00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - You see a child who you are investigating for coeliac disease. Their serology...

    Incorrect

    • You see a child who you are investigating for coeliac disease. Their serology test result is positive.

      What would be the next step in your management?

      Your Answer: Refer to gastroenterology

      Correct Answer: No intervention

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease

      Patients who are suspected of having coeliac disease and have positive serology test results should be referred to a gastroenterologist for further investigation. The gastroenterologist will perform an endoscopy and intestinal biopsy to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of coeliac disease. It is important for patients to continue eating gluten-containing foods until the biopsy is performed to ensure accurate results.

      While dietary advice may be helpful if coeliac disease is confirmed, it is more appropriate to first seek a referral to a gastroenterologist. There is no need to repeat the serology test if it is positive. For more information on how to interpret coeliac serology results, refer to the link provided below. Proper diagnosis and management of coeliac disease can greatly improve a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent fatigue and indigestion. He has been belching excessively at night and is bothered by constant bloating. He denies any alterations in his bowel movements and has not noticed any rectal bleeding. During the physical examination, you observe mild conjunctival pallor and a slightly distended abdomen. A rectal exam reveals no abnormalities.

      What is the most frequent underlying condition that could explain these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bowel cancer

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease is the most likely underlying diagnosis as it can present with nonspecific gastrointestinal symptoms and fatigue. Bowel cancer should also be considered and appropriate screening carried out if there is clinical suspicion or red flag symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux is unlikely to cause fatigue or anaemia, while inflammatory bowel disease is less common than irritable bowel and there are no signs of it in the stem.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      229.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a known history of depression, previously well controlled with fluoxetine, has started to suffer from anxiety, loss of interest and reduced appetite. She also complains of insomnia.

      She claims that she is taking her medications regularly according to prescription. You conclude that her depression has not responded to treatment.

      What will be the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Switch to another group of antidepressant

      Correct Answer: Switch to another SSRI

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Non-Responsive Depression

      When a patient fails to respond to fluoxetine, which is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), it is recommended to switch to another SSRI first. If this doesn’t work, the NICE update on depression (2010) suggests trying a newer generation antidepressant that is better tolerated. It is important to find the right medication for each individual patient, as depression can have a significant impact on their quality of life. Therefore, healthcare professionals should closely monitor patients and adjust their treatment plan accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who has been experiencing deteriorating migraines...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who has been experiencing deteriorating migraines over the last half-year. She usually experiences aura before the onset of the headache. During the history-taking process, what is the maximum duration of aura that NICE and the British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) consider to be normal?

      Your Answer: 30 minutes

      Correct Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

      The typical duration of an aura is from 5 to 60 minutes.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment with fluoxetine for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior experience with antidepressant medication and has no other medical conditions.

      During the assessment, she reports no suicidal thoughts and has a supportive partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She has not experienced any adverse effects with fluoxetine but has heard positive things about St John's wort from a friend.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Increase the dose of fluoxetine and arrange weekly telephone contact to increase support

      Correct Answer: Stop the fluoxetine and refer for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs

      When a patient has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.

      After three to four weeks of minimal or absent response, there are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, caution is needed when switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics because it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, after appropriate discontinuation of fluoxetine, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.

      It is not recommended to prescribe or advocate for St John’s wort due to lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and anti-epileptics.

      According to NICE CG90, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication for moderate depression. If response is absent or minimal after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment with a therapeutic dose of an antidepressant, increase the level of support (for example, by weekly face-to-face or telephone contact) and consider increasing the dose in line with the SPC if there are no significant side effects or switching to another antidepressant as described in section 1.8 if there are side effects or if the person prefers.

      In summary, it is important to closely monitor patients who are not responding to SSRIs and consider alternative treatment options in consultation with a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old man presents to you with concerns about a sudden hearing loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to you with concerns about a sudden hearing loss in his left ear. He was watching TV with his wife the previous night when he went to the bathroom. Upon returning, he noticed that he could no longer hear speech or music from his left ear and instead, he could only hear a loud hissing sound.

      Upon examination, both ears, ear canals, and tympanic membranes appear normal. Combined Weber's and Rinne's tests reveal that he has a sensorineural hearing loss on the left side.

      What is the most probable cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Stroke

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Sudden sensorineural hearing loss in the UK is mostly idiopathic, with potential underlying causes being URTI-related viral infections and microvascular obstruction to the blood flow in the cochlea. However, there are also much rarer causes such as acoustic neuroma or other intracranial tumors, trauma, blasts and loud noise, barotrauma from SCUBA diving and flights, meningitis, herpes zoster, syphilis, immunological disease, AIDS, MS, Meniere’s disease, Lyme disease, and stroke. It is important not to assume that a man married to another man has a disease related to this, even in exam questions.

      When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor...

    Correct

    • A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor feeding. The baby was born at 37 weeks gestation without any complications. No central cyanosis is observed, but the baby has a slightly elevated heart rate, rapid breathing, and high blood pressure in the upper extremities. Oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on air. Upon chest auscultation, a systolic murmur is heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Additionally, the baby has weak bilateral femoral pulses. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the Aorta: A Narrowing of the Descending Aorta

      Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that affects the descending aorta, causing it to narrow. This condition is more common in males, despite its association with Turner’s syndrome. In infancy, coarctation of the aorta can lead to heart failure, while in adults, it can cause hypertension. Other features of this condition include radio-femoral delay, a mid systolic murmur that is maximal over the back, and an apical click from the aortic valve. Notching of the inferior border of the ribs, which is caused by collateral vessels, is not seen in young children. Coarctation of the aorta is often associated with other conditions, such as bicuspid aortic valve, berry aneurysms, and neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A child presents with an inability to swallow, a ‘hot potato’ voice and...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with an inability to swallow, a ‘hot potato’ voice and an asymmetrical tonsillitis.
      What is the most effective treatment?

      Your Answer: Antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Drainage of abscess

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Quinsy: Drainage, Antibiotics, and Corticosteroids

      Quinsy, also known as peritonsillar abscess, is a serious complication of tonsillitis that requires urgent treatment. Symptoms include a displaced uvula, enlarged oropharynx, and a hot potato voice. The recommended treatment involves drainage of the abscess via needle and scalpel incision, followed by antibiotics such as penicillin, cephalosporins, co-amoxiclav, or clindamycin. In some cases, intravenous corticosteroids may also be beneficial. Watchful waiting is not recommended, as the infection can spread and lead to serious complications. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent aspiration, airway obstruction, and other life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain. Her family are refugees and she was born in a refugee camp in Greece. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows an enlarged, irregular cystic kidney on the left side. A renal biopsy has shown dysplasia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infantile polycystic kidney disease

      Correct Answer: Multicystic dysplastic kidney

      Explanation:

      Renal Abnormalities: Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney, Hypospadias, Infantile Polycystic Kidney Disease, Potter Syndrome, and Renal Fusion

      Renal abnormalities can present in various forms, each with its own unique characteristics. One such abnormality is multicystic dysplastic kidney, which is identified by the presence of multiple non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the absence of a normal pelvicalyceal system. Unilateral disease is usually asymptomatic and can remain undetected into adulthood. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is not at the usual location on the head of the penis, but below it. It is diagnosed on clinical examination.

      Infantile polycystic kidney disease is always bilateral and is characterised by both renal and hepatobiliary disease, which can be severe. Potter syndrome, which usually has a very poor prognosis, is diagnosed at birth and occurs when there is antenatal oligohydramnios secondary to renal disease, usually bilateral renal agenesis. Lastly, renal fusion, also known as horseshoe kidney, is formed by fusion across the midline of two distinct functioning kidneys, one on each side of the midline. Ultrasound scanning can identify various findings, such as a curved configuration of the lower poles, elongation of the lower poles, and poorly defined lower poles, which suggest the presence of horseshoe kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice

      Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.

      On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 ”g/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The grandmother of a newborn requests that the child be given the Hepatitis...

    Incorrect

    • The grandmother of a newborn requests that the child be given the Hepatitis B vaccination. She says that she is the child's maternal grandmother, and that she knows her daughter wants her grandchild to receive the vaccine.

      What is the most appropriate action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Decline to give the vaccination and request that the child attend for the MMR vaccine with a person with parental responsibility

      Correct Answer: Decline to give the vaccination without further explanation

      Explanation:

      Authorisation for Administration of Routine Medicine

      Authorisation for the administration of routine medicine can be granted by an individual who has parental responsibility for a child as defined by the Children Act 1989. However, in certain cases, it may not be clear whether the father has parental responsibility or if social services have taken on this role. For instance, if the parents are unmarried, the father can still have parental responsibility for the child as long as he is named on the birth certificate. It is important to clarify who has parental responsibility before administering any medication to a child. Proper authorisation must be obtained to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      79.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which statement accurately interprets the data from a review of statin trials, including...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately interprets the data from a review of statin trials, including the trial type, number of patients, drug used, and relative risk of cardiac event in the treatment arm for each trial?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin is the most cost-effective option and should be used as first-line treatment for all patients

      Correct Answer: The data suggests a class effect

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Statins in Primary and Secondary Prevention Trials

      The table provided contains data from both primary and secondary prevention trials, making direct comparisons between the statins difficult. While atorvastatin appears to be more potent in the three secondary prevention trials, the lack of information on confidence intervals and P values prevents a definitive conclusion. Additionally, cost-effectiveness cannot be compared without data on the cost of both drugs and outcome costs. More data is needed on the other statins in primary prevention, but the fact that all three drugs were associated with a reduction in risk suggests a class effect. A class effect refers to the effect produced by all members of a chemically related group of medications, rather than just a single drug from that class.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, nausea and mild jaundice. He admits...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, nausea and mild jaundice. He admits to a long history of regular alcohol consumption, drinking two 330ml bottles of lager per day (3% ABV) as well as a 75cl bottle of 12% ABV wine per week.

      What is this man's weekly alcohol consumption in units (to the nearest unit of alcohol)?

      Your Answer: 23 units

      Explanation:

      Calculating Units of Alcohol

      To calculate the number of units of alcohol in a drink, you need to multiply the percentage of alcohol (ABV) by the volume in millilitres and then divide by 1000. However, there are potential pitfalls to watch out for, such as converting volumes from centilitres to millilitres and adjusting for daily or weekly consumption.

      For example, if a person drinks two 330ml bottles of lager per day with a 3% ABV, the calculation would be 3% x 330ml = 9.9ml, divided by 1000 = 0.99 units per bottle, rounded up to 1 unit. This equates to 14 units per week. If they also drink one 750ml bottle of wine per week with a 12% ABV, the calculation would be 12% x 750ml = 90ml, divided by 1000 = 9 units per bottle. Therefore, the total amount of units consumed per week would be 23 units.

      It is important to check the units of volume and duration when calculating units of alcohol. The UK recommendations are for no more than 14 units per week for both sexes. While these calculations may seem simple, it is important to be prepared for any eventuality in an exam setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      88.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - For which patient would cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) be the most effective? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which patient would cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) be the most effective?

      Your Answer: A 26-year-old soldier with post traumatic stress disorder

      Correct Answer: A 12-year-old boy with autism

      Explanation:

      Conditions that Benefit from Cognitive Behavioural Therapy

      Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is an effective treatment for individuals experiencing depression, anxiety, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder. However, it may not be as effective for those with borderline personality disorder, psychosis, bereavement, and schizophrenia.

      It is important to note that CBT is not a one-size-fits-all approach and should be tailored to the individual’s specific needs. Understanding which conditions are most responsive to CBT can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      934
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - For which patients is a quadrivalent seasonal influenza vaccination recommended? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which patients is a quadrivalent seasonal influenza vaccination recommended?

      Your Answer: Patient with chronic liver disease

      Correct Answer: Patient with a previous confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine

      Explanation:

      influenza Vaccination: Contraindications and Clinical Risk Groups

      There are only a few absolute contraindications to receiving the influenza vaccine. Patients who have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous vaccine dose or any component of the vaccine should not be given the immunisation. Those with a confirmed anaphylactic hypersensitivity to egg products should also avoid the trivalent seasonal influenza vaccinations as they are grown in embryonated hens’ eggs. However, CelvapanÂź, which only protects against the influenza A (H1N1) strain, is grown in mammalian cells and can be administered to those with egg allergies.

      If a patient has a minor illness with no fever or systemic upset, vaccination can proceed. However, it is advisable to postpone immunisation if someone is acutely unwell or febrile to avoid confusion in attributing any clinical features to the vaccination itself. The vaccine can be given to anyone over the age of 6 months, but it is especially important for those in clinical risk groups.

      These clinical risk groups include individuals with chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes, pregnant women, and the immunosuppressed. The trivalent preparation is routinely given to those over 65 years old. For more detailed information about the influenza vaccine and clinical risk groups, the Green Book published by Public Health England provides in-depth information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing a seizure earlier. He has a history of epilepsy since childhood. While waiting to be seen, he has another seizure, which has lasted for more than five minutes.
      What is the most suitable initial pharmacological treatment option for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Intravenous diazepam

      Correct Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      When someone experiences a prolonged or repeated convulsive seizure, immediate emergency care is necessary. The first step is to ensure general protective measures and maintain an open airway. Buccal midazolam is the preferred first-line treatment in the community, administered by placing the medication between the cheek and gum. If this is not effective, rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam or diazepam may be used. If the seizure continues despite medication or there is a history of repeated seizures, an ambulance should be called. In the hospital setting, intravenous lorazepam is the first-line treatment, with midazolam or diazepam used as alternatives if necessary. For refractory convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous midazolam or thiopental sodium may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old woman has type II diabetes. Her HbA1c is 69 mmol/mol. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has type II diabetes. Her HbA1c is 69 mmol/mol. Her body mass index is 25 kg/mÂČ. You want to start treatment with a sulfonylurea drug but the patient is hesitant because she has heard about the risk of hypoglycaemia.
      Which of the following statements regarding hypoglycaemia and sulfonylureas is accurate? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Short-acting sulfonylureas carry the greatest risk

      Correct Answer: The risk is greatest if there is co-existing hepatic impairment

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk of Hypoglycaemia with Sulfonylureas

      Sulfonylureas are commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, but they come with a risk of hypoglycaemia, which can be dangerous. This risk is greatest in patients with co-existing hepatic impairment, as the drugs are metabolised in the liver and excreted in urine or faeces. Short-acting sulfonylureas are not necessarily riskier than longer-acting ones, but they should be used with caution in patients with renal disease. Hypoglycaemia may persist for many hours and should be treated in the hospital. Excessive dosage is a common cause of hypoglycaemia, so careful monitoring is essential. Combining sulfonylureas with bedtime isophane insulin may be an option when other treatments fail, but it doesn’t reduce the risk of hypoglycaemia. Patients and healthcare providers should be aware of the risks associated with sulfonylureas and take steps to minimise them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic with multiple itchy skin lesions on...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic with multiple itchy skin lesions on his arms and trunk. The lesions appear scaly and have a coppery brown color. The doctor suspects pityriasis versicolor. What is the best treatment option for this condition?

      Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor can be treated with ketoconazole shampoo.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You visit a 78-year-old woman at home and she has difficulty understanding the...

    Correct

    • You visit a 78-year-old woman at home and she has difficulty understanding the treatment that she takes for her asthma. You think that this is largely because she has impaired hearing.

      In general terms, which of the following strategies is most likely to help?

      Your Answer: Minimising background noise

      Explanation:

      Communicating with Deaf and Hard-of-Hearing Patients

      When communicating with deaf and hard-of-hearing patients, it is important to minimise background noise and speak clearly at a normal or near normal rate. Non-verbal communication can also be helpful, as well as decreasing the pitch of your voice. Shouting should never be used, as it can be unpleasant and appear rude. Instead, use the patient’s name to get their attention and ask if they can hear you. Face them when speaking, as many deaf people use lip-reading to supplement their hearing aid(s) and what hearing they have. Remember that clear and polite communication is appreciated by the deaf and hard of hearing community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      57.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A man in his early 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Despite losing weight and taking metformin and gliclazide, his HbA1c remains at 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). The patient consents to begin insulin treatment. As per NICE recommendations, what type of insulin should be attempted first?

      Your Answer: Glargine

      Correct Answer: Isophane (NPH insulin)

      Explanation:

      If a person requires assistance with insulin injections, insulin detemir or insulin glargine may be used instead of NPH insulin to reduce the frequency of injections from twice to once daily. Additionally, if the person experiences recurrent symptomatic hypoglycemic episodes or would need twice-daily NPH insulin injections in combination with oral antidiabetic drugs, insulin detemir or insulin glargine should be considered as an alternative. These insulin options may be administered separately or as a pre-mixed (biphasic) human insulin preparation.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 78-year-old male presents with cognitive impairment and is diagnosed with dementia.

    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents with cognitive impairment and is diagnosed with dementia.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of the dementia?

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dementia: Types and Symptoms

      Dementia is a clinical condition that involves the loss of cognitive function in multiple domains beyond what is expected from normal aging. This condition affects areas such as memory, attention, language, and problem-solving. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, accounting for about two-thirds of all cases. The initial symptom is usually forgetfulness for newly acquired information, followed by disorientation and progressive cognitive decline with personality disruption.

      Other types of dementia include blood vessel disease (multi-infarct dementia), dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease). Less common disorders such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, progressive supranuclear palsy, Huntington’s disease, and AIDS-associated dementia also contribute to the remaining cases.

      It is important to understand the different types and symptoms of dementia to provide appropriate care and support for individuals affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 40-year-old man presents with a one-year history of involuntary movements, behavioural changes...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a one-year history of involuntary movements, behavioural changes and mild memory loss. His father died with similar problems at the age of 55.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Correct Answer: Huntington’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Chorea Disorders: Huntington’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Disease, Benign Hereditary Chorea, Sydenham’s Chorea, and Wilson’s Disease

      Chorea is a neurological disorder characterized by involuntary writhing movements. However, not all chorea disorders are the same. Here are five different chorea disorders and their distinguishing features:

      1. Huntington’s Disease: This is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that usually presents in the third or fourth decade of life. In addition to chorea, patients may also experience dystonia, un-coordination, cognitive decline, and behavioral difficulties.

      2. Alzheimer’s Disease: Patients with Alzheimer’s usually present after the age of 50 years with slowly progressive dementia. However, chorea is not a feature of this condition.

      3. Benign Hereditary Chorea: This is a rare autosomal-dominant condition that begins in early childhood. Unlike Huntington’s disease, the choreiform movements do not progress and are not associated with cognitive and psychiatric problems. Occasionally, developmental abnormalities of thyroid and lung tissue are also present.

      4. Sydenham’s Chorea: This autoimmune process is triggered after infection with a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus. It typically occurs between the ages of 5 and 15 years and usually resolves within a few months.

      5. Wilson’s Disease: This rare autosomal-recessive disorder of copper metabolism usually presents with liver disease in children or with neuropsychiatric illness in young adults. Neurological features include tremor, choreiform movement, and Parkinsonian features.

      Knowing the distinguishing features of these chorea disorders can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on her face.
      Which of the following factors is most important in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer: Colour of the lesion

      Correct Answer: Thickness of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lentigo Maligna: Early Stage Melanoma

      Lentigo maligna is a type of melanoma that is in its early stages and is confined to the epidermis. It is often referred to as ‘in situ’ melanoma. This type of melanoma typically appears as a flat, slowly growing, freckle-like lesion on the facial or sun-exposed skin of patients in their 60s or older. Over time, it can extend to several centimetres and eventually change into an invasive malignant melanoma.

      To identify lentigo maligna, the ABCDE rule can be used. This rule stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving. If there is a change in size, outline, colour, surface, contour, or elevation of the lesion, malignant change should be suspected. Lentigo maligna spreads via the lymphatics, and satellite lesions are commonly seen.

      The prognosis of lentigo maligna is directly related to the thickness of the tumour assessed at histological examination. The thickness is measured using the Breslow thickness or Clark level of invasion. The site of the lesion also affects the prognosis. Patients with lesions on the trunk fare better than those with facial lesions but worse than those with lesions on the limbs.

      In conclusion, understanding lentigo maligna is crucial in identifying and treating early-stage melanoma. Regular skin checks and following the ABCDE rule can help detect any changes in the skin and prevent the progression of lentigo maligna into invasive malignant melanoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old man with a history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency visits his doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency visits his doctor complaining of symptoms suggestive of a urinary tract infection. The physician prescribes an antibiotic. After a few days, the man's partner notices that he appears pale and jaundiced and is feeling unwell. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Haemolysis in G6PD is caused by the sulfamethoxazole component of co-trimoxazole, not by the trimethoprim component.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old woman, with type 2 diabetes, has been successful in controlling her...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman, with type 2 diabetes, has been successful in controlling her HbA1c through diet alone. She has lost 5 kilograms in the past 6 months by making changes to her diet and exercising regularly. Despite her progress, she is aware that her BMI categorizes her as 'obese' and wants to continue losing weight. During her clinic visit, she inquired about foods she should avoid.

      What foods should this patient steer clear of?

      Your Answer: Oily fish

      Correct Answer: Foods marketed specifically for diabetics

      Explanation:

      NICE doesn’t recommend diabetic foods for individuals with diabetes. Instead, it is important to prioritize a healthy and balanced diet that includes high-fibre, low-glycaemic-index sources of carbohydrates (such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and pulses), low-fat dairy products, and oily fish. It is also advised to limit the consumption of foods that contain saturated and trans fatty acids. Additionally, the use of foods marketed specifically for individuals with diabetes should be discouraged.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old man presents with progressively worsening shortness of breath and a daily...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with progressively worsening shortness of breath and a daily morning cough productive of off-white phlegm. He feels intermittently wheezy. He has smoked 20 cigarettes a day and has done so since the age of 20.

      A chest x ray shows hyperinflated lung fields and spirometry demonstrates an obstructive picture with a forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) of 50% of predicted. He takes no regular medication and has no other known medical problems.

      His mother also had chest problems and died after she developed liver failure. Looking at some recent blood tests you can see he has abnormalities of his liver function.

      Which of the following blood investigations is most likely to yield useful diagnostic information?

      Your Answer: Alpha1-antitrypsin levels

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor

      Explanation:

      Consideration of Alpha 1-Antitrypsin Deficiency in a Young Smoker with COPD

      This patient’s young age, symptoms, chest x-ray findings, and spirometry results suggest the possibility of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic condition that can cause pulmonary disease and liver disease. As a smoker, this patient is at increased risk for COPD, but the early onset of the disease raises suspicion for an underlying genetic cause. Additionally, the family history supports the consideration of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

      To confirm the diagnosis, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin levels would be the most appropriate blood investigation. Other blood tests, such as ACE levels for sarcoidosis, copper and ceruloplasmin levels for Wilson’s disease, ferritin levels for hemochromatosis, and rheumatoid factor for rheumatoid arthritis, are not likely to be helpful in this case.

      It is important to consider alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency in young patients with COPD, especially those with a family history of the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further lung and liver damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man complains of pain and stiffness in his hands that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man complains of pain and stiffness in his hands that has been progressively worsening over the past few months. He reports experiencing stiffness in the mornings as well.

      During the examination, you observe swelling in both the metacarpal phalangeal (MCP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. One of the fingers is swollen throughout its entire length.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is the most likely diagnosis when there is swelling in the DIP and dactylitis in an inflammatory arthritis case, while morning stiffness indicates either rheumatoid or psoriatic arthritis.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) concerned about his memory....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) concerned about his memory. He has felt more forgetful over the last six months; his wife mentions that he seems to ask the same questions repeatedly.
      The GP decides to conduct a Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).
      What is the most appropriate advice to provide the patient before this test?

      Your Answer: The MMSE involves tests of immediate and delayed recall

      Explanation:

      The MMSE: A Test of Cognition and Recall

      The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a widely used test to assess cognitive function in patients. It consists of 30 items that evaluate various aspects of cognition, including immediate and delayed recall, fine motor skills, calculation, language, and comprehension. One of the tasks involves asking the patient to recall three words immediately and later on in the test. A score of 27 or lower on the MMSE may indicate dementia.

      While the MMSE does test fine motor skills by asking the patient to copy intersecting pentagons, it may not be the best screening tool for general practice. GPs may find other tests, such as the 6-Item Cognitive Impairment Test or the GP Assessment of Cognition Test, more suitable for their needs.

      It’s important to note that the MMSE is not designed to assess affective disorders or delirium. Therefore, it should not be used for this purpose. Overall, the MMSE is a useful tool for clinicians to establish a baseline understanding of a patient’s cognitive state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old female patient is seeking your guidance on vulval itching.

    What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient is seeking your guidance on vulval itching.

      What is the primary reason behind pruritus vulvae?

      Your Answer: Lichen simplex

      Correct Answer: Contact dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Contact dermatitis is the leading reason for pruritus vulvae, which can be attributed to a delayed allergic reaction to substances such as medication, contraceptive creams/gel, and latex, or an irritant reaction to chemical or physical triggers like humidity, detergents, solvents, or friction/scratching.

      Pruritus vulvae, or vaginal itching, is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 10 women who may seek medical assistance at some point. Unlike pruritus ani, pruritus vulvae typically has an underlying cause. The most common cause is irritant contact dermatitis, which can be triggered by latex condoms or lubricants. Other potential causes include atopic dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and psoriasis, which is seen in around one-third of patients with psoriasis.

      To manage pruritus vulvae, women should be advised to take showers instead of baths and clean the vulval area with an emollient such as Epaderm or Diprobase. It is recommended to clean only once a day as repeated cleaning can worsen the symptoms. Most of the underlying conditions can be treated with topical steroids. If seborrhoeic dermatitis is suspected, a combined steroid-antifungal treatment may be attempted. Overall, seeking medical advice is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment of pruritus vulvae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint pains in his knees and ankles. In the last four weeks, he has experienced recurrent fevers reaching up to 39.5ÂșC that resolve spontaneously without the use of antipyretics. His mother also notes the emergence of a transient pink rash during the fevers. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is characterized by joint symptoms, high fevers that quickly return to normal, and a salmon pink rash. Other symptoms include lymph node enlargement, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and serositis (pericarditis, pleuritis, peritonitis).

      Oligoarticular JIA may also cause joint symptoms, but it doesn’t explain the fever or rash. Osgood-Schlatter disease typically presents with knee pain, but it doesn’t account for the other symptoms reported in this scenario. Osteochondritis Dissecans may cause aching and swollen joints that worsen with activity, but it doesn’t explain the fevers or pink rash. Septic arthritis is less likely in this case since there is no specific joint that is red and swollen, and the child doesn’t appear to be generally unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      84.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Mental Health (0/3) 0%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (2/4) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Population Health (0/2) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/3) 0%
Consulting In General Practice (1/1) 100%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Passmed