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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of left loin pain, offensive smelling urine, and fever. The child's temperature is 38.5°C and a clean catch urine test shows positive results for blood, protein, and nitrites. What is the recommended initial antibiotic treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Antibiotic Recommendations for Urinary Tract Infection in Children
When it comes to treating urinary tract infections in children, it is important to choose an antibiotic that has a low potential for resistance. According to the NICE guidelines on Urinary tract infection in children (CG54), cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav are recommended options. On the other hand, quinolones and tetracyclines are not recommended for this age group. While amoxicillin and trimethoprim are potential options, they also carry the risk of resistance. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully consider the choice of antibiotic to ensure effective treatment and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old man who engages in sexual activity with other men comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, pain in the upper right quadrant of his abdomen, and yellowing of his eyes. He has had several casual sexual partners in the past few months and confesses to not consistently using protection. He has not traveled abroad recently. During the physical examination, he displays jaundice, tenderness in the upper right quadrant, and a palpable liver edge. What is the most probable infection he has contracted?
Your Answer: Hepatitis B
Explanation:Likely Diagnosis of Hepatitis in a Male Patient
Although hepatitis can be caused by cytomegalovirus (CMV) and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), it is unlikely that these viruses are the cause of hepatitis in a male patient over the age of 55. However, hepatitis A is a possible diagnosis, especially in men who have sex with men, despite no history of overseas travel. While hepatitis C can also be spread sexually, its prevalence among men who have sex with men is lower than that of hepatitis B. Additionally, hepatitis B is more easily transmitted through sexual contact, making it the more likely diagnosis in this case. It is important to note that there is a 5-10% chance that the patient may become a chronic carrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with HIV disease visits the clinic with complaints of fatigue and weakness. His lab results, taken eight weeks apart, are shown below.
Results 1:
Hb - 145 g/L
WBC - 4.0 ×109/L
Platelets - 70 ×109/L
CD4 - 120 cells/mm3
Results 2:
Hb - 76 g/L
WBC - 4.3 ×109/L
Platelets - 200 ×109/L
CD4 - 250 cells/mm3
The normal ranges for these values are:
Hb - 130-180 g/L
WBC - 4-11 ×109/L
Platelets - 150-400 ×109/L
What is the most likely explanation for these results?Your Answer: Started highly active antiretroviral therapy
Explanation:HAART and its Effects on CD4 and Platelet Counts
Treatment with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) has been initiated between the first and second test results. This therapy involves a combination of three or more antiretroviral agents from different classes, including two nucleoside analogues and either a protease inhibitor or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. The use of HAART has resulted in an increase in both CD4 count and platelet count.
However, antiretroviral therapies can also cause anaemia in HIV-positive patients, with zidovudine (AZT) being the most common culprit due to its bone marrow suppression effects. In severe cases, patients may require blood transfusions. Macrocytosis, or the presence of abnormally large red blood cells, is a common finding in patients taking AZT and can be used as an indicator of adherence to therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with blood-tinged diarrhoea that has a foul smell. She had been feeling well until three days ago when she started experiencing abdominal discomfort and frequent bowel movements. Her vital signs are stable with a blood pressure of 105/70 mmHg, pulse rate of 90 bpm, respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min, and body temperature of 38.1 °C. She is alert and oriented. Mild abdominal tenderness is present, particularly in the right lower quadrant, without rigidity or guarding. A tender mass is palpable in the right lower quadrant. The anterior lower leg has multiple erythematous and tender patches. A stool sample is sent for examination of red cells, leukocytes, bacteria, ova and parasites, and culture.
Which of the following microorganisms is most likely responsible for this condition?Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Correct Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica
Explanation:Bacterial Causes of Gastroenteritis: Yersinia, Vibrio, E. coli, Campylobacter, and Salmonella
Gastroenteritis is a common condition caused by various bacterial pathogens. Yersinia enterocolitica is one such pathogen that can cause invasive gastroenteritis, leading to mesenteric lymphadenitis and erythema nodosum. Vibrio vulnificus is another Gram-negative bacterium that causes gastroenteritis and skin blisters after consuming contaminated oysters, with chronic liver disease patients at higher risk. Escherichia coli has several pathogenic strains, including enterotoxigenic, enteropathogenic, enteroinvasive, and enterohaemorrhagic, each causing different types of gastroenteritis. Campylobacter is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis worldwide, with invasive symptoms and often bloody stool. Salmonella, a non-lactose fermenter, can also cause gastroenteritis and diarrhea, usually non-bloody. Understanding the different bacterial causes of gastroenteritis is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Correct
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A 77-year-old man who resides in a nursing home has been treated with co-amoxiclav for a chest infection. After completing the antibiotic course, he experiences abdominal pain, watery diarrhoea, and a temperature of 39.2°C. All other residents in the home are healthy. A stool sample is sent for testing as pseudomembranous colitis is suspected. What is the probable organism responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:Common Causes of Gastrointestinal Infections
Gastrointestinal infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses. Among the most common are Clostridium difficile, Salmonella spp., Norovirus, Escherichia coli, and Campylobacter spp.
Clostridium difficile is a spore-forming bacterium that causes pseudomembranous colitis, a form of colitis associated with antibiotic treatment. It produces toxins that damage the mucosal lining of the bowel, leading to diarrhea. Risk factors for developing C. difficile-associated diarrhea include age, antibiotic treatment, exposure to infected persons, and hospitalization.
Salmonella spp. are associated with infections of the gastrointestinal tract and diarrhea. Infection is mostly associated with eating undercooked meat, poultry, eggs, or egg products.
Norovirus is the most common viral gastroenteritis in the UK and spreads quickly within a contaminated environment. It is often seen in hospital wards and care homes.
Escherichia coli is associated with infections of the gastrointestinal tract and can cause severe diarrhea. It is most commonly associated with ingestion of contaminated water, unpasteurized milk or cheese, and undercooked beef.
Campylobacter spp. are a common cause of gastroenteritis, mostly associated with ingestion of contaminated food in the form of raw poultry and unpasteurized milk products.
It is important to identify the causative organism early and treat it according to local treatment guidelines to prevent complications such as toxic megacolon, bowel perforation, septicemia, and death. All confirmed cases of gastrointestinal infections must be reported to Public Health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department with a red rash. Her mother reports that it started behind her ears and then spread down her head and neck before spreading to the rest of her body. The mother is unsure if her daughter has received all of her vaccinations. Upon further questioning, the mother reveals that her daughter had been feeling unwell with cold-like symptoms and a low-grade fever in the week leading up to the rash.
During the examination, you observe grey/white spots in the girl's mouth and throat, indicating an infectious illness. What is the most severe complication that can arise from this illness?Your Answer: Encephalitis
Correct Answer: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Explanation:Measles and its Complications
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. Patients usually experience non-specific cold-like symptoms such as cough, fever, coryza, and conjunctivitis for a week before the appearance of a rash. Koplik spots, grey/white spots in the oral mucous membranes, are a telltale sign of the disease. Treatment is supportive, and symptoms usually resolve within one to two weeks in mild cases.
However, measles can lead to various complications, including diarrhea, vomiting, conjunctivitis, and laryngitis. Less common complications include meningitis, pneumonia, encephalitis, hepatitis, bronchitis, thrombocytopenia, and croup. Rare complications such as optic neuritis and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur. SSPE is a fatal condition that can develop several years after the measles infection and is characterized by gradual psycho-neurological deterioration, seizures, ataxia, and coma. Fortunately, SSPE is rare, occurring in only 1 in 100,000 cases of measles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man from Manchester presents to you with a complaint that he has been treated for oral thrush by one of your colleagues for several months, but the topical treatment has not been effective. He is currently taking an oral anticoagulant for a DVT that occurred without any apparent cause, and has recently experienced an outbreak of shingles. He has not taken any antibiotics recently and has recently separated from his long-term male partner. Upon examination, he appears to be thin and has typical Candida on his tongue and palate. Which test would be the most appropriate to perform in this case?
Your Answer: Clotting screen
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Oral Candidiasis and its Association with Immune System Defects
Oral candidiasis, a fungal infection in the mouth, is a concerning condition in young healthy individuals as it may indicate an underlying defect in the immune system. Further investigation is necessary to identify the root cause of the infection. In London, men who have sex with men have a high prevalence of HIV, which is a likely diagnosis in such cases. HIV weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections and other health complications.
Apart from HIV, other immune system defects may also lead to oral candidiasis. Recurrent attacks of shingles in a young person may also indicate a weakened immune system. Additionally, HIV infection is a predisposing factor for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a condition where blood clots form in the veins deep within the body. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate the underlying cause of oral candidiasis and other related conditions to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
Overall, oral candidiasis is a red flag for immune system defects, and healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying and addressing the root cause of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), attends his regular clinic appointment. He has missed an earlier appointment and is poorly compliant with his antiretroviral therapy, which he puts down to his busy work schedule. He has recently noticed blotches on his nose. His partner reports that the patient also has similar lesions on his back.
On examination, you note several red-purple papules across the patient’s back and face.
Which of the following viruses may have caused these lesions?Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus 8
Explanation:The patient has Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is caused by human herpesvirus 8. This condition can be the first presentation of AIDS in some HIV patients and is more common in males and men who have sex with men. The skin lesions appear as red-purple papules or plaques and can also be found on mucous membranes. Kaposi’s sarcoma mainly affects the skin, but it can also affect the lungs and gastrointestinal tract. Symptoms of pulmonary Kaposi’s sarcoma include cough, shortness of breath, and haemoptysis, while gastrointestinal involvement can cause intestinal obstruction.
CMV infection can occur as reactivation or primary infection, usually in those with low CD4+ counts. In the immunocompromised, it can present with chorioretinitis, encephalitis, pneumonitis, or gastrointestinal disease. HPV is a common virus that causes genital warts, verrucas, and warts on the lips/oral mucosa. It is also a major risk factor for cervical and anal cancers. In immunosuppressed patients, the severity of HPV symptoms and risk of cancer are increased. HSV 1 and 2 are common viruses that can cause oral and genital herpes. In immunosuppression, these viruses may reactivate more frequently and cause more severe symptoms. Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus that can cause opportunistic infections in AIDS, mostly causing fungal pneumonia and subacute meningitis, but it does not typically cause skin lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which statement about Japanese encephalitis is the most accurate?
Your Answer: It is a DNA virus
Correct Answer: Transplacental transmission occurs
Explanation:Japanese Encephalitis: A Viral Infection Endemic in Asia
Japanese encephalitis is a type of RNA virus that is commonly found in India, East Asia, Malaysia, and the Philippines. Interestingly, previous exposure to other viruses in the Flavivirus family, such as dengue, can actually provide some protection against serious illness or death from Japanese encephalitis. This means that individuals who have been infected with dengue in the past may have a lower risk of severe symptoms if they contract Japanese encephalitis.
Despite being endemic to certain regions, Japanese encephalitis can still affect travelers who spend only short periods of time in these areas. Additionally, the virus can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy.
Fortunately, there is an immunization available for travelers who may be at risk of contracting Japanese encephalitis. It is important for individuals traveling to endemic areas to take precautions and consider getting vaccinated to protect themselves from this potentially serious viral infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who is negative for HBV surface antigens is considering having unprotected sexual intercourse with a man who is positive for HBV.
What should she do in this situation?Your Answer: Specific hepatitis B immunoglobulin
Correct Answer: Vaccine
Explanation:Hepatitis B Vaccine in the UK
Although the risk of hepatitis B is low in the UK, certain individuals are considered to be at high risk and are offered the vaccine. These high-risk groups include individuals who inject drugs or have a partner who injects drugs, those who receive regular blood transfusions, people with chronic liver disease, close family or sexual partners of someone with hepatitis B, and individuals traveling to high-risk countries.
In the case of a patient whose partner has tested positive for the surface antigen (HBsAg), indicating that they are infected with hepatitis B, the patient may not require post-exposure treatment if they plan on having regular unprotected sexual intercourse. In this situation, the best course of action would be to receive the hepatitis B vaccine alone. It is important for individuals in high-risk groups to consider getting vaccinated to protect themselves against this potentially serious infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female has suffered a minor cut on her right hand while gardening. She has received all necessary immunisations. What is the most appropriate course of action for tetanus prevention?
Your Answer: I.M 0.5 ml tetanus toxoid should be administered as single dose
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:Tetanus Toxoid Immunisation Schedule
Active immunisation with tetanus toxoid is a routine vaccination given to infants at 2, 3, and 4 months of age as part of the DPT vaccine. A fourth dose is administered after three years, and a fifth dose is given before leaving school. Once a patient has received all five injections at the appropriate intervals, further toxoid is generally not required due to the risk of side effects and decreased immunity caused by overstimulation. Therefore, this man is considered fully immunised against tetanus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 12
Correct
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A 36-year-old HIV positive woman has been experiencing occasional headaches for the past 6 months but has not received any treatment. Recently, she started vomiting frequently and developed diplopia and a stiff neck. She was taken to the accident and emergency department for treatment. What are the possible treatment options for this woman?
Your Answer: CSF drainage
Explanation:Cryptococcal Meningitis in HIV-Infected Individuals
HIV-infected individuals are susceptible to various opportunistic infections, including meningitis caused by viruses, mycobacteria, or fungi. Cryptococcal meningitis is a common infection in these individuals and can present insidiously, leading to much morbidity. This infection is notorious for causing raised intracranial tension, which can result in vomiting and altered consciousness.
Treatment for cryptococcal meningitis involves periodic drainage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), as steroids and mannitol have not been found to be effective in lowering CSF pressure. The mainstay of treatment is Amphotericin B, with 5-flucytosine or fluconazole added. Diagnosis may be delayed as overt signs of meningism, such as neck stiffness, may be absent.
Tubercular meningitis may present similarly, but it progresses faster than cryptococcal meningitis. Steroids are used in tubercular meningitis but not in isolation, so they are not a good choice for cryptococcal meningitis. Acute bacterial meningitis is treated with ceftriaxone and vancomycin, but this case was slowly evolving over six months and is unlikely to be bacterial meningitis. acyclovir is used for viral meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old sexually active man comes to the clinic complaining of a rash that has been present all over his body for the past two weeks. He also reports having a painless sore on his penis a few weeks prior to the onset of the rash. Upon examination, a maculopapular rash is observed on his entire body, including the palms of his hands and soles of his feet. However, his penis appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Secondary syphilis
Explanation:Syphilis and its Symptoms
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The disease is transmitted through intimate contact with an infected person. The primary symptom of syphilis is a painless ulcer called a chancre, which may not be reported by the patient. The secondary stage of syphilis is characterized by a maculopapular rash that affects the entire body, including the palms and soles. This rash is known as keratoderma blennorrhagica.
It is important to note that HIV seroconversion illness may also present with a rash, but it typically does not affect the palms and soles. Additionally, constitutional symptoms such as fever and malaise are common with HIV seroconversion illness. None of the other conditions typically present with a rash.
Treatment for secondary syphilis involves the use of long-acting penicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old practising solicitor attends the Neurology Clinic with his wife. She is deeply concerned regarding his worsening memory. Over the past three months, he has become increasingly forgetful, to the point where he has had to take sick leave from work. He has had two recent presentations to the Emergency Department following falls, though a computed tomography (CT) head scan did not demonstrate any abnormality. On examination, there is an ataxic gait and you notice fasciculations and involuntary jerking movements of the upper limbs. He has had no family history of neurological disease and was previously fit and well.
What is the most likely underlying cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Huntington’s disease
Correct Answer: Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD)
Explanation:Distinguishing Neurodegenerative Diseases: A Case Study
A patient presents with rapidly progressive dementia, imbalance leading to falls, and myoclonus. The most likely diagnosis is Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD), a devastating prion disease without cure. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred for diagnosis, as CT head is ineffective.
Vascular dementia, another common cause of cognitive impairment, typically has a slower and stepwise onset in patients with a significant vascular history. A CT head would likely identify existing small vessel disease in the brain of a patient with vascular dementia.
Huntington’s disease, characterized by abnormal movements and cognitive impairment, is not the most likely diagnosis due to the rapid progression and lack of family history.
Lewy body dementia, which features visual hallucinations and Parkinsonian symptoms, usually presents over a longer period of time.
Motor neuron disease, which includes weakness and fasciculations, is unlikely due to the absence of weakness in this presentation. Frontotemporal dementia may rarely develop in motor neuron disease, but it is a slowly progressive phenomenon, unlike the rapid deterioration in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a new fever and a pruritic rash on her trunk and limbs. The rash is mainly macular and has a reticular pattern. She also reports experiencing pain in her knees, elbows, and wrists, with slight swelling in her left wrist. What is the probable infectious agent responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Rubella
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Morbilliform Rash: Parvovirus B19
A patient presents with a generalised, macular rash with a lacy appearance on the trunk and extremities, along with arthralgia and arthritis. The differential diagnosis for a morbilliform rash includes infections such as measles virus, rubella, parvovirus B19, human herpesvirus 6, enterovirus, and other non-specific viruses. However, the lacy appearance of the rash and the presence of arthralgia and arthritis suggest a parvovirus B19 infection. In children, this infection presents with slapped cheek erythema, while in adults, it presents with a lacy erythematous rash and rheumatoid arthritis-like arthropathy. Diagnosis is made through positive anti-B19 IgM serology or positive serum B19 DNA polymerase chain reaction. Other infections, such as rubella, may also cause a morbilliform rash with arthropathy, but they do not typically have a lacy appearance. Human herpesvirus 6 does not cause arthropathy or a lacy rash, while staphylococcal toxins cause a sunburn-like or exfoliative rash. Measles is associated with a prodrome of conjunctivitis, coryza, and cough, but not arthritis, and the rash is not reticular in appearance. Therefore, parvovirus B19 should be considered in the differential diagnosis of a morbilliform rash with arthralgia and arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the accurate information about primary pulmonary tuberculosis?
Your Answer: Commonly leads to miliary TB
Correct Answer: May be totally asymptomatic
Explanation:When you see the CD symbol on a prescription, it means that the medication is a controlled drug. This indicates that the substance must be requested by a qualified practitioner and signed and dated. The prescription must also include the prescriber’s address. Additionally, the prescriber must write the patient’s name and address, the preparation, and the dose in both figures and words. If the prescription is written by a dentist, it should state for dental use only. Controlled drugs include opiates and other substances that require careful monitoring and regulation. By the CD symbol and the requirements for prescribing controlled drugs, patients can ensure that they receive safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Correct
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What is the most frequently occurring infectious agent linked to acute pyelonephritis?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Common Pathogens in Acute Pyelonephritis
Acute pyelonephritis is commonly caused by Escherichia coli, which accounts for more than 80% of cases. Other pathogens that can cause this condition include Enterococcus faecalis, Klebsiella, and Proteus species. The infection typically begins in the bladder and then spreads to the renal parenchyma. At first, the bacteria multiply within the tubules. However, within 48 hours, damage to the tubular epithelium begins to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department with weakness in her arms and legs. She had recently attended a BBQ where she consumed canned food. During the examination, you observe weakness in all four limbs, bilateral ptosis, and slurred speech. Her husband reports that she experienced diarrhea the day before and has been constipated today. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Botulism
Explanation:Botulism: Causes, Types, Symptoms, and Treatment
Botulism is a severe illness caused by the botulinum toxin, which is produced by the bacteria Clostridium botulinum. There are three main types of botulism: food-borne, wound, and infant botulism. Food-borne botulism occurs when food is not properly canned, preserved, or cooked, and becomes contaminated with infected soil. Wound botulism occurs when a wound becomes infected with the bacteria, usually in intravenous drug abusers. Infant botulism occurs when a baby ingests spores of the C. botulinum bacteria.
Symptoms of botulism can occur between two hours and eight days after exposure to the toxin. These symptoms include blurred vision, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking (dysphonia), diarrhea and vomiting, and descending weakness/paralysis that may progress to flaccid paralysis. In certain serotypes, patients may rapidly progress to respiratory failure. It is important to note that patients remain alert throughout the illness.
Botulism is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The antitoxin is effective, but recovery may take several months. Guillain-Barré syndrome, which is an ascending paralysis that often occurs after a viral infection, would not fit the case vignette described. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune chronic condition that typically worsens with exercise and improves with rest. A cerebrovascular accident usually causes weakness in muscles supplied by one specific brain area, whereas the weakness in botulism is generalized. Viral gastroenteritis is not usually associated with weakness, unless it is Guillain-Barré syndrome a few weeks after the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with an indwelling catheter due to urinary incontinence after a stroke is brought to the emergency department by his wife. He has been experiencing fevers, left loin and suprapubic pain for the past two nights, and his wife is worried that he may have a urinary tract infection. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 38.9°C, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, a pulse rate of 95 bpm, and regular rhythm. You confirm the tenderness in his left loin and suprapubic area. What is the most appropriate management for his suspected UTI?
Your Answer: You should begin antibiotic therapy
Correct Answer: You should change his indwelling catheter then begin antibiotic therapy
Explanation:Management of Suspected Bacterial Urinary Tract Infection in Patients with Long Term Catheters
Chronic colonisation of catheters can make it difficult to completely eliminate infections in patients with long term catheters. Therefore, it is recommended to change the catheter before starting antibiotic therapy. Dipstick testing and microscopy are not reliable in such cases, so the management of suspected bacterial urinary tract infection in adults should be based on symptoms of acute bacterial sepsis, according to SIGN guidelines. Local policies determine the choice of antibiotics, but co-amoxiclav is often the first line empirical option in this situation.
It is important to note that patients with long term catheters require special attention and care to prevent infections. The management of suspected bacterial urinary tract infection in such patients should be based on careful observation of symptoms and adherence to local policies for antibiotic therapy. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with a nine-week history of fever. She has been experiencing daily temperatures up to 40°C, malaise, and occasional aches in the hands and knees. She also noticed a transient pink rash on her abdomen. Her GP prescribed a one-week course of ampicillin, but it had little effect. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.9°C, a pulse of 110 per minute, and a faint systolic ejection murmur. Her spleen is palpable 3 cm below the left costal margin. Her haemoglobin level is 115 g/L, and her white cell count is 12.8 ×109/L. Her ASO titre is 250 units, and her rheumatoid factor and ANF are negative. Blood cultures have been requested but are not yet available. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bacterial endocarditis
Correct Answer: Adult onset Still's disease
Explanation:Adult Onset Still’s Disease
Adult onset Still’s disease is a type of inflammatory disorder that affects young adults. Its exact cause and development are still unknown, but it is characterized by various symptoms such as fever, rash, joint pain, and organ enlargement. The disease can have systemic exacerbations and chronic arthritis, with periods of remission in between. To diagnose adult onset Still’s disease, a person must have at least five criteria, including two major criteria such as high fever lasting for a week or longer, joint pain lasting for two weeks or longer, rash, and abnormal white blood cell count. Minor criteria include sore throat, lymph node or spleen swelling, liver problems, and the absence of rheumatoid arthritis.
It is important to note that mildly raised ASO titres may be present in inflammatory or infective conditions, but an ASO titre of at least 500-1000 is expected in active acute rheumatic fever. Additionally, an ejection systolic murmur may be caused by the hyperdynamic circulation in adult onset Still’s disease, unlike acute rheumatic fever or acute bacterial endocarditis, which cause acute valvular regurgitation and result in pan-systolic or early-diastolic murmurs. Lastly, bacterial endocarditis does not cause the pink rash associated with adult onset Still’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 21
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman complains of an itchy rash on her hands, anterior aspects of both elbows, axillae and groins. Several other residents in her nursing home have reported similar symptoms.
What could be the possible diagnosis?Your Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei. The mite burrows into the skin, resulting in a rash that is itchy and typically affects the skin folds and interdigital webs of the arms and legs. The itch may persist for a few weeks even after successful treatment. The condition is spread through skin contact and sharing of clothes and bedding. Treatment involves the use of permethrin-containing lotions.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a type of vasculitis that affects the blood vessels in the skin. Psoriasis is characterized by plaques on the extensor surfaces of the body, which are topped with thick, silvery scales. Pemphigus vulgaris may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions in elderly patients. If the blisters are intact, bullous pemphigoid or cicatricial pemphigoid may be considered. Look for involvement in other sites, as erosions in the mouth are typically involved in pemphigus vulgaris. Bullous pemphigoid is associated with new medication and involves the flexural areas of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old toddler has been brought into the general practice by their parent with the presenting complaint of a new rash around the lips, gumline and tongue. The parent reports that the rash is new, approximately three days old, and has become significantly worse. They find that their child is not eating or drinking and is very difficult to settle. The parent comments that they had a normal delivery, without post-delivery complications, and the child has been up-to-date with their vaccination protocol. Moreover, you assess that the toddler has normal growth and development. There is no family history of oral lesions.
On general examination, the toddler is visibly upset, although interacting appropriately with their parent. Temperature is recorded as 38.1 °C. Heart rate is 110 bpm, blood pressure 84/60 mmHg and oxygen saturation (SpO2) is 100% on air. On inspection of the oral cavity, multiple vesicular lesions are present on the lips, gum and anterior aspect of the tongue. You notice a small number of these have become ulcerated. There are no further rashes observed on the trunk and upper and lower limbs.
What is the most likely organism which has given rise to this clinical picture?Your Answer: Parvovirus B19
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Explanation:Common Viral Infections and Their Oral Manifestations
Herpes simplex virus, Parvovirus B19, Coxsackie A16, Molluscum contagiosum, and Varicella-zoster are all common viral infections that can cause various oral manifestations. Herpes simplex virus can cause gingivostomatitis, which can lead to dehydration and require treatment with acyclovir. Parvovirus B19 can result in ‘slapped cheek syndrome’ with a maculopapular rash and non-specific viral symptoms. Coxsackie A16 can cause hand, foot and mouth disease with vesicular and ulcerative oral lesions and macular lesions on the hands and feet. Molluscum contagiosum can cause papular lesions with a central dimple, but rarely in the oral cavity. Varicella-zoster can cause chickenpox with itchy, papular lesions progressing to vesicles, but blisters in the mouth are less common. Understanding these viral infections and their oral manifestations can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A sexually active 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of lower abdominal pain that has been present for two days. She reports that her last menstrual period was six weeks ago and has experienced post coital bleeding along with deep dyspareunia. Upon examination, there is tenderness in the lower abdomen and adnexal tenderness during pelvic examination. What is the most suitable investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Mid stream urine examination
Correct Answer: Pregnancy test
Explanation:Pelvic Inflammatory Disease: Symptoms, Differential Diagnosis, and Treatment
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that affects the female reproductive system. It is often characterized by lower abdominal pain and abnormal vaginal discharge. However, these symptoms may also be indicative of other conditions, such as ectopic pregnancy, which is why it is important to consider differential diagnoses. Other symptoms of PID include intermenstrual and post-coital bleeding, dysuria, deep dyspareunia, and fever. The most common pathogens responsible for PID are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Early treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial in reducing the risk of long-term complications, such as infertility. PID can lead to scarring and damage to the reproductive organs, which can result in difficulty getting pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her parents. She has been experiencing a dry cough with coryzal symptoms. On examination, there is evidence of conjunctivitis and an erythematosus rash on her forehead and neck which is confluent. Oral examination reveals red spots with a white centre on the buccal mucosa, adjacent to the lower second molar tooth. She is currently apyrexial, though her parents state she has been feverish over the past two days. Her heart rate is 80 bpm. No one else in her family is unwell, though her sister did have chickenpox earlier in the month.
What is the most likely cause for this presentation?Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Distinguishing Between Measles and Other Viral Infections
Measles, a highly contagious viral infection, is often mistaken for other viral illnesses such as rubella, Kawasaki disease, mumps, and parvovirus B19. However, there are distinct differences in their clinical presentations. Measles is characterized by cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis, along with the presence of Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa. Rubella, on the other hand, presents with low-grade fever, conjunctivitis, and an erythematosus rash, but without Koplik spots. Kawasaki disease is an idiopathic vasculitis that affects young children and is associated with fever, inflammation of the mouth and lips, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Mumps, caused by a paramyxovirus, typically affects the salivary glands and is not associated with a rash. Parvovirus B19, also known as fifth disease, causes an erythematosus rash on the cheeks and can also cause a morbilliform rash, but without Koplik spots. Therefore, recognizing the presence of Koplik spots is crucial in distinguishing measles from other viral infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which drugs are classified as protease inhibitors?
Your Answer: Darunavir and Telaprevir
Correct Answer: Darunavir, Ritonavir, and Telaprevir
Explanation:Protease Inhibitors: A Breakthrough in HIV and Hepatitis C Treatment
Protease inhibitors are a class of drugs that block the activity of the viral enzyme called protease, which is essential for the maturation of the virus. Initially used for the treatment of HIV, protease inhibitors are now also used for the treatment of hepatitis C infections. Telaprevir is a protease inhibitor specifically designed for hepatitis C virus.
Abacavir and rilpivirine are two other drugs used for HIV treatment. Abacavir is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), while rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). Protease inhibitors are often used as second-line therapy for HIV treatment, with ritonavir commonly used as a booster with other protease inhibitors.
For hepatitis C treatment, protease inhibitors such as telaprevir, boceprevir, simeprevir, and danoprevir are used in combination with interferon and ribavirin. These drugs inhibit NS3/4A protease, which is a promising development in hepatitis C management. They are said to decrease the treatment duration, but their high cost is a major limiting factor for their use.
In conclusion, protease inhibitors have revolutionized the treatment of HIV and hepatitis C infections. While they are not without limitations, they offer hope for patients with these chronic viral diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has been diagnosed with HIV and started on antiretroviral medication. She initially responded well to treatment, but now presents with fatigue and abdominal discomfort after 8 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
- Haemoglobin: 92 g/L (115-165)
- Urea: 6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Bilirubin: 3 mg/dL; direct: 0.2 mg/dL (0.3-1.9)
- AST: 39 IU/L (<35)
- ALP: 150 IU/L (44-140)
Which specific antiretroviral drug is this patient currently taking?Your Answer: Zidovudine
Correct Answer: Atazanavir
Explanation:Drug Reaction with Atazanavir and Indinavir
The use of protease inhibitors such as atazanavir and indinavir can lead to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is characterized by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. This condition was observed in a patient who had normal renal function and mildly raised liver enzymes. The reaction is usually benign and reversible upon discontinuation of the drug. The mechanism of this drug reaction is competitive inhibition of the UGT1A1 enzyme. Individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome are more susceptible to this reaction.
Other drugs used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS have different side effect profiles. Nevirapine can cause hepatitis, which is characterized by elevated liver enzymes. Stavudine can cause peripheral neuropathy and pancreatitis, but it is being phased out of treatment regimens. Tenofovir can lead to renal dysfunction, which was not observed in this patient. Zidovudine can cause anemia, hepatitis, and myopathy, among other side effects.
In conclusion, the patient’s presentation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is most likely due to the use of atazanavir or indinavir. Discontinuation of the drug is usually sufficient to reverse the condition. Other drugs used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS have different side effect profiles and should be considered when evaluating patients for drug reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male patient comes to you with a fever and rash one week after returning from a trip to Puerto Rico. He reports that his fever began five days ago and was followed by the appearance of a rash. Additionally, he has noticed bleeding gums while brushing his teeth and has experienced two nosebleeds since returning from his vacation. During the examination, you observe multiple mosquito bites on his legs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Malaria
Correct Answer: Dengue fever
Explanation:Dengue Fever
Dengue fever is a viral infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected Aedes mosquito. It is prevalent in tropical countries, with an estimated 100 million people being infected annually. The symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, skin rash, and mild bleeding. However, it cannot be spread from person to person.
The high-risk areas for dengue fever include the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, Pacific Islands, Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central and South America. Diagnosis is made through a blood test to identify the virus, and treatment is supportive with symptom control. Unfortunately, there are currently no vaccines available to prevent dengue fever.
The best way to prevent infection is to avoid mosquito bites. This can be done by wearing protective clothing, using mosquito repellent, and staying in air-conditioned or screened areas. the symptoms and risk factors of dengue fever can help individuals take necessary precautions to protect themselves from this potentially serious illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Correct
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A 27-year-old male patient complains of fever, malaise, myalgia, and diarrhea that have been present for a week. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he had unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple local women during his holiday in Thailand six weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history except for receiving travel vaccinations and prophylactic medications. He has not visited his GP for several years. What tests would you conduct to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: HIV antibody/p24 antigen test
Explanation:HIV Seroconversion Illness: Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis
HIV-related seroconversion illness is a non-specific illness that occurs between one to six weeks following infection. It often mimics infectious mononucleosis but may have additional signs such as oral candidiasis or CNS symptoms. The best way to diagnose acute infection is by the presence of p24 antigen or HIV RNA by PCR. Malaria is less likely in this case than HIV, and stool culture would be useful in the diagnosis of gastroenteritis but is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms in this case. A CT chest, abdomen, and pelvis is non-specific and would not yield the diagnosis. A genital swab would be of benefit if there were suspicions of other sexually transmitted infections, but the symptoms and timing of onset in this case clearly point towards HIV seroconversion. It is important to consider HIV testing and prevention in patients with risk factors for infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old graduate is referred to the renal clinic by the local health center. She has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking 10 mg of ramipril and 5 mg of amlodipine. Her medical history reveals recurrent urinary tract infections during childhood and recent use of ibuprofen for a knee injury. On examination, her blood pressure is 178/95 mmHg, pulse is regular at 74 bpm, and BMI is 22 kg/m2. Her creatinine level is elevated at 178 μmol/L. What is the most likely reason for her presentation?
Your Answer: Essential hypertension
Correct Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Reflux Nephropathy and its Management
Recurrent urinary tract infections during childhood are most likely caused by reflux nephropathy, which can lead to renal scarring, resistant hypertension, and chronic renal failure over time. Early intervention is crucial, including investigation in childhood, antibiotics, and referral to a urologist to identify and correct any anatomical abnormalities. Chronic interstitial nephritis caused by analgesic use is unlikely in this case, as the patient’s knee injury was likely acute. IgA nephropathy typically presents after respiratory tract infections, while post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs 10-14 days after streptococcal pharyngitis. Essential hypertension is diagnosed based on the absence of an underlying cause. Proper management of reflux nephropathy can prevent long-term complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency department with a complaint of sudden pain in her upper tibia. She has a fever and is unwilling to move her leg. The medical team suspects osteomyelitis. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Organisms in Osteomyelitis and Related Conditions
Acute osteomyelitis in children over the age of 4 years is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Fortunately, immunisation has greatly reduced the incidence of haematogenous osteomyelitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae. In sickle cell anaemia, Salmonella is the typical organism responsible for infection. Meanwhile, Pseudomonas infection is frequently seen in haemodialysis patients and intravenous drug users. These organisms can cause serious infections that require prompt medical attention. It is important to be aware of the common organisms associated with osteomyelitis and related conditions in order to facilitate early diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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