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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hoarseness in her voice for a few weeks. She underwent a thyroidectomy a decade ago. During the examination, the doctor observed decreased breath sounds in the left upper lobe. The patient has a smoking history of 75 pack years and quit five years ago. A chest X-ray revealed an opacity in the left upper lobe. Which cranial nerve is likely to be impacted?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal
Correct Answer: Vagus
Explanation:Cranial Nerves and their Functions: Analysis of a Patient’s Symptoms
This patient is experiencing a hoarse voice and change in pitch, which is likely due to a compression of the vagus nerve caused by an apical lung tumor. The vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve and provides innervation to the laryngeal muscles. The other cranial nerves, such as the trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, and hypoglossal, have different functions and would not be affected by a left upper lobe opacity. Understanding the functions of each cranial nerve can aid in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A patient attends the Neurology clinic following a referral from the general practitioner due to difficulty with eating and chewing food. A neurologist performs a cranial nerve assessment and suspects a lesion of the left-sided trigeminal nerve.
Which of the following is a clinical feature of a trigeminal nerve palsy?Your Answer: Bite weakness
Explanation:Understanding Cranial Nerve Functions and Their Effects on Facial and Oral Muscles
The human body is a complex system of interconnected parts, and the cranial nerves play a crucial role in ensuring that these parts function properly. In particular, the trigeminal nerve, facial nerve, and glossopharyngeal nerve are responsible for controlling various muscles in the face and mouth, as well as transmitting sensory information from these areas to the brain.
If there is weakness in the masticatory muscles, it may be due to a problem with the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Similarly, loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue may be caused by damage to the facial nerve, which carries taste fibers from this area. Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle is also linked to the facial nerve, which supplies motor fibers to the muscles of facial expression.
Another common symptom of facial nerve palsy is the loss of control over eye blinking, which is mainly controlled by the orbicularis muscle. Finally, the glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for supplying taste fibers to the posterior third of the tongue.
Overall, understanding the functions of these cranial nerves is essential for identifying the location of lesions and determining which nerve is affected. By doing so, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old man in-patient on the gastroenterology ward is noted by the consultant on the ward round to have features which raise suspicion of Parkinson’s disease. The consultant proceeds to examine the patient and finds that he exhibits all three symptoms that are commonly associated with the symptomatic triad of Parkinson’s disease.
What are the three symptoms that are most commonly associated with the symptomatic triad of Parkinson’s disease?Your Answer: Bradykinesia, rigidity, resting tremor
Explanation:Understanding Parkinson’s Disease: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement. Its classic triad of symptoms includes bradykinesia, resting tremor, and rigidity. Unlike other causes of Parkinsonism, Parkinson’s disease is characterized by asymmetrical distribution of signs, progressive nature, and a good response to levodopa therapy. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, drugs such as levodopa and dopamine agonists can improve symptoms. A thorough history and complete examination are essential for diagnosis, as there is no specific test for Parkinson’s disease. Other features that may be present include shuffling gait, stooped posture, and reduced arm swing, but these are not part of the classic triad. Understanding the symptoms and diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease is crucial for effective management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very keen to get back to work as he is self-employed.
Following a stroke, what is the minimum time that patients are advised not to drive a car for?Your Answer: 6 months
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:Driving Restrictions After Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, it is important to be aware of the driving restrictions set by the DVLA. For at least 4 weeks, patients should not drive a car or motorbike. If the patient drives a lorry or bus, they must not drive for 1 year and must notify the DVLA. After 1 month of satisfactory clinical recovery, drivers of cars may resume driving, but lorry and bus drivers must wait for 1 year before relicensing may be considered. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required. Following stroke or single TIA, a person may not drive a car for 2 weeks, but can resume driving after 1 month if there has been a satisfactory recovery. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe driving and prevent further health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia resulting in multiple hospitalisations is referred to you in a psychiatry ward. She reports feeling generally unwell for several weeks, with increasing stiffness in her jaws and arms. She has been on haloperidol for the past few years with good symptom control. During examination, her temperature is 38.5°C and BP is 175/85 mmHg. What drug treatments would you consider for her condition?
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Dantrolene
Explanation:Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome vs Serotonin Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications that can occur at any point during treatment. Concurrent use of lithium or anticholinergics may increase the risk of NMS. Symptoms include fever, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Treatment involves discontinuing the offending medication and using antipyretics to reduce body temperature. Dantrolene, bromocriptine, or levodopa preparations may also be helpful.
Serotonin syndrome is a differential diagnosis for NMS, but the two can be distinguished through a thorough history and examination. NMS develops over days and weeks, while serotonin syndrome can develop within 24 hours. Serotonin syndrome causes neuromuscular hyperreactivity, such as myoclonus, tremors, and hyperreflexia, while NMS involves sluggish neuromuscular response, such as bradyreflexia and rigidity. Hyperreflexia and myoclonus are rare in NMS, and resolution of NMS takes up to nine days, while serotonin syndrome usually resolves within 24 hours.
Despite these differences, both conditions share common symptoms in severe cases, such as hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, leukocytosis, elevated CK, altered hepatic function, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, a thorough history and physical examination are crucial in distinguishing between the two syndromes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP), complaining of bleeding gums every time she brushes her teeth. She reports that this is very concerning to her and has gotten to the point where she has stopped brushing her teeth.
Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she takes lisinopril. She takes no anticoagulants or antiplatelet medication.
Her observations are as follows:
Temperature 37.1°C
Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
Heart rate 68 bpm
Respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 98% (room air)
Examination of the oral cavity reveals red, swollen gingiva, with bleeding easily provoked with a periodontal probe.
Which of the following is the next best step?Your Answer: Vitamin K
Correct Answer: Referral to a neurologist
Explanation:Medical Recommendations for Gingival Overgrowth
Gingival overgrowth is a condition where the gum tissues grow excessively, leading to the formation of pockets that can harbor bacteria and cause inflammation. This condition can be caused by certain medications like phenytoin, calcium channel blockers, and ciclosporin. Here are some medical recommendations for managing gingival overgrowth:
Referral to a Neurologist: If the patient is taking antiepileptic medication, a neurologist should review the medication to determine if it is causing the gingival overgrowth.
Avoid Brushing Teeth: Although brushing can exacerbate bleeding, not brushing can lead to poor oral hygiene. The cause of the gingival overgrowth needs to be addressed.
Epstein–Barr Virus Testing: Patients with oral hairy leukoplakia may benefit from Epstein–Barr virus testing.
Pregnancy Test: A pregnancy test is not indicated in patients with gingival overgrowth unless medication is not the likely cause.
Vitamin K: Vitamin K is indicated for patients who require warfarin reversal for supratherapeutic international normalized ratios (INRs). It is not necessary for patients who are clinically stable and not actively bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old retired teacher is being evaluated for progressive memory impairment. Based on the information provided by the patient's spouse, the clinician suspects that the patient may have vascular dementia.
What are the typical features of vascular dementia?Your Answer: Slow, insidious progression
Correct Answer: Unsteadiness and falls
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Vascular Dementia
Vascular dementia is a type of dementia that is characterized by a stepwise, step-down progression. This type of dementia is associated with vascular events within the brain and can cause a range of symptoms. One of the early symptoms of vascular dementia is unsteadiness and falls, as well as gait and mobility problems. Other symptoms may include visuospatial problems, motor dysfunction, dysphasia, pseudobulbar palsy, and mood and personality changes.
Vascular dementia is commonly seen in patients with increased vascular risk and may have a cross-over with Alzheimer’s disease. Brain scanning may reveal multiple infarcts within the brain. To manage vascular dementia, it is important to address all vascular risks, including smoking, diabetes, and hypertension. Patients may also be placed on appropriate anti-platelet therapy and a statin.
Compared to Alzheimer’s dementia, vascular dementia has a more stepwise progression. Additionally, it can cause pseudobulbar palsy, which results in a stiff tongue rather than a weak one. However, agnosia, which is the inability to interpret sensations, is not typically seen in vascular dementia. Visual hallucinations are also more characteristic of Lewy body dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old homeless individual is brought to the emergency department after being found vomiting. Upon examination, the patient appears confused and disoriented, with unkempt appearance and slurred speech. However, the patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 14. Vital signs include a pulse of 108 bpm, oxygen saturation of 94% on air, and blood pressure of 124/78 mmHg. Cardiovascular and respiratory exams are normal, with mild epigastric tenderness on abdominal exam. The patient has a broad-based gait and bilateral nystagmus with weakness of abduction of the eyes. Reflexes, power, and tone are generally normal with flexor plantar responses. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute alcohol intoxication
Correct Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Medical Emergency
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition caused by thiamine deficiency, which can be life-threatening if not treated urgently. This condition is often seen in alcoholics or malnourished individuals and can even occur during pregnancy due to hyperemesis gravidarum. The classic triad of symptoms includes ataxia, confusion, and ophthalmoplegia.
It is crucial to differentiate Wernicke’s encephalopathy from alcohol intoxication as the former requires immediate thiamine replacement. The recommended treatment is either oral thiamine 300 mg/24h or, preferably, intravenous Pabrinex. If left untreated, the condition can rapidly progress to irreversible Korsakoff’s psychosis due to haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent irreversible neurological damage. It is essential to be aware of the classic triad of symptoms and to differentiate it from alcohol intoxication to ensure appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which statement about the facial nerve is accurate in terms of its paragraph structure?
Your Answer: Is secretomotor to the lacrimal gland
Explanation:Functions of the Facial Nerve
The facial nerve, also known as the seventh cranial nerve, has several important functions. It carries secretomotor fibers to the lacrimal gland through the greater petrosal nerve and is secretomotor to the submandibular and sublingual glands. It also supplies the muscles of facial expression and is associated developmentally with the second branchial arch. The facial nerve carries special taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via the chorda tympani nerve and somatic sensation to the external auditory meatus. However, it does not innervate the levator palpebrae superioris or the principal muscles of mastication, which are supplied by other nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with a short, but progressive, history of double vision. It is noted by her husband that her speech is worse last thing in the evening. She is a non-smoker and drinks 18 units a week of alcohol.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?Your Answer: Computed tomography brain
Correct Answer: Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Myasthenia Gravis
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disease characterized by weakness and fatigability due to antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation can objectively document the fatigability, showing a decrement in the evoked muscle action after repeat stimulation. A CT brain scan is not useful for MG diagnosis, but CT chest imaging is indicated as thymic hyperplasia or tumors are associated with MG. Autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels are associated with Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, which is rare. Visually evoked potentials are useful for assessing optic nerve function but not for MG diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused, disoriented, and having an unsteady gait. During the past four months she has been depressed and has declined food. She has lost approximately 12 kg in weight.
She appears thin and is disoriented in time and place. She reports having double vision. Neither eye abducts normally. Her gait is unsteady although the limbs are strong. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.
What would be the most appropriate initial step in her treatment?Your Answer: 50% glucose, intravenously
Correct Answer: Intravenous thiamine
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The oculomotor findings associated with this condition include bilateral weakness of abduction, gaze evoked nystagmus, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and vertical nystagmus in the primary position.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is commonly linked to chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also occur in individuals with poor nutritional states, such as those with dialysis, advanced malignancy, AIDS, and malnutrition. Urgent treatment is necessary and involves administering 100 mg of fresh thiamine intravenously, followed by 50-100 mg daily. It is crucial to give IV/IM thiamine before treating with IV glucose solutions, as glucose infusions may trigger Wernicke’s disease or acute cardiovascular beriberi in previously unaffected patients or worsen an early form of the disease.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological disorder that requires prompt treatment. It is essential to recognize the symptoms and underlying causes of this condition to prevent further complications. Early intervention with thiamine supplementation can help improve outcomes and prevent the progression of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to a Paediatrician due to learning and behavioural difficulties. During the examination, the doctor observes symmetrical muscle weakness and notes that the child has only recently learned to walk. The girl requires assistance from her hands to stand up. The Paediatrician suspects that she may have Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and orders additional tests.
What is the protein that is missing in DMD?Your Answer: Sarcoglycan
Correct Answer: Dystrophin
Explanation:Proteins and Genetic Disorders
Dystrophin, Collagen, Creatine Kinase, Fibrillin, and Sarcoglycan are all proteins that play important roles in the body. However, defects or mutations in these proteins can lead to various genetic disorders.
Dystrophin is a structural protein in skeletal and cardiac muscle that protects the muscle membrane against the forces of muscular contraction. Lack of dystrophin leads to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), a debilitating and life-limiting condition.
Collagen is a protein found in connective tissue and defects in its structure, synthesis, or processing can lead to Ehlers Danlos syndrome, a genetic connective-tissue disorder.
Creatine kinase is an enzyme released from damaged muscle tissue and elevated levels of it are seen in children with DMD.
Fibrillin is a protein involved in connective tissue formation and mutations in the genes that code for it are found in Marfan syndrome, a connective tissue disorder.
Sarcoglycans are transmembrane proteins and mutations in the genes that code for them are involved in limb-girdle muscular dystrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and difficulty moving around. During the examination, it is observed that he has a slow gait with reduced arm movement and a tremor in his right arm. What is the usual frequency of the resting tremor in Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: 4 Hz
Explanation:the Tremor of Parkinson’s Disease
The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is a type of rest tremor that typically has a frequency of 3 to 6 HZ. It usually starts on one side of the body and becomes more severe as the disease progresses. Eventually, the tremor becomes bilateral, affecting both sides of the body.
While the tremor is initially a rest tremor, it may develop into an action tremor over time. Additionally, the severity of the tremor may increase with the use of levodopa. the characteristics of the tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is important for both patients and healthcare providers in managing the symptoms of the disease. By recognizing the progression of the tremor, appropriate treatment options can be explored to improve quality of life for those living with Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.
Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?Your Answer: The right anterior inferior cerebellar artery
Correct Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Explanation:Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes
The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner as his parents are worried about his walking. Up until four months ago, he was developing normally. However, they have now noticed he has difficulty getting up from the floor or climbing stairs. During the examination, the doctor observes Gowers’ sign and the boy has large, bulky calf muscles. His mother remembers having an uncle who died at a young age but cannot recall the cause of death. What is the probable reason for his walking difficulties?
Your Answer: Emery–Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
Correct Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Explanation:Different Types of Muscular Dystrophy and their Characteristics
Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that cause progressive muscle weakness and wasting. Here are some of the different types of muscular dystrophy and their characteristics:
1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy: This is an X-linked myopathy that occurs in boys aged 3-5. It can present as delay in motor development or regression of previously obtained motor milestones. Treatment is with steroids and respiratory support. Average life expectancy is around 25 years.
2. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy: This is the third most common muscular dystrophy and causes proximal upper limb weakness due to dysfunction of the scapula. Patients may also experience facial muscle weakness and progressive lower limb weakness. It typically presents in the third decade.
3. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy: This is a rare muscular dystrophy characterised by weakness and progressive wasting of the lower leg and arm muscles. It is more common in boys, with typical onset in teenage years.
4. Myotonic dystrophy: This is the most common inherited muscular dystrophy in adults. It is characterised by delayed muscle relaxation after contraction and muscle weakness. Patients may also experience myotonic facies with facial weakness, ptosis and cardiorespiratory complications.
5. Polymyositis: This is an inflammatory myopathy in which patients experience proximal muscle weakness. It is more common in women in the fifth decade and is associated with underlying malignancy.
It is important to identify the type of muscular dystrophy a patient has in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism by which a neuron controls its membrane potential?
Your Answer: By enzymatic breakdown of molecules that give rise to intracellular ions, which alter the membrane potential
Correct Answer: By regulating opening and closing ion channels
Explanation:The Role of Ion Channels in Regulating Membrane Potential
The membrane potential of a cell is the voltage difference between the inside and outside of the cell membrane. This potential is influenced by the movement of ions across the membrane, which is determined by their valence and concentration gradient. However, the permeability of ions also plays a crucial role in regulating membrane potential. This is achieved through the presence of ion channels that can open and close in response to various stimuli, such as action potentials.
Neurons, for example, are able to regulate their membrane potential by controlling the opening and closing of ion channels. This allows them to maintain a stable resting potential and respond to changes in their environment. The permeability of ions through these channels is carefully regulated to ensure that the membrane potential remains within a certain range. This is essential for proper neuronal function and communication.
In summary, the regulation of membrane potential is a complex process that involves the movement of ions across the membrane and the opening and closing of ion channels. This process is critical for maintaining proper cellular function and communication, particularly in neurons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old female patient comes in with a two-month history of apathy, withdrawal, urinary and faecal incontinence, and anosmia. What is the most probable location of the neurological lesion?
Your Answer: Parietal lobe
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:Frontal Lobe Syndrome
Frontal lobe syndrome is a condition that is characterized by a range of symptoms that affect the frontal lobe of the brain. This condition can present with a variety of symptoms, including personality changes, urinary and faecal incontinence, anosmia, expressive dysphasia, release of primitive reflexes, and epilepsy. In some cases, patients may also experience dementia-like symptoms.
One of the key features of frontal lobe syndrome is the release of primitive reflexes, such as the positive grasp, pout, and palmomental reflexes. These reflexes are typically present in infants, but they may reappear in patients with frontal lobe damage. Additionally, patients with frontal lobe syndrome may experience seizures, which can be a sign of a frontal lobe tumor.
It is important to note that frontal lobe syndrome can be difficult to diagnose, as it can mimic other conditions such as dementia. However, with proper evaluation and testing, doctors can identify the underlying cause of the symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Overall, frontal lobe syndrome is crucial for early detection and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old child is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. He complains of loss of sensation over the dorsal aspect of his right forearm and hand for the last few days. His mother also states that he cannot extend his fingers and wrist after she pulled her son’s right hand gently while crossing a street 4 days ago. He had pain in his right elbow at that time but did not see a doctor immediately. On examination, there is loss of sensation and muscle weakness over the extensor surface of his right forearm and hand.
Which of the following nerves is most likely to be injured in this patient?Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Movement and Sensation
Radial nerve: Nursemaid’s elbow is a common injury in children that can cause damage to the deep branch of the radial nerve. This can result in wrist drop due to paralysis of the extensors of the forearm and hand.
Long thoracic nerve: The long thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle, which is used in all reaching and pushing movements. Injury to this nerve causes winging of the scapula.
Musculocutaneous nerve: Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve causes a loss of elbow flexion, weakness in supination, and sensation loss on the lateral aspect of the forearm.
Axillary nerve: The axillary nerve supplies the deltoid muscle and teres minor. Injury to this nerve presents with flattening of the deltoid muscle after injury, loss of lateral rotation, abduction of the affected shoulder due to deltoid muscle weakness, and loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the arm.
Middle subscapular nerve: The middle subscapular nerve supplies the latissimus dorsi, which adducts and extends the humerus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old teacher comes to the general practitioner (GP) worried about her risk of developing Alzheimer's disease. Her father has been diagnosed with an advanced form of the condition, and although she has no symptoms, the patient is anxious, as she has heard recently that the condition can be inherited.
Which one of the following statements regarding Alzheimer's disease is true?Your Answer: The familial variant is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder
Correct Answer: It is more common in women than men
Explanation:Myth Busting: Common Misconceptions About Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is a complex and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about the disease that need to be addressed:
1. It is more common in women than men: While it is true that women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s disease, it is not entirely clear why. It is thought that this may be due to the fact that women generally live longer than men.
2. The familial variant is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder: This is incorrect. The familial variant of Alzheimer’s disease is typically inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder.
3. It accounts for 30-40% of all cases of dementia: Alzheimer’s disease is actually responsible for approximately 60% of all cases of dementia.
4. The onset is rare after the age of 75: Onset of Alzheimer’s disease typically increases with age, and it is not uncommon for people to develop the disease after the age of 75.
5. It cannot be inherited: This is a myth. While not all cases of Alzheimer’s disease are inherited, there are certain genetic mutations that can increase a person’s risk of developing the disease.
It is important to dispel these myths and educate ourselves about the true nature of Alzheimer’s disease. By understanding the facts, we can better support those affected by the disease and work towards finding a cure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant medical or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.
In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.
The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old patient, with learning difficulties and poorly controlled epilepsy, is admitted following a tonic−clonic seizure which resolved after the administration of lorazepam by a Casualty officer. Twenty minutes later, a further seizure occurred that again ceased with lorazepam. A further 10 minutes later, another seizure takes place.
What commonly would be the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Paraldehyde
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Managing Status Epilepticus: Medications and Treatment Options
Epilepsy is a manageable condition for most patients, but in some cases, seizures may not self-resolve and require medical intervention. In such cases, benzodiazepines like rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam are commonly used. However, if seizures persist, other drugs like iv phenytoin may be administered. Paraldehyde is rarely used, and topiramate is more commonly used for seizure prevention. If a patient experiences status epilepticus, informing the intensive care unit may be appropriate, but the priority should be to stop the seizure with appropriate medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the neurotransmitter that opposes the effects of dopamine in the basal ganglia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation:The Role of Dopamine and Acetylcholine in the Extrapyramidal Motor System
The basal ganglia is a complex structure in the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating and controlling the extrapyramidal motor system. Within the basal ganglia, there are two types of neurons that work together to maintain proper motor function: dopamine-producing neurons and acetylcholine-producing neurons.
The substantia nigra, a structure within the basal ganglia, is rich in dopamine-producing neurons. Dopamine exerts an excitatory effect on the extrapyramidal motor system, facilitating movement. On the other hand, acetylcholine exerts an inhibitory effect on the extrapyramidal motor system.
When both sets of neurons are functioning properly, the extrapyramidal motor system operates normally. However, if either set of neurons is malfunctioning, there can be an excess of inhibition or excitation of the extrapyramidal motor system, resulting in neurological dysfunction.
One example of this is Parkinson’s disease, which is characterized by a loss of dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra. This leads to bradykinesia and rigidity in patients. the role of dopamine and acetylcholine in the extrapyramidal motor system is crucial for and treating neurological disorders that affect motor function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Through which opening is the structure transmitted that passes through the base of the skull?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal accessory nerves
Explanation:The Foramen Magnum and its Contents
The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull that allows for the passage of various structures. These structures include the medulla, which is the lower part of the brainstem responsible for vital functions such as breathing and heart rate. The meninges, which are the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord, also pass through the foramen magnum.
In addition, the foramen magnum transmits the vertebral arteries, which supply blood to the brainstem and cerebellum. The anterior and posterior spinal arteries, which provide blood to the spinal cord, also pass through this opening. The spinal accessory nerves, which control certain muscles in the neck and shoulders, and the sympathetic plexus, which regulates involuntary functions such as blood pressure and digestion, also pass through the foramen magnum.
Overall, the foramen magnum plays a crucial role in allowing for the passage of important structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the brain, spinal cord, and other vital organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits the Elderly Care Clinic with his wife. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, which has been under control with various medications. However, his wife is concerned as he has been exhibiting abnormal behavior lately, such as spending a considerable amount of their savings on a car and making inappropriate sexual advances towards his elderly neighbor. Which medication is the probable cause of this man's change in behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ropinirole
Explanation:Parkinson’s Disease Medications and Their Association with Impulsive Behaviours
Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and can lead to tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with coordination. There are several medications available to manage the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including dopamine agonists, anticholinergics, NMDA receptor antagonists, levodopa, and monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors.
Dopamine agonists, such as Ropinirole, are often prescribed alongside levodopa to manage motor complications. However, they are known to be associated with compulsive behaviours, including impulsive spending and sexual disinhibition.
Anticholinergics, like Procyclidine, are sometimes used to manage significant tremor in Parkinson’s disease. However, they are linked to a host of side-effects, including postural hypotension, and are not generally first line. There is no known link to impulsive behaviours.
Amantadine is a weak NMDA receptor antagonist and should be considered if patients develop dyskinesia which is not managed by modifying existing therapy. It is not known to be associated with impulsive behaviours.
Levodopa, the most effective symptomatic treatment for Parkinson’s disease, may be provided in preparations such as Sinemet or Madopar. It is known to feature a weaning-off period and administration should be timed very regularly. However, it is only very rarely associated with abnormal or compulsive behaviours.
Selegiline is a monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitor and can delay the need for levodopa therapy in some patients. However, it is not linked to compulsive behaviours such as sexual inhibition or gambling.
In summary, while some Parkinson’s disease medications are associated with impulsive behaviours, others are not. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential side-effects of each medication and monitor patients for any changes in behaviour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old left-handed man with permanent atrial fibrillation comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty finding words and weakness in his right arm and leg. The symptoms appeared suddenly and have persisted for 24 hours. He reports no changes in his vision.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Partial anterior circulation syndrome stroke (PACS)
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Strokes: PACS, TACS, TIA, POCS, and LACS
Strokes can be classified into different types based on the location and severity of the brain damage. Here are some key features of five common types of strokes:
Partial anterior circulation syndrome stroke (PACS): This type of stroke affects a part of the brain’s anterior circulation, which supplies blood to the front of the brain. Symptoms may include motor and speech deficits, but not hemianopia (loss of vision in one half of the visual field).
Total anterior circulation syndrome stroke (TACS): This type of stroke affects the entire anterior circulation, leading to a combination of motor deficit, speech deficit, and hemianopia.
Transient ischaemic attack (TIA): This is a temporary episode of neurological symptoms caused by a brief interruption of blood flow to the brain. Symptoms typically last no longer than 24 hours.
Posterior circulation syndrome stroke (POCS): This type of stroke affects the posterior circulation, which supplies blood to the back of the brain. Symptoms may include brainstem symptoms and signs arising from cranial nerve lesions, cerebellar signs, or ipsilateral motor/sensory deficits.
Lacunar syndrome stroke (LACS): This type of stroke is caused by a small infarct (tissue damage) in the deep brain structures, such as the internal capsule. Symptoms may include isolated motor or sensory deficits.
Understanding the different types of strokes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively. If you or someone you know experiences any symptoms of a stroke, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What does the term bouton terminaux refer to in an axodendritic chemical synapse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The synaptic terminal of the presynaptic axon
Explanation:Bouton Terminaux: The Synaptic Terminal of the Presynaptic Axon
A bouton terminaux, also known as a terminal button or end bulb, is a bulge found at the end of a synaptic projection, which can be either an axon or a dendrite. This structure is responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft, allowing for communication between neurons. It is important to note that the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell in the context of a synapse.
It is essential to differentiate the bouton terminaux from other structures involved in synaptic transmission. For instance, synaptic vesicles are membrane-bound packages containing neurotransmitters, but they are not the same as the bouton terminaux. Similarly, axon varicosities are small swellings along the length of an axon that release neurotransmitters directly onto effector organs, such as smooth muscle, and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.
Furthermore, the end bulb on the postsynaptic axon is not the same as the bouton terminaux, even though it is another term for it. This is because the end bulb refers to the postsynaptic cell, whereas the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell. Finally, fusion pores on the presynaptic axon membrane are structures formed after the presynaptic neurotransmitter vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.
In summary, the bouton terminaux is a crucial structure in synaptic transmission, responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. It is specific to the presynaptic cell and should not be confused with other structures involved in synaptic transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The organism was diagnosed as being Streptococcus pneumoniae after a lumbar puncture and the patient was treated with ceftriaxone. On discharge, his observations were normal. He has a past medical history of asthma treated with salbutamol and low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. He has no known drug allergies.
A few days following his discharge, he started experiencing postural headaches that were worse when sitting upright. He grades his pain as 7/10. He has been feeling nauseated, although has had no vomiting episodes. He also has some minor neck stiffness and is not confused. He attends A&E, as he is worried about his new symptoms. There is evidence of extrathecal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Diagnosis is confirmed on a computed tomography (CT) myelogram.
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s headache?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spontaneous intracranial hypotension
Explanation:Distinguishing Spontaneous Intracranial Hypotension from Other Conditions
Spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) is a condition that affects around 5 per 100,000 of the general population, with a peak age at diagnosis of 40 years. It is more common in women and develops due to a weakness in the spinal dura, which could be congenital, iatrogenic, or due to calcification of spinal discs. Lumbar punctures, which are commonly performed to aid the diagnosis of meningitis, are a common cause of SIH.
Clinically, SIH causes a postural headache that worsens when standing or sitting and improves when lying down. It is associated with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and can be diagnosed with a CT myelogram. Interestingly, CSF opening pressure is often normal, making diagnosis by repeat lumbar puncture unhelpful. Treatment typically involves an epidural blood patch.
It is important to distinguish SIH from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. A subdural hematoma, for example, would be diagnosed on a CT head by the presence of concave opacity and typically has a slow onset with fluctuating confusion. Aseptic meningitis, which presents with symptoms similar to meningitis, would be confirmed on microscopy of lumbar puncture. Insufficiently treated meningitis would not cause a postural headache, and a subarachnoid hemorrhage would cause a sudden-onset thunderclap headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is a lower motor neurone lesion associated with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flaccid paralysis
Explanation:Characteristics of Lower Motor Neurone Lesions
Lower motor neurone lesions are characterized by flaccid paralysis, downward plantar response, and fasciculations. These lesions result in the inability to elicit reflex contractions and slow muscle atrophy. In contrast, upper motor neurone lesions are associated with a positive Babinski sign.
Flaccid paralysis is a key feature of lower motor neurone lesions, which refers to the loss of muscle tone and strength. Downward plantar response is another characteristic, where the toes point downwards instead of upwards when the sole of the foot is stimulated. Fasciculations, or involuntary muscle twitches, are also commonly observed in lower motor neurone lesions.
Furthermore, reflex contractions cannot be elicited in lower motor neurone lesions, leading to muscle atrophy over time. This is in contrast to upper motor neurone lesions, where a positive Babinski sign is observed. A positive Babinski sign refers to the extension of the big toe and fanning of the other toes when the sole of the foot is stimulated, indicating an upper motor neurone lesion.
In summary, lower motor neurone lesions are characterized by flaccid paralysis, downward plantar response, and fasciculations, while upper motor neurone lesions are associated with a positive Babinski sign.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with jaundice yesterday. They discovered him in the linen cupboard, disoriented and searching for his luggage so he could check-out before midday. Upon your arrival, he is still confused and unsteady, with a tachycardia of 120 bpm and nystagmus. However, he poses no immediate danger to himself or others. Which medication would be suitable for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiamine IV and chlordiazepoxide orally (PO)
Explanation:Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a disorder caused by thiamine deficiency commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. The triad of ophthalmoplegia, confusion, and ataxia characterizes it. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff syndrome with lasting memory impairment. The following treatment plan is recommended:
Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal
1. Thiamine IV: Parenteral thiamine (Pabrinex®) is required and should be given in a setting where resuscitation facilities are available due to the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine is also given prophylactically in alcohol withdrawal.
2. Chlordiazepoxide PO: Given orally as required (PRN) to control the symptoms of delirium tremens. The dosage should be adjusted according to symptom severity.
3. Haloperidol IM: Antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or IM benzodiazepines are not required in this instance where the patient is not at risk to himself or others.
4. N-acetylcysteine IV: N-Acetylcysteine is used commonly for the treatment of paracetamol overdose. There is no evidence that this patient has a liver impairment as a result of paracetamol overdose.
5. Propranolol PO: Propranolol is used for the treatment of portal hypertension and although likely, there is no evidence this patient has portal hypertension.
6. Thiamine IM and midazolam IM: Thiamine is not given IM. There is no indication for IM benzodiazepines as this patient is co-operating with treatment. A chlordiazepoxide withdrawal regime would be better suited to this patient’s needs. This can be given orally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind the eyes and photophobia. She has vomited twice since the headache came on. She says it is the worst headache she has ever had by far. There is no past history of migraine. Examination reveals no neurological deficit.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Headache: CT Scan, Lumbar Puncture, Plasma Viscosity, MRI, and Angiography
Headaches can have various causes, and it is important to determine the underlying condition to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of a headache:
1. CT Scan of the Head: This imaging test is the initial investigation of choice when subarachnoid haemorrhage is suspected. It can show the presence of blood in the subarachnoid or intraventricular spaces.
2. Lumbar Puncture: If there is doubt about the presence of subarachnoid haemorrhage, a lumbar puncture may be considered 12 hours after the onset of symptoms. Multiple cerebrospinal fluid samples should be sent for microscopy to look for the persistent presence of red blood cells and xanthochromia.
3. Plasma Viscosity: This test is useful when temporal arthritis is suspected as a cause of headache. It will typically be highly elevated. However, it is not useful in the diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
4. MRI of the Head: This imaging test may be considered later in the diagnostic process if other diagnoses are being considered. However, CT scan is a more appropriate first-line test.
5. Angiography: This test is usually performed to identify an aneurysm that may be amenable to intervention, either with open surgery or commonly interventional radiology.
In conclusion, the appropriate diagnostic test for a headache depends on the suspected underlying condition. A thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the most appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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