids to provide immediate relief from pain.
      After the first 72 hours, the thrombus is likely to contract and resolve on its own within a few weeks. In such cases, conservative management options such as pain relief medication, stool softeners, and ice packs are more appropriate.
      It is unlikely that the patient has perianal Crohn’s disease if they have no history of inflammatory bowel disease.
      Perianal abscesses cause severe pain in the perianal area, but unlike thrombosed haemorrhoids, this pain is not necessarily associated with bowel movements. A visible lump may or may not be present, and there may be pus discharge if the abscess has ruptured, but blood is not typically seen.
      While it is important to rule out more serious causes of rectal bleeding, referring the patient under a 2-week-wait rule would not address their current symptoms. It is more appropriate to investigate the underlying cause once the acute presentation has resolved.

      Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      2162.6
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  • Question 22 - Mrs. Bowls is a 65-year-old patient who presents with her ankles 'going into...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Bowls is a 65-year-old patient who presents with her ankles 'going into spasm' when using the pedals of her car over the past couple of days. She also reports a slight tingling in her hands and feet. Apart from this, she has been well recently, without other new symptoms. Her past medical history includes type 2 diabetes and dyspepsia. Her regular medications include metformin, sitagliptin, omeprazole, atorvastatin, and she uses sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate after meals and before bed as required. You arrange some urgent blood tests, suspecting an electrolyte disturbance. These come back showing hypomagnesaemia.

      Which of her medications should you stop?

      Your Answer: Sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia is often caused by proton pump inhibitors.

      Correct answer: Omeprazole. Proton pump inhibitors are recognized to induce hypomagnesaemia, and the MHRA recommends checking magnesium levels before and periodically during long-term treatment. However, this is likely not frequently practiced.

      Incorrect answer: Metformin. Metformin can reduce the absorption of vitamin B12. Sitagliptin, atorvastatin, and sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate do not lead to hypomagnesaemia.

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.

      When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      245.2
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  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Investigation has revealed...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Investigation has revealed that he has distal disease only. He has a moderate exacerbation of his disease with an average of 4–5 episodes of bloody diarrhoea per day. There is no anaemia. His pulse rate is 80 bpm. He has no fever. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are normal.
      Which is the most appropriate medication to use in the first instance in this exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Mesalazine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Distal Ulcerative Colitis

      Distal ulcerative colitis can cause moderate exacerbation, which is characterized by 4-6 bowel movements per day, pulse rate <90 bpm, no anemia, and ESR 30 or below. The first-line therapy for this condition includes topical or oral aminosalicylate, with mesalazine or sulfasalazine being the most commonly used options. However, these medications can cause side-effects such as diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and hypersensitivity. In rare cases, they may also lead to peripheral neuropathy and blood disorders. Codeine phosphate is not used in the management of ulcerative colitis, while ciclosporin is reserved for acute severe flare-ups that do not respond to corticosteroids. Infliximab, a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis α, is used for patients who are intolerant to steroids or have not responded to corticosteroid therapy. However, it can cause hepatitis and interstitial lung disease, and may reactivate tuberculosis and hepatitis B. Steroids such as prednisolone can be used as second-line treatment if the patient cannot tolerate or declines aminosalicylates or if aminosalicylates are contraindicated. Topical corticosteroids are usually preferred, but oral prednisolone can also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the hospital by the police after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the hospital by the police after being found unconscious on the street. He appears disheveled and smells strongly of alcohol. Despite attempts to gather information about his medical history, none is available. Upon examination, his temperature is 35°C, blood pressure is 106/72 mmHg, and pulse is 52 bpm. He does not respond to commands, but when a venflon is attempted, he tries to grab the arm of the medical professional and makes incomprehensible sounds while keeping his eyes closed. What is his Glasgow coma scale score?

      Your Answer: 11

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale: A Simple and Reliable Tool for Assessing Brain Injury

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing the severity of brain injury. It is simple to use, has a high degree of interobserver reliability, and is strongly correlated with patient outcomes. The GCS consists of three components: Eye Opening (E), Verbal Response (V), and Motor Response (M). Each component is scored on a scale of 1 to 6, with higher scores indicating better function.

      The Eye Opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to verbal or painful stimuli. The Verbal Response component evaluates the patient’s ability to speak and communicate appropriately. The Motor Response component assesses the patient’s ability to move their limbs in response to verbal or painful stimuli.

      The GCS score is calculated by adding the scores for each component.

      When providers use the GCS in connection with a head injury, they tend to apply scoring ranges to describe how severe the injury is. The ranges are:

      • 13 to 15: Mild traumatic brain injury (mTBI). Also known as a concussion.
      • 9 to 12: Moderate TBI.
      • 3 to 8: Severe TBI.

      The GCS score is an important prognostic indicator, as it can help predict patient outcomes and guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 25 - A 52-year-old woman presents with complaints of irregular periods, weight loss, and excessive...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with complaints of irregular periods, weight loss, and excessive sweating. She reports that her symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few months and she also experiences itching. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 140/80 mmHg and her resting pulse is 95 bpm.
      What is the most suitable test to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T4 levels

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Endocrine Disorder

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of an endocrine disorder, several investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Here are some tests that may be useful in different scenarios:

      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T4 levels: These tests are essential when thyrotoxicosis is suspected. In rare cases, pruritus may also occur as a symptom.

      Plasma renin and aldosterone levels: This investigation may be useful if Conn syndrome is suspected, but it is not necessary in patients without significant hypertension. Electrolyte levels should be checked before this test.

      Full blood count and ferritin levels: These tests may be helpful in checking for anaemia, but they are less appropriate than TSH/T4 levels.

      Midnight cortisol level: This test is useful when Cushing’s syndrome is suspected. In this case, the only symptom that is compatible with this disorder is irregular menses.

      Test the urine for 24-hour free catecholamines: This test is used to investigate suspected phaeochromocytoma, which can cause similar symptoms to those seen in this case. However, hypertension is an important feature that is not present in this patient.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigations depends on the suspected endocrine disorder and the patient’s clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a right-sided headache associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a right-sided headache associated with diplopia, binocularly. He is known to have hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. There is a ptosis of his right eye. His right pupil appears larger than the left. His right eye is abducted on primary gaze. His right eye movements are restricted in most directions except abduction.
      Which one of the following is the most important cause you need to rule out in this condition?

      Your Answer: Space-occupying lesion

      Correct Answer: Posterior-communicating artery aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Causes of Third-Nerve Palsy and Their Differentiating Features

      Third-nerve palsy is a condition that can be caused by various factors, each with its own differentiating features. One of the most urgent causes is a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm, which can be fatal due to subarachnoid hemorrhage. A space-occupying lesion can also compress onto the third nerve, but ruling out an impending subarachnoid hemorrhage caused by a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm is more urgent. On the other hand, an anterior-communicating artery aneurysm does not normally cause a third-nerve palsy. Demyelination can cause third-nerve palsy, but the presentation usually points towards a more ‘surgical’ than ‘medical’ cause. Microvascular ischemia is a common cause of ‘medical’ third-nerve palsy, but the pupillary fibers that control pupil dilation are not affected. Therefore, understanding the differentiating features of each cause is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      64.2
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down for the past 4 months. She reports having trouble sleeping and losing interest in activities she used to enjoy. Additionally, she has been experiencing excessive worry about the future. The patient has a history of dysmenorrhoea, which is managed with mefenamic acid. The GP recommends cognitive behavioural therapy and prescribes sertraline. What other medication should be considered given the patient's medical history?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      To reduce the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding when taking both an SSRI and an NSAID like mefenamic acid, it is recommended to prescribe a PPI such as omeprazole. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not appropriate in this case as the patient is already taking mefenamic acid for dysmenorrhoea. Duloxetine, an SNRI, should not be prescribed as the patient has not yet tried an SSRI. Naproxen, another NSAID, is also not recommended as the patient is already taking mefenamic acid.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      169.3
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  • Question 28 - You are asked to place a catheter in a pediatric patient for urinary...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to place a catheter in a pediatric patient for urinary retention. You select a 6-Fr catheter.
      Which of the following is the most accurate description of the size of this catheter?

      Your Answer: The length of the catheter is approximately 24 mm

      Correct Answer: The external circumference of the catheter is approximately 24mm

      Explanation:

      Understanding Catheter Sizes: A Guide to the French Gauge System

      Catheters are medical devices used to drain urine from the bladder when a patient is unable to do so naturally. The size of a catheter is an important factor in ensuring proper placement and function. The French gauge system is commonly used to describe catheter sizes, with the size in French units roughly equal to the circumference of the catheter in millimetres.

      It is important to note that the French size only describes the external circumference of the catheter, not its length or internal diameter. A catheter that is too large can cause discomfort and irritation, while one that is too small can lead to kinking and leakage.

      For male urethral catheterisation, a size 14-Fr or 16-Fr catheter is typically appropriate. Larger sizes may be recommended for patients with haematuria or clots. Paediatric sizes range from 3 to 14-Fr.

      In summary, understanding the French gauge system is crucial in selecting the appropriate catheter size for each patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old woman has had a hysterectomy for a fibroid uterus two days...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has had a hysterectomy for a fibroid uterus two days ago. She will soon be ready for discharge, and your consultant has asked you to start the patient on hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
      She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2, a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus on metformin and no personal or family history of venous thromboembolism.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a combination of oestrogen and progesterone therapy

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oestrogen patch

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate method of HRT for the patient in this scenario is a transdermal oestrogen patch, as she has had a hysterectomy and oestrogen monotherapy is the regimen of choice. As the patient’s BMI is > 30 kg/m2, an oral oestrogen preparation is not recommended due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. HRT has benefits for the patient, including protection against osteoporosis, urogenital atrophy, and cardiovascular disorders. However, HRT also has risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism and endometrial and breast cancer. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication to HRT, and there is no evidence that HRT affects glucose control. Combination HRT regimens are reserved for women with a uterus, and oral oestradiol once daily is not recommended for patients with a BMI > 30 kg/m2 due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Women at high risk of developing venous thromboembolism or those with a strong family history or thrombophilia should be referred to haematology before starting HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks after a myocardial infarction that was treated with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for a proximal left anterior descending artery occlusion. On examination, he has a loud friction rub over the praecordium, bilateral pleural effusions on chest x-ray, and ST elevation on ECG. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dressler's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dressler’s Syndrome

      Dressler’s syndrome is a type of pericarditis that typically develops between two to six weeks after a person has experienced an anterior myocardial infarction or undergone heart surgery. This condition is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response to myocardial antigens. In simpler terms, the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the heart tissue, leading to inflammation of the pericardium, which is the sac that surrounds the heart.

      The symptoms of Dressler’s syndrome can vary from person to person, but they often include chest pain, fever, fatigue, and shortness of breath. In some cases, patients may also experience a cough, abdominal pain, or joint pain. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to reduce inflammation and manage pain. In severe cases, corticosteroids may be prescribed to help suppress the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      91.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (0/3) 0%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Cardiology (3/4) 75%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Passmed