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  • Question 1 - A 64 year old diabetic man presents with a deep laceration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old diabetic man presents with a deep laceration of his lateral thigh which measures 3cm in depth by 7cm in length, that penetrates to the bone. There are no signs of fracture. His diabetes is diet controlled and is on low dose prednisolone therapy for polymyalgia rheumatica. Which of the following options should be employed most safely for the wound management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Primary closure in layers

      Correct Answer: Delayed primary closure

      Explanation:

      Delayed primary closure is often intentionally applied to lacerations that are not considered clean enough for immediate primary closure. The wound is left open for 5-10 days; then, it is sutured closed to decrease the risk of wound infection. Improved blood flow at the wound edges, which develops increasingly over the first few days, is another benefit of this style of wound healing and can be associated with progressive increases in resistance to infections. The combination of diabetes and steroids makes wound complications more likely. Despite his high risk, a primary skin graft or flap is unlikely to be a safer option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis....

    Correct

    • A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis. Medical history shows that he has been taking Metoclopramide. He is normally fit and well. However, he is reported to be acting strange and on examination, he is agitated with a clenched jaw and eyes are deviated upwards. What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Oculogyric crisis is an acute dystonic reaction of the ocular muscles characterized by bilateral dystonic elevation of visual gaze lasting from seconds to hours. This reaction is most commonly explained as an adverse reaction to drugs such as antiemetics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and antimalarials. Metoclopramide is a benzamide selective dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic, with side effects that are seen frequently in children.1 The most common and most important side effects of metoclopramide are acute extrapyramidal symptoms, which require immediate treatment. Acute dystonic reactions occur as contractions of the muscles, opisthotonos, torticollis, dysarthria, trismus, and oculogyric crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 48-year-old male is admitted after his clothing caught fire. He suffers a...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old male is admitted after his clothing caught fire. He suffers a full-thickness circumferential burn to his lower thigh. He complains of increasing pain in the lower leg and on examination, there is paraesthesia and severe pain in the lower leg. Foot pulses are normal. What is the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer: Compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Full-thickness circumferential and near-circumferential skin burns result in the formation of a tough, inelastic mass of burnt tissue (eschar). The eschar, by virtue of this inelasticity, results in the burn-induced compartment syndrome. This is caused by the accumulation of extracellular and extravascular fluid within confined anatomic spaces of the extremities or digits. The excessive fluid causes the intracompartmental pressures to increase, resulting in the collapse of the contained vascular and lymphatic structures and, hence, loss of tissue viability.
      Most compartment syndromes associated with a burn injury do not present in the immediate postburn period unless there is associated with traumatic injury or the patient presents in a delayed fashion. As such, compartment syndromes after burns are not commonly observed in the emergency department. Instead, they develop during the first 6–12 h of the initial volume resuscitation period as the administered intravascular volume goes into the interstitial and intracellular spaces resulting in tissue oedema in or under the burned tissue.

      Patients with compartment syndrome typically present with pain whose severity appears out of proportion to the injury. The pain is often described as burning. The pain is also deep and aching in nature and is worsened by passive stretching of the involved muscles. The patient may describe a tense feeling in the extremity. Pain, however, should not be a sine qua non of the diagnosis. In severe trauma, such as an open fracture, it is difficult to differentiate between pain from the fracture and pain resulting from increased compartment pressure.
      Paraesthesia or numbness is an unreliable early complaint; however, decreased 2-point discrimination is a more reliable early test and can be helpful to make the diagnosis.
      The traditional 5 P’s of acute ischemia in a limb (i.e., pain, paraesthesia, pallor, pulselessness, poikilothermia) are not clinically reliable; they may manifest only in the late stages of compartment syndrome, by which time extensive and irreversible soft tissue damage may have taken place.

      Escharotomy is the surgical division of the nonviable eschar, which allows the cutaneous envelope to become more compliant. Hence, the underlying tissues have an increased available volume to expand into, preventing further tissue injury or functional compromise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 5 year old boy accidentally spills boiling water over his legs and...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old boy accidentally spills boiling water over his legs and is diagnosed with superficial partial thickness burns. Which of the following is least likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Damage to sweat glands

      Explanation:

      Superficial burns are confined in the depth of the epidermis, and all dermal appendages and nerve endings are intact. Superficial burns generally heal in 3 to 5 days with minimal intervention and do not leave significant scarring as they typically heal by re epithelialization. Therefore the sweat glands will be intact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 48-year-old female with haematemesis is admitted to accident and emergency in hypovolaemic...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old female with haematemesis is admitted to accident and emergency in hypovolaemic shock. She undergoes resuscitation including administration of packed red cells. The blood transfusion centre will not release certain blood products unless a ‘massive bleeding’ protocol is initiated. Which of the following is not a definition of massive bleeding?

      Your Answer: Ongoing blood loss of 100 mL/min

      Explanation:

      Various definitions of massive blood transfusion (MBT) have been published in the medical literature such as:

      – Replacement of one entire blood volume within 24 h

      – Transfusion of >10 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) in 24 h

      – Transfusion of >20 units of PRBCs in 24 h

      – Transfusion of >4 units of PRBCs in 1 h when on-going need is foreseeable

      – Replacement of 50% of total blood volume (TBV) within 3 h.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 52 year old man presents to the emergency department with a stab...

    Correct

    • A 52 year old man presents to the emergency department with a stab wound to his left iliac fossa. He is hemodynamically unstable and is taken immediately to the OT for emergency laparotomy. During surgery, colonic mesentery is found to be injured that has resulted in the blood loss. The left colon is also injured with signs of local perforation and contamination. Which of the following is the most important aspect of management?

      Your Answer: Resect the left colon and construct a left iliac fossa end colostomy

      Explanation:

      Colonic injuries that are managed with resection are associated with a high complication rate regardless of whether an anastomosis or colostomy is performed. Colonic resection and anastomosis can be performed safely in the majority of patients with severe colonic injury, including injuries to the left colon. For injuries of the right colon, an ileocolostomy has a lower incidence of leakage than a colocolonic anastomosis. For injuries to the left colon, there remains a role for colostomy specifically in the subgroups of patients with a high ATI or hypotension, because these patients are at greater risk for an anastomotic leak. The role of resection and primary anastomosis versus colostomy in colonic trauma requires further investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      165.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65 year old man is scheduled to undergo an elective femoral-popliteal bypass....

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man is scheduled to undergo an elective femoral-popliteal bypass. He presents to the physician with sudden onset of central crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. ECG is significant for some ischemic changes. The nursing staff initiates high flow oxygen and gives a spray of glyceryl trinitrate. However, this has resulted in no relief of his symptoms. Which of the following drugs should be administered next to this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg

      Explanation:

      Unstable angina is a common cardiovascular condition associated with major adverse clinical events. Over the last 15 years, therapeutic advances have dramatically reduced the complication and mortality rates of this serious condition. The standard of therapy in patients with unstable angina now incorporates the combined use of a potent antithrombotic (aspirin, clopidogrel, heparin and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists) and anti-anginal (β-blockade and intravenous nitrates) regimens complemented by the selective and judicious application of coronary revascularisation strategies.
      Increasingly, these invasive and non-invasive therapeutic interventions are being guided not only by the clinical risk profile but also by the determination of serum cardiac and inflammatory markers.
      Moreover, rapid and intensive management of associated risk factors, such as hypercholesterolaemia, would appear to have potentially substantial benefits even within the acute in-hospital phase of unstable angina. Aspirin 300mg should be given as soon as possible. If the patient has a moderate to high risk of myocardial infarction, then Clopidogrel should be given with a low molecular weight heparin. Thrombolysis or urgent percutaneous intervention should be given if there are significant ECG changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 21 year old intravenous drug abuser is recovering following surgical drainage of...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old intravenous drug abuser is recovering following surgical drainage of a psoas abscess. She is found collapsed and unresponsive in the bathroom with pinpoint pupils. Which of the following is the best step in immediate management?

      Your Answer: Intravenous naloxone

      Explanation:

      Answer: Intravenous naloxone

      Naloxone is a medication approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to prevent overdose by opioids such as heroin, morphine, and oxycodone. It blocks opioid receptor sites, reversing the toxic effects of the overdose. Naloxone is administered when a patient is showing signs of opioid overdose. The medication can be given by intranasal spray, intramuscular (into the muscle), subcutaneous (under the skin), or intravenous injection.

      Several conditions and drugs can cause pinpoint pupils, including:
      Prescription opioids or narcotics
      Some medications have opioids or narcotics in them. Opioids, including morphine, are drugs commonly used for pain relief. Opioids can affect a person psychologically and are highly addictive.

      People often take prescription opioids in pill form to treat severe post-surgical pain, such as from dental surgery, or for long-term pain, as with some cancers.

      Prescription opioids that may cause pinpoint pupils include:

      oxycodone
      morphine
      hydrocodone
      codeine
      methadone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 46 year old woman is taken to the A&E department with a...

    Correct

    • A 46 year old woman is taken to the A&E department with a full thickness burn on her chest which is well circumscribed. Her saturation was reduced to 92% on 15L of Oxygen, blood pressure of 104/63 mmHg and HR 106 bpm. What is the best management step?

      Your Answer: Escharotomy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Escharotomy

      Escharotomy is the surgical division of the nonviable eschar, which allows the cutaneous envelope to become more compliant. Hence, the underlying tissues have an increased available volume to expand into, preventing further tissue injury or functional compromise.

      Full-thickness circumferential and near-circumferential skin burns result in the formation of a tough, inelastic mass of burnt tissue (eschar). The eschar, by virtue of this inelasticity, results in the burn-induced compartment syndrome. This is caused by the accumulation of extracellular and extravascular fluid within confined anatomic spaces of the extremities or digits. The excessive fluid causes the intracompartmental pressures to increase, resulting in collapse of the contained vascular and lymphatic structures and, hence, loss of tissue viability. The capillary closure pressure of 30 mm Hg, also measured as the compartment pressure, is accepted as that which requires intervention to prevent tissue death.

      The circumferential eschar over the torso can lead to significant compromise of chest wall excursions and can hinder ventilation. Abdominal compartment syndrome with visceral hypoperfusion is associated with severe burns of the abdomen and torso. (A literature review by Strang et al found the prevalence of abdominal compartment syndrome in severely burned patients to be 4.1-16.6%, with the mean mortality rate for this condition in these patients to be 74.8%). Similarly, airway patency and venous return may be compromised by circumferential burns involving the neck.

      Performing an escharotomy will therefore improve ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 24-year-old woman sustains a simple rib fracture resulting from a fall. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman sustains a simple rib fracture resulting from a fall. On examination, a small pneumothorax is found. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Discharge with advice to return if symptoms worsen

      Correct Answer: Insertion of chest drain

      Explanation:

      For a rib fracture to cause pneumothorax, there must also be laceration to the underlying lung parenchyma. This has the risk of developing into a tension pneumothorax. Therefore, a chest drain should be inserted and the patient admitted.

      Pneumothorax is a collection of free air in the chest cavity that causes the lung to collapse. The most common cause of pneumothorax is lung laceration with air leakage. In some instances, the lung continues to leak air into the chest cavity and results in compression of the chest structures, including vessels that return blood to the heart. This is known as a tension pneumothorax and can be fatal if not treated immediately. Blunt or penetrating chest trauma that creates a flap-type defect on the surface of the lung can result in this life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is struck by a car....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is struck by a car. On arrival in the emergency department, she has a systolic blood pressure of 105 mmHg and a pulse rate of 126 bpm. Abdominal examination demonstrates diffuse tender abdomen and some bruising of the left flank. The FAST scan is normal. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange a departmental abdominal USS

      Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent abdominal CT scan

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history and examination point towards a significant visceral injury. FAST scan is associated with a false-negative result in pregnancy which makes the normal result, in this scenario, less reassuring. CT scan of the abdomen remains the gold standard for diagnosis.

      Sonography and FAST scanning are established in pregnancy and provide the advantage of avoiding ionising radiations. However, the sensitivity of the FAST scan is reduced in pregnancy especially with advanced gestational age. CT scan remains the first-line investigation in major trauma where significant visceral injury is suspected. The maximum permitted safe dose of radiation in pregnancy is 5 mSv.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25 year old woman is trapped for several hours after falling down...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman is trapped for several hours after falling down a slope while hiking in the winter. She is airlifted to the nearest hospital where she was found to be hypothermic with a core temperature of 29oC. What is the most effective method of raising core temperature?

      Your Answer: Instillation of warm intravesical fluid

      Correct Answer: Instillation of warmed intra peritoneal fluid

      Explanation:

      Answer: Instillation of warmed intra peritoneal fluid

      Hypothermia describes a state in which the body’s mechanism for temperature regulation is overwhelmed in the face of a cold stressor. Hypothermia is classified as accidental or intentional, primary or secondary, and by the degree of hypothermia.
      Active central rewarming is the fastest and most invasive method of rewarming. It involves use of warm IV fluids, gastric lavage and peritoneal dialysis by warm fluids. Peritoneal dialysis can be safely done with crystalloid dialysate at 40 to 42°C and it raises the body temperature by 4 to 6°C/hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A young lady is stabbed in the chest when she was leaving a...

    Incorrect

    • A young lady is stabbed in the chest when she was leaving a party and she develops a cardiac arrest in the A&E department. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Immediate CT scanning with ongoing CPR

      Correct Answer: Thoracotomy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Thoracotomy

      Cardiac arrest after penetrating chest trauma may be an indication for emergency thoracotomy. A successful outcome is possible if the patient has a cardiac tamponade and the definitive intervention is performed within 10 minutes of loss of cardiac output.
      EMERGENCY “CLAM SHELL” THORACOTOMY

      Indication:

      Penetrating chest/epigastric trauma associated with cardiac arrest (any rhythm).

      Contraindications:
      Definite loss of cardiac output for greater than 10 minutes.

      Any patient who has a cardiac output, including hypotensive patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a significant laceration to the lateral aspect of the nose, associated with tissue loss. What should be the best management option?

      Your Answer: Rotational skin flap

      Explanation:

      Nasal injuries can be challenging to manage and where there is tissue loss, it can be difficult to primarily close them and obtain a satisfactory aesthetic result. Debridement together with a rotational skin flap would produce the best results.

      A rotation flap is a semi-circular skin flap that is rotated into the defect on a fulcrum point. It provides the ability to mobilize large areas of tissue with a wide vascular base for reconstruction. Rotation flaps may be pedicled or free. Pedicled flaps are more reliable but are limited in the range of movement. Free flaps have increased range but carry greater risk of breakdown as they require vascular anastomosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a road traffic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a road traffic accident. He has sustained a flail chest injury and is hypotensive on arrival at the hospital. Examination shows an elevated jugular venous pressure and auscultation of the heart reveals muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with a classical picture of cardiac tamponade, suggested by Beck’s triad: hypotension, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), and muffled heart sounds.

      Cardiac tamponade is a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent haemodynamic compromise. This condition is a medical emergency, the complications of which include pulmonary oedema, shock, and death.

      Patients with cardiac tamponade have a collection of three medical signs known as Beck’s triad. These are low arterial blood pressure, distended neck veins, and distant, muffled heart sounds. The diagnosis may be further supported by specific ECG changes, chest X-ray, or an ultrasound of the heart. If fluid increases slowly, the pericardial sac can expand to contain more than 2 L; however, if the increase is rapid, as little as 200 mL can result in tamponade.

      Management options may include pericardiocentesis, surgery to create a pericardial window, or a pericardiectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      78.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68 year old man who is scheduled for an amputation suddenly presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man who is scheduled for an amputation suddenly presents to the physician with episodes of vertigo and dysarthria. After a while he collapses and his GCS is recorded to be 3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Opiate overdose

      Correct Answer: Basilar artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of basilar artery occlusion (BAO) ranges from mild transient symptoms to devastating strokes with high fatality and morbidity. Often, non-specific prodromal symptoms such as vertigo or headaches are indicative of BAO, and are followed by the hallmarks of BAO, including decreased consciousness, quadriparesis, pupillary and oculomotor abnormalities, dysarthria, and dysphagia. When clinical findings suggest an acute brainstem disorder, BAO has to be confirmed or ruled out as a matter of urgency. If BAO is recognised early and confirmed with multimodal CT or MRI, intravenous thrombolysis or endovascular treatment can be undertaken. The goal of thrombolysis is to restore blood flow in the occluded artery and salvage brain tissue; however, the best treatment approach to improve clinical outcome still needs to be ascertained.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 54-year-old male presents with central chest pain and vomiting. He has drunk...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old male presents with central chest pain and vomiting. He has drunk a bottle of vodka. On examination, there is some mild crepitus in the epigastric region. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal perforation

      Explanation:

      Boerhaave syndrome classically presents as the Mackler triad of chest pain, vomiting, and subcutaneous emphysema due to oesophageal rupture, although these symptoms are not always present.
      The classic clinical presentation of Boerhaave syndrome usually consists of repeated episodes of retching and vomiting, typically in a middle-aged man with recent excessive dietary and alcohol intake.
      These repeated episodes of retching and vomiting are followed by a sudden onset of severe chest pain in the lower thorax and the upper abdomen. The pain may radiate to the back or to the left shoulder. Swallowing often aggravates the pain.
      Typically, hematemesis is not seen after oesophageal rupture, which helps to distinguish it from the more common Mallory-Weiss tear.
      Swallowing may precipitate coughing because of the communication between the oesophagus and the pleural cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old male is involved in a road traffic accident. He suffers significant...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is involved in a road traffic accident. He suffers significant injuries to his thorax, he has bilateral haemopneumothoraces and a suspected haemopericardium. He is to undergo surgery, what is the best method of accessing these injuries?

      Your Answer: Bilateral thoracoscopy and mediastinoscopy

      Correct Answer: Clam shell thoracotomy

      Explanation:

      Thoracic trauma accounts for > 25% of all traumatic injuries and is a leading cause of death in all age groups. The majority of thoracic trauma patients require only conservative management (e.g. analgesia, simple chest drainage). However, a subset of these patients will show signs of deterioration in the emergency department, especially with penetrating injuries. Such patients may require an emergency thoracotomy for rapid access to the thoracic cavity so that pericardial tamponade can be released and haemorrhage controlled. Furthermore, in severe thoracic trauma cases, specific injuries are difficult to confidently rule out or identify, even if they can be anticipated. Therefore, it is recommended to use an approach that provides the most rapid access to all vital chest organs for assessment and control.
      Clamshell thoracotomy (also known as bilateral anterolateral thoracotomy) or hemi-clamshell (longitudinal sternotomy and anterolateral thoracotomy) are techniques used to provide complete exposure of the thoracic cavity (heart, mediastinum and lungs). Studies have demonstrated that it is easier to control the cardiac wound using this approach compared to the standard left anterolateral thoracotomy, as it gives wider exposure for all injuries, which are then easier to control surgically through the larger incision.
      Contraindications:
      Absolute:
      – Traumatic cardiac arrest where the underlying pathology is so severe as to render the procedure futile (e.g. severe traumatic brain injury)
      Relative:
      Blunt cardiac injury with no signs of life or organised cardiac rhythm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30 year old woman presents to the A&E department after being trapped...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old woman presents to the A&E department after being trapped in a house fire. Her limb burns are partial thickness but the torso burns are full thickness. She has been receiving intravenous fluid and she was intubated by paramedics. Her ventilation pressure requirements are rising. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Escharotomy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Escharotomy

      Escharotomy is the surgical division of the nonviable eschar, which allows the cutaneous envelope to become more compliant. Hence, the underlying tissues have an increased available volume to expand into, preventing further tissue injury or functional compromise.

      Full-thickness circumferential and near-circumferential skin burns result in the formation of a tough, inelastic mass of burnt tissue (eschar). The eschar, by virtue of this inelasticity, results in the burn-induced compartment syndrome. This is caused by the accumulation of extracellular and extravascular fluid within confined anatomic spaces of the extremities or digits. The excessive fluid causes the intracompartmental pressures to increase, resulting in collapse of the contained vascular and lymphatic structures and, hence, loss of tissue viability. The capillary closure pressure of 30 mm Hg, also measured as the compartment pressure, is accepted as that which requires intervention to prevent tissue death.

      The circumferential eschar over the torso can lead to significant compromise of chest wall excursions and can hinder ventilation. Abdominal compartment syndrome with visceral hypoperfusion is associated with severe burns of the abdomen and torso. (A literature review by Strang et al found the prevalence of abdominal compartment syndrome in severely burned patients to be 4.1-16.6%, with the mean mortality rate for this condition in these patients to be 74.8%). Similarly, airway patency and venous return may be compromised by circumferential burns involving the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      74
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 56 year old man presents to the emergency with a type IIIc...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old man presents to the emergency with a type IIIc Gustilo and Anderson fracture of distal tibia after being involved in a road traffic accident. He was trapped under the wreckage for about 7 hours and had been bleeding profusely from the fracture site during this time. He is found to have an established neurovascular deficit. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Application of external fixator and arterial reconstruction

      Correct Answer: Amputation

      Explanation:

      A below-knee amputation (“BKA”) is a transtibial amputation that involves removing the foot, ankle joint, and distal tibia and fibula with related soft tissue structures. In general, a BKA is preferred over an above-knee amputation (AKA), as the former has better rehabilitation and functional outcomes. There are three major categories of indications for proceeding with a BKA. These include:
      – Urgent cases where source control of necrotizing infections or haemorrhagic injuries outweighs limb preservation.
      – Less acutely, urgent BKAs may be performed for chronic nonhealing ulcers or significant infections with the risk of impending systemic infection or sepsis.
      – Urgent BKAs may be performed where limb salvage has failed to preserve a mangled lower extremity. Adequate resuscitation and stabilization must always have occurred before such a decision, as judged by vital signs, lactate, base deficit, and the management of concomitant injuries.
      This man is hemodynamically unstable and the limb is likely to be non-viable after so many hours of entrapment. Hence, the safest option would be primary amputation of the injured limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      27.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (12/20) 60%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (12/20) 60%
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