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Question 1
Incorrect
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What additional action is mentioned in the latest NICE guidance for monitoring blood pressure in diabetic patients compared to non-diabetic patients?
Your Answer: Measure BP every 6 months
Correct Answer: Measure BP standing and sitting
Explanation:Monitoring Treatment for Hypertension
When monitoring treatment for hypertension, it is recommended by NICE to use clinic blood pressure (BP) measurements. However, for patients with type 2 diabetes, symptoms of postural hypotension, or those aged 80 and over, both standing and sitting BP should be measured. Patients who wish to self-monitor their BP should use home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) and receive proper training and advice. Additionally, for patients with white-coat effect or masked hypertension, ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or HBPM can be considered in addition to clinic BP measurements.
It is important to note that for adults with type 2 diabetes who have not been previously diagnosed with hypertension or renal disease, BP should be measured at least annually. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively monitor and manage hypertension in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A woman you are treating for tuberculosis mentions that she has observed her urine turning orange since commencing treatment. Which medication is causing this change?
Your Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:One of the peculiar side effects of rifampicin, a medication used in TB treatment, is the discoloration of bodily secretions to orange. However, the other medications used in TB treatment do not cause such a side effect. The notes below provide information on the side effects of these medications.
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.
Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not present immediately to Occupational Health but eventually came because she began to feel tired and lethargic. She has a raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level, anti-hepatitis B surface antibodies and anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibodies. Low levels of HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) are detected. A liver biopsy reveals early inflammatory changes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis C infection
Explanation:Explanation of Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is detected in a patient, indicating active hepatitis C infection. The presence of anti-HCV antibodies and an 8-month history since exposure confirms that the infection is now chronic. Liver biopsy may show varying degrees of inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, with this patient exhibiting early inflammatory changes.
Autoimmune hepatitis, which is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), is not consistent with the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV RNA. Chronic hepatitis B infection is also ruled out, as the patient’s anti-hepatitis B antibodies are likely due to vaccination. Functional symptoms may cause tiredness and lethargy, but the patient’s deranged liver function tests and positive hepatitis C antibodies indicate an underlying diagnosis of hepatitis C.
Understanding Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old receptionist has been absent from work for 4 weeks due to depression caused by multiple miscarriages. She is not ready to return to work and asks her doctor to extend her sick leave. What is the maximum duration that her doctor can sign her off for?
Your Answer: 1 month
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Fit notes are limited to a maximum of 3 months per form during the initial issuance.
The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes
The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.
It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.
Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painful swelling of his penis and a retracted foreskin. He has a long-term catheter in place. What is the most frequent cause of paraphimosis in a non-diabetic man of this age? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Correct Answer: Failure of a clinician to replace the foreskin after a procedure
Explanation:Causes of Paraphimosis: Understanding the Factors Involved
Paraphimosis is a medical condition where the foreskin becomes trapped behind the glans penis and cannot be reduced. While it can be a painful and distressing condition, it is important to understand the various factors that can contribute to its development.
One common cause of paraphimosis is the failure of a clinician to replace the foreskin after a procedure. This can occur during penile examination, cleaning, catheterisation, or cystoscopy. If the foreskin is left retracted for too long, it can become swollen and difficult to reduce.
Another potential cause is chronic balanoposthitis, which is a chronic inflammation of the glans and foreskin. While this is uncommon, it can lead to phimosis (inability to retract the foreskin) in men with diabetes.
Lichen sclerosus is another dermatological condition that can lead to phimosis. While it is uncommon, it is important to be aware of this potential cause.
Excessive sexual activity is not a common cause of paraphimosis and is not indicated by the history. However, it is important to practice safe and responsible sexual behavior to prevent any potential complications.
Finally, while sildenafil has been reported to cause priapism (a sustained painful penile erection), it is not a known cause of paraphimosis. By understanding the various factors involved in the development of paraphimosis, individuals can take steps to prevent this condition and seek appropriate medical care if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden weakness on the right side of her face and difficulty with tears flowing from her right eye. She experienced some mild pain around her right ear the day before the weakness started.
Upon examination, there is evident right facial nerve palsy, and there are no indications of herpes zoster infection.
What can be said about this condition?Your Answer: Corticosteroids are strongly recommended to improve outcomes
Correct Answer: Anti-virals are of proven benefit
Explanation:Bell’s Palsy: Treatment and Symptoms
Bell’s palsy is a condition that causes sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, usually on one side of the face. While the cause of Bell’s palsy is unclear, it is thought to be a post-viral phenomenon in many cases. Interestingly, a family history is found in around 4% of patients with Bell’s.
Most patients with Bell’s palsy make a complete recovery, but to protect the cornea, artificial tears are absolutely required. Post-auricular pain is found in around 50% of patients and may occur 2-3 days before presentation.
When it comes to treatment, corticosteroids have demonstrated significantly improved outcomes in Bell’s palsy, in contrast to anti-virals where two recent RCTs were negative. It is important to note that early treatment is crucial for the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a learning disability has challenging behaviour. His previous carers described him as being calm and settled in general, although he would sometimes refuse to co-operate with carers. Since moving to a new residential home, staff report that he has been refusing to eat and refusing to allow staff to help with personal hygiene.
What is the most likely cause for this change in his behaviour?Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: A change of environment
Explanation:Possible Causes of Behavioural Changes in Individuals with Cognitive Disabilities
Behavioural changes in individuals with cognitive disabilities can be caused by various factors. One common reason is a change of environment, as seen in the case of a person who recently moved to a new residential home. Having familiar items around them can help them feel more comfortable and reduce problematic behaviours.
Pain and urinary tract infections are also potential causes of behavioural changes, but the history provided in the case suggests that the recent change of environment is more likely. Medication is another common cause of behavioural changes, particularly opiates and sedatives. However, there is no history of medication changes in this case, and the change of environment remains the more likely cause.
Constipation can also cause changes in behaviour for individuals with cognitive disabilities, but again, the history suggests an alternative cause. When assessing behavioural changes in individuals with cognitive disabilities, it is important to consider all possible factors and their timing to determine the most likely cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents with pyrexia, urinary frequency, dysuria and pelvic discomfort. Examination reveals a tender prostate. A urine dipstick test shows white blood cells.
What is the most appropriate first-line management for this patient?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Prostatitis: Antibiotics and Pain Relief
Acute prostatitis is a bacterial infection of the prostate gland that can cause pain, fever, and difficulty urinating. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends starting antibiotics immediately while waiting for urine culture results. Quinolones like ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin are preferred over trimethoprim because they are effective against a wider range of urinary pathogens. Treatment for at least four weeks is recommended to prevent chronic prostatitis. In severe cases, hospital admission or referral may be necessary. Pain relief with paracetamol and/or ibuprofen may also be necessary. Some authorities recommend α-blocker therapy like tamsulosin to improve outflow obstruction, but it is not first-line management. If quinolones cannot be taken, trimethoprim may be used as an off-label option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty in using his right arm, slow walking and occasional loss of balance. Symptoms have appeared over 18 months. He also reports urinary incontinence. He has a broad-based gait with cogwheel rigidity and intention tremor of his right arm. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg sitting and 100/60 mmHg standing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: Multi system atrophy
Explanation:Neurodegenerative Disorders: Differentiating Multiple System Atrophy, Progressive Supranuclear Palsy, Corticobasal Ganglionic Degeneration, Multiple Sclerosis, and Parkinson’s Disease
Neurodegenerative disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. Here are some key features to distinguish between multiple system atrophy, progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal ganglionic degeneration, multiple sclerosis, and Parkinson’s disease.
Multiple System Atrophy: This rapidly progressive disease affects multiple systems and presents with akinetic rigid syndrome, cerebellar signs, urinary dysfunction, and autonomic features. No treatment can halt progression, and the mean survival is 6-9 years.
Progressive Supranuclear Palsy: This disorder affects cognition, eye movements, and posture, resembling multi-system atrophy. However, cardiovascular autonomic dysfunction is not a feature.
Corticobasal Ganglionic Degeneration: This rare disease involves the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, causing movement and cognitive dysfunction. Signs of apraxia, alien-limb phenomena, cortical sensory loss, and cortical reflex myoclonus can help distinguish it from multi-system atrophy.
Multiple Sclerosis: This disease presents with symptomatic neurological episodes that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations.
Parkinson’s Disease: Parkinsonian symptoms can occur in multi-system atrophy, but rapid progression, autonomic features, rigidity, and poor response to levodopa can help differentiate it from Parkinson’s disease.
In summary, careful evaluation of symptoms and clinical features can aid in distinguishing between these neurodegenerative disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the recommendation for the use of tacrolimus and pimecrolimus in atopic eczema according to NICE guidance?
Your Answer: Second line treatment for moderate to severe eczema, not controlled by topical steroids in the under 2-years-old, where there is a risk of serious corticosteroid side effects
Correct Answer: First line treatment for moderate to severe eczema in the over twos, where there is a risk of serious corticosteroid side effects
Explanation:Second-Line Treatment for Moderate to Severe Eczema in Children
Eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. Steroids are often used as a first-line treatment, but in cases where they are not effective, a second-line treatment may be necessary. One such treatment is recommended for children over 2-years-old with moderate to severe eczema. This treatment should not be used as a first-line option, but rather as a second-line option when steroids are not controlling the condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of eczema. By following this recommendation, children with moderate to severe eczema can receive effective treatment and relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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During your weekly ward round at the local neurological rehabilitation care centre you see a 34-year-old man who has a background of depression, asthma and a traumatic spinal cord injury. The nurses report him being more distressed and agitated over the last two days.
On examination he is profusely sweating in the upper body and face, his blood pressure is 180/110mmHg, heart rate 60/min, oxygen saturations 99%, chest clear to auscultation and Glasgow coma scale 15, calves soft and non-tender, pupils equal and reactive. He admits to drinking 15 units/week and smokes 10 cigarettes/day. Regular medications include salbutamol, oxycodone, co-codamol 30/500 as required and prophylactic dose low molecular weight heparin.
What is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Correct Answer: Autonomic dysreflexia
Explanation:The most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is faecal impaction or urinary retention. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause, which in this case is likely faecal impaction. Risk factors for impaction include immobility, certain medications, anatomic conditions, and neuropsychiatric conditions. The patient may have developed impaction due to the use of oxycodone and Co-codamol without laxatives. This is the only answer that would result in localised flushing above the level of the spinal cord injury.
Alcohol withdrawal is an incorrect answer as the patient’s alcohol consumption is not high enough to cause physical withdrawal symptoms.
Pulmonary embolism is also an incorrect answer as it would present with different symptoms such as tachycardia and signs of a DVT.
Serotonin syndrome is an incorrect answer as it would not cause localised sweating and may present with other symptoms such as tachycardia and dilated pupils.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that occurs in patients who have suffered a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 spinal level. It is caused by a reflex response triggered by various stimuli, such as faecal impaction or urinary retention, which sends signals through the thoracolumbar outflow. However, due to the spinal cord lesion, the usual parasympathetic response is prevented, leading to an unbalanced physiological response. This response is characterized by extreme hypertension, flushing, and sweating above the level of the cord lesion, as well as agitation. If left untreated, severe consequences such as haemorrhagic stroke can occur. The management of autonomic dysreflexia involves removing or controlling the stimulus and treating any life-threatening hypertension and/or bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a recognized approach used in qualitative research?
Your Answer: Case Study
Correct Answer: Census survey
Explanation:Quantitative research involves the use of surveys as a method.
Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research
Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.
Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 13
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He is a smoker but has no history of respiratory disease and regularly plays football. Upon admission, a chest x-ray reveals a pneumothorax with a 3 cm rim of air. Aspiration is successful, and he is discharged. Two weeks later, a follow-up chest x-ray shows complete resolution. What is the most crucial advice to minimize his risk of future pneumothoraces?
Your Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:For non-smoking men, successful drainage can lead to a decrease in the risk of pneumothorax recurrence. The CAA recommends waiting for 2 weeks after drainage before flying if there is no remaining air. The British Thoracic Society previously advised against air travel for 6 weeks, but now suggests waiting only 1 week after a follow-up x-ray.
Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may have cirrhosis of the liver. He has regularly drunk more than 30 units of alcohol every week for many years. Over the last three months, he has lost 2 kg in weight. He attributes this to a poor appetite.
On examination, there are no obvious features.
What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?
Your Answer: Abnormal liver function tests would confirm a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis
Correct Answer: The presence of chronic hepatitis C infection makes a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis more likely
Explanation:Diagnosing Liver Cirrhosis in Patients with Chronic Hepatitis C Infection
Liver cirrhosis is a common complication of chronic hepatitis C infection and can be caused by other factors such as alcohol consumption. Patients with chronic hepatitis C infection who are over 55 years old, male, and consume moderate amounts of alcohol are at higher risk of developing cirrhosis. However, cirrhosis can be asymptomatic until complications arise. An ultrasound scan can detect cirrhosis and its complications, but a liver biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate liver damage, but they are not always conclusive. The absence of signs doesn’t exclude a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis. Further investigation is necessary before considering a liver biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to your GP clinic seeking advice on infertility. He and his partner have been attempting to conceive for 2 years. He is in good health and doesn't take any regular medications. He is a non-smoker and has a BMI of 24 kg/m2. There is no history of testicular torsion or sexually transmitted infections. His blood pressure and genital examination are normal. His partner has consulted her GP, who is arranging some blood tests for her.
What investigations should be conducted for this man?Your Answer: Semen sample
Correct Answer: Semen sample and chlamydia testing
Explanation:For men with infertility, NICE suggests that the first primary care investigations should include semen analysis and chlamydia screening using a first void urine sample. Additionally, a clinical examination should be conducted to check for any indications of hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, or scrotal masses. It is recommended that a semen sample be produced after abstaining for at least 2 days but no more than 7 days. However, NICE doesn’t recommend screening for antisperm antibodies.
Understanding Infertility: Initial Investigations and Key Counselling Points
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. However, it is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
To determine the cause of infertility, basic investigations are typically conducted. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test, which is done 7 days prior to the expected next period. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if the level is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it consistently remains low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
In addition to these investigations, there are key counselling points that should be addressed. These include advising the patient to take folic acid, aiming for a BMI between 20-25, and having regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Patients should also be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption.
By understanding the initial investigations and key counselling points for infertility, healthcare professionals can provide their patients with the necessary information and support to help them conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 16
Correct
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A 54-year-old teacher is brought in by her husband after she had a myocardial infarction (MI) six weeks ago. Despite her husband's encouragement, she continues to smoke and has become withdrawn since her illness. She refuses to take her prescribed statin due to concerns about side effects and a belief that her situation is hopeless. Prior to her MI, she enjoyed hiking and spending time with her grandchildren, but now spends most of her day in bed.
Her medical history includes a hysterectomy in her 40s and a diagnosis of anxiety in her 30s, for which she was prescribed sertraline. She stopped taking the medication after a few months due to side effects.
You decide to start treatment with an antidepressant and refer her to a local cardiac rehabilitation support group.
Which of the following antidepressants would be most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Antidepressant of Choice in Coronary Heart Disease
When treating a patient with a history of heart disease, it is important to consider the potential risks associated with certain antidepressants. While the patient in question was previously treated with lofepramine, the safest option for them would be sertraline. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), tricyclic antidepressants may pose a greater risk than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) to patients with a history of cardiac disease. Mirtazapine should also be used with caution in these patients. Although some sources suggest that the risks of venlafaxine may be overstated, sertraline remains the best choice for this patient. It is important to prioritize the patient’s safety and well-being when selecting an antidepressant for those with coronary heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy has a seizure associated with a temperature of 38.5°C. The seizure lasts for three minutes and he regains consciousness. He has symptoms suggestive of an upper respiratory infection but has no abnormal physical signs.
Which option is MOST LIKELY to influence a doctor in favour of managing him at home?Your Answer: She had a similar febrile seizure six months ago
Explanation:Managing Febrile Seizures in Children: Factors to Consider
Febrile seizures are a common occurrence in young children, but certain factors must be considered when deciding on the appropriate management approach. Here are some key points to keep in mind:
– If the child has fully recovered from the seizure within an hour, there is no likely serious cause for the fever, the child looks well, and the parents are able to manage the febrile episode, it may be reasonable to manage the child at home.
– If the child has had a previous febrile seizure, an early review of their condition is desirable, as febrile seizures can recur in about 30% of children.
– If the child is currently taking antibiotics or has recently been taking them, this may mask meningitis or other serious causes for the fever, so caution is advised.
– If the parents are very anxious about the child, hospital admission may be appropriate, as they may not be able to cope with the illness at home.
– If this is the child’s first febrile seizure, immediate paediatric assessment is indicated.
– If the seizure was a complex febrile seizure (duration > 15 minutes, focal features, recurrence in the same illness, incomplete recovery after one hour), specialist assessment is appropriate. Other indications for specialist assessment include no obvious focus for infection and diagnostic uncertainty.In summary, managing febrile seizures in children requires careful consideration of various factors, including the child’s medical history, current medications, and parental support. Specialist assessment may be necessary in certain cases to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner, reporting increased fatigue over the past few weeks. She has no other symptoms and no signs of liver disease upon examination. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B infection ten years ago and is concerned that the infection may still be active. What is the most suitable test for this patient?
Your Answer: Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg)
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus (HBV) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Markers
Hepatitis B virus (HBV) can be detected through various markers in the blood. The most sensitive indicator of viral replication is the presence of HBV DNA, which is found in high concentrations in both acute and chronic infections. A high level of HBV DNA is associated with an increased risk of liver damage and cancer. Effective antiviral treatment can lower the HBV DNA level.
Anti-HBAb levels indicate decreased viral replication and infectivity in chronic carriers. These patients will only exhibit low levels of HBV DNA.
HBeAg testing is indicated in the follow-up of chronic infection. In those with chronic (active) infection, it remains positive. However, hepatitis B virus DNA can be found without e antigen in hepatitis due to mutant strains of the virus.
Anti-HBsAb is a marker of immunity to hepatitis B. Patients who are immune to the disease as a result of previous infection will also be positive for anti-HBeAg, but they will have cleared HBsAg and will not exhibit detectable HBV DNA. Patients who have been vaccinated for hepatitis B will also be positive for anti-HBsAb, without having any other positive markers.
The presence of IgM anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis, but doesn’t provide detail on the likelihood that the condition has become chronic. Understanding these markers can help in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has type II diabetes. Her HbA1c is 69 mmol/mol. Her body mass index is 25 kg/m². You want to start treatment with a sulfonylurea drug but the patient is hesitant because she has heard about the risk of hypoglycaemia.
Which of the following statements regarding hypoglycaemia and sulfonylureas is accurate? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: It occurs independent of dosage
Correct Answer: The risk is greatest if there is co-existing hepatic impairment
Explanation:Understanding the Risk of Hypoglycaemia with Sulfonylureas
Sulfonylureas are commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, but they come with a risk of hypoglycaemia, which can be dangerous. This risk is greatest in patients with co-existing hepatic impairment, as the drugs are metabolised in the liver and excreted in urine or faeces. Short-acting sulfonylureas are not necessarily riskier than longer-acting ones, but they should be used with caution in patients with renal disease. Hypoglycaemia may persist for many hours and should be treated in the hospital. Excessive dosage is a common cause of hypoglycaemia, so careful monitoring is essential. Combining sulfonylureas with bedtime isophane insulin may be an option when other treatments fail, but it doesn’t reduce the risk of hypoglycaemia. Patients and healthcare providers should be aware of the risks associated with sulfonylureas and take steps to minimise them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric pain for the past three months. He denies any weight loss, haematemesis, or melaena. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastrium, but otherwise, the abdominal examination is unremarkable. The patient is currently taking Citalopram 20 mg, Lisinopril 20 mg OD, Aspirin 75 mg OD, and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg. He recently had a painful knee and has been taking Ibuprofen at least three times a day. He has a history of severe depressive disorder, which has been effectively controlled on Citalopram for the past 9 months. What is the most appropriate initial management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Stop his Ibuprofen, continue Citalopram and start him on a proton pump inhibitor
Correct Answer: Reduce his Ibuprofen and change his antidepressant
Explanation:Medication Review for Patient with Multiple Symptoms
This patient is experiencing symptoms that are likely caused by the combination of aspirin, ibuprofen, and citalopram. Co-prescribing NSAIDs and SSRIs can increase the risk of gastric bleeding, so it is important to alter the medication rather than refer for endoscopy. The patient should be closely monitored and may benefit from a PPI for gastroprotection.
Although citalopram may be contributing to the symptoms, it has been effective in managing the patient’s recurrent depressive episodes. Patients with a history of depression should remain on antidepressants for at least 2 years into remission.
To ensure the patient responds well to the altered medication, a review should be scheduled in two weeks. It may also be appropriate to check the patient’s Hb level for anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pain and tightness in his head, affecting the frontal and occipital regions and radiating to his neck. The symptoms have been present for four months and occur most days, usually soon after he wakes up in the morning. He is able to work despite the headaches, but they tend to resolve with paracetamol, which he tries to avoid taking most days. He works in a high-pressure environment where there have been recent layoffs. On examination, there are no concerning findings, and he denies feeling depressed.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Referral for neuroimaging
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Chronic Tension-Type Headaches
Chronic tension-type headaches (TTH) are a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The following is a guide to the treatment and management of chronic TTH.
Diagnosis and Explanation
Patients with chronic TTH should receive a positive diagnosis and explanation of their condition. It is important to reassure patients that TTH is self-limiting and not a serious condition.Pharmacological Treatment
Amitriptyline is the treatment of choice for prophylaxis of chronic TTH. A starting dose of 10-15 mg at night can be increased to 150 mg, but usually, no more than 20-30 mg is needed. If higher doses are required, this may indicate an alternative diagnosis, such as depression. The dose can be reduced once improvement is maintained for four to six months or held if headaches recur.Non-Pharmacological Approaches
Non-pharmacological approaches to TTH often incorporate relaxation and physical and psychological therapies.Neuroimaging
Neuroimaging should only be considered to rule out a serious underlying cause if there is a history of new, severe headache that is progressive and associated with neurological abnormalities on examination. Atypical aura, visual disturbance, and vomiting may also be seen.Medication Overuse Headache
Codeine should be avoided in patients with chronic TTH as there is a risk of developing medication-overuse headache, given the frequency of headaches seen in this case.Migraine Prophylaxis
Propanolol is used as prophylaxis for recurrent migraine. However, this medication is not suitable for patients with chronic TTH as their headaches do not fit the diagnosis of migraine.Mental Health Referral
Patients with chronic TTH may benefit from stress management techniques, but referral to the local mental health team is not necessary unless the patient exhibits symptoms of depression. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7 mmol/l on testing by the GP. His father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 60-years old. He has no other risk factors and is well. However, he himself has three daughters.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Prescribe atorvastatin
Correct Answer: Refer to a lipid specialist
Explanation:Management of Familial Hypercholesterolaemia
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol in the blood, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Here are some management options for a patient suspected of having FH:
Refer to a lipid specialist: If there is strong evidence of FH, NICE recommends referral to a specialist for confirmation of the diagnosis and cascade testing. This is important to identify affected relatives and provide appropriate management.
Prescribe atorvastatin: Atorvastatin 20 mg daily is the drug of choice for a patient with confirmed heterozygous FH. It is a high-intensity statin that effectively lowers cholesterol levels.
Provide dietary advice: Patients with FH should be offered individualised advice from a dietician to help manage their cholesterol levels. This may include reducing saturated fat intake and increasing consumption of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
Avoid simvastatin: Simvastatin is only a moderate-intensity statin and is not recommended as the first-line treatment for FH. High-intensity statins such as atorvastatin and rosuvastatin are preferred.
Avoid combination therapy with a fibrate: While fibrates can lower cholesterol levels, they are not recommended for use in FH management. Statins and/or ezetimibe are the drugs of choice, and treatment should be initiated by a lipid specialist if needed.
In summary, FH requires careful management to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Referral to a lipid specialist, prescribing atorvastatin, providing dietary advice, and avoiding certain medications can all help to effectively manage FH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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Samantha, a 50-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of feeling fatigued, experiencing a low mood, and losing interest in activities she typically enjoys for the past two weeks. As per ICD-10 guidelines, how long must Samantha's symptoms persist to be diagnosed with a depressive episode?
Your Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:The criteria for diagnosing depressive illness according to ICD-10 include a depressed mood, loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyable, and decreased energy levels. Other common symptoms include reduced concentration, low self-esteem, feelings of guilt, pessimistic views of the future, and thoughts or actions of self-harm or suicide. Disturbed sleep, diminished appetite, psychomotor agitation or retardation, and loss of libido are also common.
To diagnose a mild depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and two of the other symptoms should be present, but none of the symptoms should be intense. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, and individuals should still be able to function socially and at work, despite being distressed by the symptoms.
For a moderate depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and three or four of the other symptoms should be present for a minimum of two weeks. Individuals will likely have difficulty continuing with normal work and social functioning.
A severe depressive episode is diagnosed when all three typical symptoms are present, along with at least four other symptoms, some of which should be severe. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, but an early diagnosis may be appropriate if the symptoms are particularly severe. Individuals may also experience psychotic symptoms and show severe distress or agitation.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.Your Answer: Chronic kidney disease stage 3
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with progressive bilateral hearing loss over the last 2-3 years. No other symptoms are reported. She works as a machinist in a factory manufacturing clothing. She has a family history of hearing loss at a young age. She has an 18 month old son who has no hearing difficulties.
Examination of the ears reveals normal tympanic membranes both sides.
She has had a hearing test done privately and the audiogram shows bilateral hearing loss more marked at low frequencies.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis and Other Hearing Loss Conditions
Otosclerosis is a condition where bone growth occurs in the middle ear, leading to the fixation of the foot plate of the stapes bone and resulting in conductive hearing loss in young adults. This condition is often accelerated during pregnancy and may have a family history. Treatment options include surgery or a hearing aid. Audiometry typically shows hearing loss more marked at low frequencies.
In contrast, presbyacusis is characterized by high frequency loss in a ‘ski slope’ pattern, while noise-induced hearing loss shows a dip at 4 kHz with recovery at higher frequencies. Acoustic neuroma typically shows high frequency loss and is usually unilateral, while Meniere’s disease can produce low frequency hearing loss along with attacks of vertigo, tinnitus, and aural fullness. Understanding the different patterns of hearing loss can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner at the suggestion of his solicitor. He has recently been charged with assault and criminal damage and is facing a custodial sentence. His solicitor thinks he may have mental health problems and hopes that this may result in a lenient sentence. He admits he has always been impulsive, irritable and had a short temper, which frequently results in fights. He has no close friends and admits to being lonely. Reviewing his notes there are several episodes of deliberate self-harm usually provoked by arguments. There is no evidence of thought disorder.
What the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bipolar disorder
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Common Mental Health Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms
Borderline Personality Disorder, Schizophrenia, Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, Bipolar Disorder, and Depression are some of the most common mental health disorders that affect individuals worldwide. Each disorder has its own set of characteristics and symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s daily life.
Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by extreme fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, an inability to maintain friendships, an unstable sense of self, powerful emotions that change quickly and often, feelings of emptiness, frequent dangerous behavior, and self-harm. Men with this disorder may also exhibit aggressive behavior, seek to control others by criticism, demonstrate extreme jealousy, and be reluctant to share emotional experiences.
Schizophrenia is a psychotic illness that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, thought disorder, and lack of insight.
Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is a developmental condition of inattention and distractibility, with or without accompanying hyperactivity. The hyperactivity decreases in adulthood, but impulsivity, poor concentration, and risk-taking can get worse. These can interfere with work, learning, and relationships with other people. Depressions, anxiety, feelings of low self-esteem, and drug misuse are more common in adults with the condition.
Bipolar Affective Disorder is characterized by periods of deep, prolonged, and profound depression that alternate with periods of an excessively elevated or irritable mood known as mania.
Depression involves both low mood and/or absence loss of interest and pleasure in most activities, accompanied by an assortment of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.
In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these common mental health disorders is crucial in identifying and seeking appropriate treatment for individuals who may be struggling with them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Correct
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You are reviewing a 4-week old baby girl who is brought in by her parents. Lily was born vaginally at term at the local hospital. She became unwell straight after birth and was treated for neonatal sepsis in the neonatal intensive care unit. Thankfully, she recovered well and was discharged after 7 days.
What is the most common cause of sepsis in newborns?Your Answer: Group B Streptococcus
Explanation:Neonatal sepsis is primarily caused by GBS, with preterm and very low birthweight infants being at a higher risk. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci, Staphylococcus aureus, and Escherichia coli are also frequently identified as causative agents. Listeria monocytogenes and Streptococcus pneumoniae are also significant pathogens.
Understanding Group B Streptococcus (GBS) Infection in Neonates
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns during the early stages of life. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, making them potential carriers of the bacteria. Infants can be exposed to GBS during labor and delivery, which can lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of the membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management. The guidelines state that universal screening for GBS should not be offered to all women, and a maternal request is not an indication for screening. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be informed that their risk of maternal GBS carriage in this pregnancy is 50%. They should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and then antibiotics if still positive. If women are to have swabs for GBS, this should be offered at 35-37 weeks or 3-5 weeks prior to the anticipated delivery date. IAP should be offered to women with a previous baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease, women in preterm labor regardless of their GBS status, and women with a pyrexia during labor (>38ºC). Benzylpenicillin is the antibiotic of choice for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You see a 5-year-old girl with her mother. The girl has obvious burns on her feet. Her mother explains that hot water from the kettle splashed on her accidentally. A few days later you see her with her stepfather who says that she got into a bath that was too hot. The pattern of the burns is not consistent with either explanation.
You are concerned and think about contacting the child protection team.
You discuss with your colleagues and debate what should be the primary concern in this circumstance.
Which one of the following should be your primary concern?Your Answer: The best interests of the parents
Correct Answer: The wishes of the child
Explanation:The Importance of Prioritizing a Child’s Best Interests
The best interests of a child should always be the primary concern in any action taken by public or private institutions, courts, administrative authorities, or legislative bodies. It is crucial to understand that a child’s best interests and their wishes are not the same thing. While other concerns may be important, they should always be secondary to the child’s well-being.
When answering questions related to child protection, it is essential to read the options carefully and thoroughly. It can be helpful to cover the options first and then consider which one aligns with the principle of prioritizing a child’s best interests. This approach can prevent confusion and ensure that the correct answer is chosen.
The Child’s Best Interest Principle is a fundamental concept across all child protection jurisdictions. It emphasizes that the well-being of the child should be the primary consideration in all actions taken by institutions and authorities. By prioritizing a child’s best interests, we can ensure that they are protected and supported in the best possible way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman who has undergone a hysterectomy seeks guidance regarding hormone replacement therapy. How does the use of a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation differ from an oestrogen-only preparation?
Your Answer: Decreased risk of venous thromboembolism
Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer
Explanation:To minimize the risk of breast cancer, it is recommended to avoid adding progestogen in hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Therefore, women who have had a hysterectomy are usually prescribed oestrogen-only treatment. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), the risk of stroke remains unchanged regardless of whether the HRT preparation includes progesterone.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.
Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.
In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 30
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with hypertension presents with frank haematuria. He gives a history that his uncle recently underwent a renal transplant and that his father died of renal failure. On physical examination, a large mass is felt over the right lumbar area. A smaller mass is felt in the left flank. Blood urea and serum creatinine levels are raised.
Select the single most probable diagnosis.Your Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Common Renal Conditions and Their Presentations
Adult polycystic kidney disease, a bilateral and gradual decline in renal function, presents with acute loin pain and/or haematuria. Hypertension is an early and common feature. Renal cell carcinoma presents with haematuria, loin pain, and a unilateral mass in the flank, with malaise, anorexia, and weight loss as possible symptoms. Ureteric calculus causes extremely severe pain and is usually associated with haematuria. Prostatic carcinoma appears in older men and presents with lower urinary tract obstruction or metastatic spread, particularly to the bone. Renal amyloidosis presents with asymptomatic proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, or renal failure, but not frank haematuria.
Understanding Common Renal Conditions and Their Presentations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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