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Question 1
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A 21-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with intermittent watery diarrhoea and lower colicky abdominal pain. He has experienced these symptoms for two years and during this time has lost over a stone in weight. Recently he has noticed a strange red rash on his shins. Past medical history includes a diagnosis of a fissure-in-ano three years ago.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:Diagnosis of Crohn’s Disease: Clinical Picture and Differential Diagnosis
The clinical presentation of a patient with weight loss and a red rash on the shins suggests a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. This condition typically affects individuals between the ages of 15-30 and is characterized by symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss.
A history of fissure-in-ano further supports the possibility of Crohn’s disease, as this condition is commonly associated with perianal disease. To confirm the diagnosis, a full blood count and colonoscopy with biopsy are necessary. Crohn’s disease is transmural and can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, leading to the formation of skip lesions between inflamed and unaffected bowel.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include infective colitis, ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome, and appendicitis. However, infective colitis typically has a shorter duration of symptoms, while ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhea and mucous discharge. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and a 2-year history effectively rules out appendicitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and a painful lump near his anus. Upon examination, a 4 cm peri-anal swelling is observed, accompanied by surrounding erythema. The swelling is very tender and fluctuant.
What is the most effective treatment option?Your Answer: Incision and drainage
Explanation:The Importance of Incision and Drainage for Abscess Treatment
When it comes to treating an abscess, the most appropriate course of action is always incision and drainage of the pus. This procedure can typically be done with local anesthesia and involves sending a sample of the pus to the lab for cultures and sensitivities. While severe abscesses may require additional medication like flucloxacillin after the incision and drainage, a biopsy is not necessary in most cases. It’s important to note that simply taking pain medication and waiting for the abscess to resolve is unlikely to be effective. Instead, seeking prompt medical attention for incision and drainage is crucial for successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 3
Correct
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An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with diffuse abdominal pain and one episode of dark rectal bleeding. He is noticed to be in fast atrial fibrillation. He is an ex-smoker and drinks three pints of beer per week. On examination, he is not peritonitic, but his pain is generalised and only temporarily alleviated by opioid analgesia. His bloods show: white blood count 14 (4.5 to 11.0 × 109/l), c-reactive protein 23 (normal: Less than 10 mg/L) and arterial lactate 4.8 (normal 1 ± 0.5 mmol/l4). Abdominal and chest X-rays are unremarkable.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bowel ischaemia
Explanation:When a patient presents with consistent abdominal pain, bowel ischaemia should be considered as a possible cause. This is especially true for elderly patients who experience crampy abdominal pain followed by dark rectal bleeding. Bowel ischaemia occurs when the bowel mucosa becomes necrotic due to a lack of blood flow. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of mesenteric artery embolisation, which can lead to bowel ischaemia. A raised lactate level is also indicative of bowel ischaemia. Haemorrhoids, on the other hand, would not cause an acute abdomen and typically present as bright red blood on wiping stool. Ulcerative colitis is more common in younger patients and is characterised by episodes of bloody diarrhoea. It is not associated with smoking and acute exacerbations are characterised by many episodes of diarrhoea, some of which may be bloody, and fever. Bowel volvulus, which is twisting of the bowel leading to obstruction, would cause abdominal distension, pain, constipation, and bloody stool. However, this patient’s normal appearance on plain film X-rays makes bowel obstruction or volvulus unlikely. Diverticulitis, which is inflammation of outpouchings of the large bowel, usually presents with gradual onset of left iliac fossa pain, loose stools, and fever. It is associated with more episodes of loose stools and fever and can progress to shock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 4
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A 65 year old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and distension. He reports not having a bowel movement in 4 days and is now experiencing vomiting. An abdominal X-ray reveals enlarged loops of the large intestine. The patient has no history of surgery and a physical examination shows a soft, tender abdomen without palpable masses. A rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. What is the probable cause of the obstruction?
Your Answer: Sigmoid carcinoma
Explanation:Causes of Large Bowel Obstruction: Differential Diagnosis
Large bowel obstruction can be caused by various conditions, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for appropriate management. The following are some possible causes of large bowel obstruction and their distinguishing features:
1. Sigmoid Carcinoma: Colorectal cancer is a common cause of large bowel obstruction, with the sigmoid colon being the most commonly affected site. Patients may present with abdominal pain, distension, and constipation. Treatment usually involves emergency surgery.
2. Sigmoid Volvulus: This occurs when the sigmoid colon twists on itself, leading to obstruction. The classic coffee bean sign may be seen on abdominal X-ray. Treatment involves endoscopic or surgical decompression.
3. Incarcerated Inguinal Hernia: This occurs when a portion of the intestine protrudes through the inguinal canal and becomes trapped. Patients may present with a palpable mass in the groin, which is not described in the case history above. Treatment involves surgical repair.
4. Adhesions: Adhesions are bands of scar tissue that can form after abdominal surgery. They can cause bowel obstruction by kinking or compressing the intestine. Adhesions usually affect the small bowel, but they can also involve the large bowel. Treatment involves surgery.
5. Constipation: Chronic constipation can cause pseudo-obstruction, which mimics mechanical obstruction. However, the finding of an empty rectum on digital rectal examination makes constipation unlikely as the sole cause of large bowel obstruction.
In conclusion, large bowel obstruction can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 5
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A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated with a loss of appetite and nausea. On examination, the patient is apyrexial, with a blood pressure of 122/80 mmHg and a heart rate of 92 bpm. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness at McBurney’s point. Urine dip reveals a trace of glucose.
What would be the most appropriate investigation to diagnose the patient's condition?Your Answer: Ultrasound abdomen
Explanation:Imaging and Blood Tests for Suspected Appendicitis in Pregnancy
Appendicitis is a common surgical problem during pregnancy, often presenting with non-specific symptoms and a positive McBurney’s sign. Pregnant women may not exhibit the classic low-grade fever and may experience loss of appetite and nausea. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the preferred imaging study for suspected appendicitis, with MRI used when ultrasound is inconclusive. Blood tests, including FBC, urea and electrolytes, and LFTs, may show a raised white cell count but are not definitive for diagnosis. CT scan is a last resort and not preferred in pregnancy. Ultrasound KUB is useful for renal causes of abdominal pain but not for diagnosing appendicitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal cancer. His father passed away from the disease at the age of 35, and the patient is worried about his own risk. He has no knowledge of any other cancer in his family.
What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Arrange colonoscopy
Explanation:Importance of Colonoscopy in Patients with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
Explanation:
It is crucial to consider familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) in patients with a family history of colorectal cancer at a young age. FAP is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene, leading to the development of numerous polyps in the colon. If left untreated, patients with FAP develop colorectal cancer by the age of 35-40.In this scenario, the patient’s father likely had FAP, and the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and developing the disease. Therefore, regardless of the patient’s symptoms or blood results, a colonoscopy is necessary to review the colon and identify any polyps. Treatment for FAP involves a total colectomy at around the age of 20.
Reassurance would be inappropriate in this scenario, and a digital rectal examination alone is not sufficient. It is essential to arrange a colonoscopy for patients with a family history of FAP to detect and treat the condition early. Additionally, it is recommended to review the patient with a view to colonoscopy at the age of 30 to monitor for any polyp development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 7
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A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding that has been going on for 2 days. The bleeding worsens after passing stools. He has recently increased his fibre intake, but he still finds it very difficult to pass stools. Defecation causes him severe pain that lasts for hours. During the examination, you try to perform a DRE, but the patient experiences severe pain, making it impossible to complete the procedure. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anal fissure
Explanation:Common Anal Conditions and Their Differentiating Features
Anal conditions can cause discomfort and pain, but each has its own unique symptoms and characteristics. Anal fissures, for example, are caused by a tear in the sensitive skin-lined lower anal canal and cause acute pain on defecation. Treatment involves analgesia or topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) or diltiazem to relax the sphincter. Rectal prolapse, on the other hand, causes a mass protruding through the anus and may also result in constipation and/or faecal incontinence. Fistula in ano is an abnormal connection between the anal canal and perianal skin, while anal carcinoma is a rare but serious condition that presents with rectal bleeding, unexplained weight loss, persistent change in bowel habit, iron deficiency anaemia, and abdominal or rectal mass. Finally, haemorrhoids are vascular cushions in the anal canal that usually cause painless PR bleeding, but rarely cause discomfort. Understanding the differentiating features of these common anal conditions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 6-month history of rectal bleeding, altered bowel habit and weight loss. Given his strong family history of colorectal cancer, the physician wants to investigate and rule out this diagnosis.
What would be the most suitable investigation to perform in a patient with suspected colorectal cancer?Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tools for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a prevalent malignancy in the western world, with symptoms varying depending on the location of the cancer within the intestinal tract. Colonoscopy is currently the preferred diagnostic tool for young, otherwise healthy patients. Management decisions are made after multidisciplinary team discussions, with surgical removal of the tumor being a common approach. Preoperative radiotherapy may be used to shrink tumors, and post-operative adjuvant chemotherapy can improve survival rates. Other diagnostic tools include endorectal ultrasound for staging rectal cancers, pelvic MRI for detailed staging and operative planning, and CT colonography as a sensitive diagnostic test when colonoscopy is high risk or incomplete. However, CT colonography cannot take biopsies or remove polyps. While raised CEA levels may indicate colorectal cancer, they can also be elevated for other reasons, and normal levels do not rule out the possibility of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 9
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At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist for a colectomy. The referral letter mentions that the patient has been screened for a genetic abnormality and that a mutation was found in a gene on chromosome 5q21.
What is the most likely underlying condition?Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
Explanation:Inherited Conditions Predisposing to Colorectal Carcinoma
There are several inherited conditions that increase an individual’s risk of developing colorectal carcinoma. These conditions can be divided into two groups: polyposis syndromes and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer.
The polyposis syndromes can be further divided into adenomatous polyposis and hamartomatous polyposis. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common and important of the polyposis syndromes. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is associated with the development of over 100 polyps in the large bowel by the mid-teens. Patients with FAP typically undergo prophylactic colectomy before the age of 30.
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is one of the hamartomatous polyposis conditions and is characterized by the presence of pigmented lesions on the lips. Patients with this syndrome are predisposed to cancers of the small and large bowel, testis, stomach, pancreas, and breast.
Familial juvenile polyposis is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that occurs in children and teenagers.
Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer is the most common inherited condition leading to colorectal cancer. It is caused by defects in mismatch repair genes and carries a 70% lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer.
Cowden’s disease is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that causes macrocephaly, hamartomatous polypoid disease, and benign skin tumors.
In summary, understanding these inherited conditions and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention of colorectal carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery. When examining this patient after her surgery, you notice she has an end colostomy.
What feature in particular will suggest that this patient has had a Hartmann’s procedure and not an abdominoperineal (AP) resection?Your Answer: Presence of rectum
Explanation:The patient has a presence of rectum, indicating that they have undergone a Hartmann’s procedure, which is commonly performed for perforated diverticulitis or to palliate rectal carcinoma. This involves resecting the sigmoid colon and leaving the rectal stump, which is oversewn. An end colostomy is created in the left iliac fossa, which can be reversed later to restore intestinal continuity. The midline scar observed is not exclusive to a Hartmann’s procedure, as AP resections and other abdominal surgeries can also be carried out via a midline incision. The presence of an end colostomy confirms that a Hartmann’s procedure has been performed. The Rutherford-Morison scar, a transverse scar used for colonic procedures and kidney transplants, is not unique to either an AP resection or a Hartmann’s procedure. The presence of solid faeces in the stoma bag is expected for a colostomy, while ileostomies typically contain liquid faeces and are usually located in the right lower quadrant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 11
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A 70-year-old man has been recommended for colonoscopy due to ongoing rectal bleeding and unexplained weight loss over the past 3 months. During a direct rectal examination, his GP detected a mass in the anal sphincter area. Unfortunately, further testing confirmed the presence of a mass in the distal part of his rectum. What would be the most suitable surgical procedure for this patient?
Your Answer: Abdominoperineal resection
Explanation:Surgical Options for Rectal Tumours
When a patient presents with a rectal tumour, there are several surgical options available depending on the location of the tumour. In the case of a tumour in the lower third of the rectum, near the anal margin, an abdominoperineal (AP) resection is the appropriate treatment. This involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and part of the descending colon, resulting in a permanent end-colostomy.
An anterior resection, on the other hand, is the removal of the rectum and can be either high or low depending on the tumour’s position. However, this procedure does not involve the removal of the anus and would not be suitable for a tumour near the anal margin.
In some cases, a Hartmann’s procedure may be performed as an emergency surgery, involving the removal of the sigmoid colon and upper rectum, and the formation of an end-colostomy. This procedure may be reversed at a later date with an anastomosis formed between the remaining bowel and lower rectum.
Finally, a right or left hemicolectomy may be performed, involving the removal of the right or left hemicolon, respectively. However, these procedures are not appropriate for rectal tumours near the anal margin.
In conclusion, the appropriate surgical option for a rectal tumour depends on the tumour’s location and the patient’s individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 12
Correct
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A woman was brought to the Emergency Department after being stabbed in the abdomen, one inch (2.54 cm) superior to the umbilicus in the midline.
Assuming the knife entered the peritoneal cavity, which one of the following abdominal wall structures would the knife penetrate first?Your Answer: Aponeurosis of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles
Explanation:Layers of the Anterior Abdominal Wall
The anterior abdominal wall is composed of several layers that provide support and protection to the abdominal organs. Understanding the layers of the abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging.
Skin and Superficial Fascia
The outermost layer of the abdominal wall is the skin, followed by the superficial fascia. The superficial fascia contains adipose tissue and is important for insulation and energy storage.Anterior Rectus Sheath
The anterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles. It covers the rectus muscle and provides additional support to the abdominal wall.Rectus Muscle
The rectus muscle is located deep to the anterior rectus sheath and is responsible for flexing the trunk. It is an important muscle for maintaining posture and stability.Posterior Rectus Sheath
The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the internal oblique and transversus muscles. It provides additional support to the rectus muscle and helps to maintain the integrity of the abdominal wall.Transversalis Fascia
The transversalis fascia is a thin layer of connective tissue that lies deep to the posterior rectus sheath. It separates the abdominal wall from the peritoneum and provides additional support to the abdominal organs.Extraperitoneal Fat and Peritoneum
The extraperitoneal fat is a layer of adipose tissue that lies deep to the transversalis fascia. It provides insulation and energy storage. The peritoneum is a thin layer of tissue that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the abdominal organs.Conclusion
Understanding the layers of the anterior abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging. Each layer provides important support and protection to the abdominal organs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 13
Correct
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A junior resident performing his first appendectomy was unable to locate the base of the appendix due to extensive adhesions in the peritoneal cavity. The senior physician recommended identifying the caecum first and then locating the base of the appendix.
What anatomical feature(s) on the caecum would have been utilized to locate the base of the appendix?Your Answer: Teniae coli
Explanation:Anatomy of the Large Intestine: Differentiating Taeniae Coli, Ileal Orifice, Omental Appendages, Haustra Coli, and Semilunar Folds
The large intestine is a vital part of the digestive system, responsible for absorbing water and electrolytes from undigested food. It is composed of several distinct structures, each with its own unique function. Here, we will differentiate five of these structures: taeniae coli, ileal orifice, omental appendages, haustra coli, and semilunar folds.
Taeniae Coli
The taeniae coli are three bands of longitudinal muscle on the surface of the large intestine. They are responsible for the characteristic haustral folds of the large intestine and meet at the appendix.Ileal Orifice
The ileal orifice is the opening where the ileum connects to the caecum. It is surrounded by the ileocaecal valve and is not useful in locating the appendix.Omental Appendages
The omental appendages, also known as appendices epiploicae, are fatty appendages unique to the large intestine. They are found all over the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.Haustra Coli
The haustra are multiple pouches in the wall of the large intestine, formed where the longitudinal muscle layer of the wall is deficient. They are not useful in locating the appendix.Semilunar Folds
The semilunar folds are the folds found along the lining of the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.Understanding the anatomy of the large intestine and its various structures is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By differentiating these structures, healthcare professionals can better identify and address issues related to the large intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 14
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and fever, associated with vomiting. Following examination, the GP suspects a diagnosis of acute appendicitis and refers the patient to the surgical assessment unit at the local hospital. With regard to acute appendicitis, which one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: It can result in thrombosis of the appendicular artery (endarteritis obliterans)
Explanation:Appendicitis is a common condition that occurs when the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. It can be caused by obstruction of the appendix, usually by a faecolith, leading to the build-up of mucinous secretions and subsequent infection. Alternatively, pressure within the closed system can compress the superficial veins and eventually lead to thrombosis of the appendicular artery, resulting in ischaemic necrosis and gangrene. Appendicitis is most common between the ages of 10 and 30 years, and conservative management is rarely effective. Without treatment, appendicitis can progress to perforation and generalised peritonitis, which can be life-threatening. The pain associated with appendicitis is initially referred to the epigastric region and later localises to the right iliac fossa. Surgical intervention is almost always required, except in the case of an appendix mass or abscess, where removal is advised after an interval of 6-8 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 15
Correct
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A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum. He had previously received treatment for haemorrhoids, including dietary advice, rectal analgesics, and haemorrhoid banding, but his symptoms have persisted. What is the next step in managing this man before conducting an examination under anaesthesia?
Your Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic Procedures for Haemorrhoidal Disease
Haemorrhoidal disease is a common condition that can be managed with dietary changes, analgesia, and anti-inflammatory agents. However, if symptoms persist, outpatient interventions such as banding or injection may be necessary. In some cases, further investigation is required to rule out colorectal cancer.
Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a useful tool for young patients with low risk of cancer, while older patients or those with a family history of colorectal cancer may require a full colonoscopy. If sigmoidoscopy is normal, an examination under anaesthesia can be performed to diagnose and treat any haemorrhoids, fissures, fistulas, or abscesses.
A barium follow-through is not necessary in the absence of suspicion of malignancy. Similarly, a CT scan or MRI of the abdomen and pelvis is not the best choice for direct visualisation of the bowel mucosa.
In summary, a range of diagnostic procedures are available for haemorrhoidal disease, depending on the patient’s age, risk factors, and symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old professional bodybuilder comes to the clinic with a lump in the left groin that appears on and off. The patient reports that the lump is influenced by posture and coughing but does not cause any pain. Upon examination, the doctor diagnoses the patient with a hernia.
What is a true statement regarding groin hernias?Your Answer: A direct inguinal hernia lies medial to the inferior epigastric vessels
Explanation:Understanding Groin Hernias: Types, Location, and Risks
Groin hernias are a common condition that occurs when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall. There are different types of groin hernias, including direct inguinal hernias and femoral hernias.
A direct inguinal hernia occurs when there is a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, and the protrusion happens medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. On the other hand, a femoral hernia emerges lateral to the pubic tubercle.
Contrary to popular belief, femoral hernias are more common in women than in men. While direct inguinal hernias can become incarcerated, only a small percentage of them will become strangulated per year. Femoral hernias, however, are at a much higher risk of becoming strangulated.
While most groin hernias should be repaired, especially when they become symptomatic, patients who are unfit for surgery should be treated conservatively. This may include using a truss to support the hernia.
In conclusion, understanding the different types and locations of groin hernias, as well as their risks, can help patients make informed decisions about their treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify it during an open repair of a perforated gastric ulcer by the operating surgeon, as observed by a medical student?
Your Answer: It provides a route of access to the lesser sac
Explanation:The Greater Omentum: An Integral Structure with Surgical Importance
The greater omentum, also known as the gastrocolic omentum, is a double sheet of peritoneum that hangs down like an apron overlying loops of intestine. It is made up of four layers, two of which descend from the greater curvature of the stomach and are continuous with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the stomach. The other two layers run between the anterior layers and the transverse colon, loosely blending with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the colon and the transverse mesocolon above it.
Contrary to the belief that it has no surgical importance, the greater omentum is of paramount surgical importance. Surgeons use it to buttress an intestinal anastomosis or in the closure of a perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer. It also attempts to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections, earning it the nickname great policeman of the abdomen. The greater omentum is supplied by the right and left gastric arteries, and its blood supply may be cut off if it undergoes torsion.
Furthermore, the greater omentum is often found plugging the neck of a hernial sac, preventing the entry of coils of the small intestine and strangulation of the bowel. In an acutely inflamed appendix, the omentum adheres to the appendix and wraps itself around the infected organ, localizing the infection to a small area of the peritoneal cavity. However, in the first two years of life, the greater omentum is poorly developed and less protective in young children.
In conclusion, the greater omentum is an integral structure with significant surgical importance, providing access to the lesser sac and attempting to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 18
Correct
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You are a Foundation Year 2 (FY2) doctor on your general surgical rotation, and the consultant has asked you to scrub in to help assist. He informs you that it will be a fantastic learning opportunity and will ask you questions throughout. He goes to commence the operation and the questions begin.
When making a midline abdominal incision, what would be the correct order of layers through the abdominal wall?Your Answer: Skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, peritoneum
Explanation:Different Types of Abdominal Incisions and Their Layers
Abdominal incisions are commonly used in surgical procedures. There are different types of abdominal incisions, each with its own set of layers. Here are some of the most common types of abdominal incisions and their layers:
1. Midline Incision: This incision is made in the middle of the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. This incision is versatile and can be used for most abdominal procedures.
2. Transverse Incision: This incision is made horizontally across the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus muscle, transversus abdominis, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.
3. Paramedian Incision above the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline above the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, posterior rectus sheath, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.
4. Paramedian Incision below the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline below the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.
Knowing the different types of abdominal incisions and their layers can help surgeons choose the best approach for a particular procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in bowel habit towards constipation arrives in the Emergency Department with a tender, distended abdomen. She has also been suffering with a chest infection recently and has known chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4. Bowel sounds are absent. The rectum is empty on examination. Abdominal X-ray reveals distended loops of large bowel, consistent with large bowel obstruction.
Which one of these investigations should be performed next?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin®
Explanation:Imaging and Diagnostic Procedures for Bowel Obstruction in CKD Patients
Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin® is a safe and effective diagnostic tool for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who present with bowel obstruction. This oral contrast medium provides crucial diagnostic information without posing a significant risk of renal injury. It is important to differentiate between large bowel obstruction and pseudo-obstruction, which can be achieved through imaging studies. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is not indicated in the absence of trauma. Gastroscopy is not necessary as the issue is bowel obstruction, and an ultrasound would not provide the level of detail needed. While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can provide quality images, a CT scan is more readily available and can be organized faster.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 20
Correct
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A 65-year-old male patient is admitted with severe abdominal pain and is diagnosed with mesenteric vascular occlusion. The small bowel becomes gangrenous and requires resection. What is a potential complication of this surgical procedure?
Your Answer: Nephrolithiasis
Explanation:Complications of Short Bowel Syndrome
Short bowel syndrome refers to clinical problems that arise from the removal of varying lengths of the small bowel. One common complication is nephrolithiasis, which is caused by enteric hyperoxaluria resulting from increased absorption of oxalate in the large intestine. Bile acids and fatty acids increase colonic mucosal permeability, leading to increased oxalate absorption. Steatorrhoea is also common due to fat malabsorption in the small bowel. Weight loss, not weight gain, is a complication of this syndrome. Diarrhoea is a severe complication, especially after ileal resection, which results in malabsorption of bile acid and stimulates fluid secretion in the intestinal lumen. Nutritional deficiencies of vitamins A, D, E, K, folate, and B12 are also seen. Gastric hypersecretion is common, but achlorhydria is not a complication of small bowel resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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