-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby in the labour ward. Following the delivery, an evaluation is conducted to determine the amount of blood loss for recording purposes. The medical records indicate that she experienced a primary postpartum haemorrhage. Can you provide the accurate definition of primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?
Your Answer: The loss of 1000 ml or more of blood from the genital tract within 24 hours of the birth of a baby
Correct Answer: The loss of 500 ml or more of blood from the genital tract within 24 hours of the birth of a baby
Explanation:Maternal mortality rates are still high globally due to obstetric haemorrhage. Postpartum haemorrhage is characterized by blood loss of 500 ml after vaginal delivery, not including the placenta. If blood loss exceeds 1000mls, it is classified as major postpartum haemorrhage. It is crucial to evaluate the severity of the bleeding and seek appropriate management (as outlined below).
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is five days post-laparotomy for subacute intestinal obstruction secondary to underlying Crohn’s disease. He has suddenly become breathless and complains of pleuritic chest pain. On examination, the patient is confused and his chest is clear to auscultation. However, he is tachypnoeic and has a mildly raised jugular venous pressure (JVP).
Observations:
Blood pressure 97/70 mmHg
Heart rate 126 bpm
Respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute
Oxygen saturations 92% on room air
Arterial blood gas:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.53 7.35–7.45
Pa(CO2) 3.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Pa(O2) 8.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and right bundle branch block.
Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) confirms the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism.
Which is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?Your Answer: Thrombolysis
Correct Answer: iv fluids, oxygen, rivaroxaban
Explanation:Management of Pulmonary Embolism postoperatively
Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication that can occur after surgery and is associated with high mortality rates. The prompt diagnosis and management of this condition are crucial, and anticoagulant treatment is typically recommended. Patients can be started on apixaban or rivaroxaban at a therapeutic dose or a combination of LMWH and either dabigatran or warfarin until therapeutic levels are reached. In the case of warfarin, it is typically started concurrently with LMWH since it takes 48-72 hours for its anticoagulant properties to take effect.
In addition to anticoagulant therapy, patients with pulmonary embolism may require iv fluids and high-flow oxygen if they are hypotensive and hypoxic. Enoxaparin is typically used as a treatment dose, but unfractionated iv heparin may be used as an alternative in patients with renal impairment.
Warfarin is used for long-term anticoagulation in patients who have had pulmonary embolism, but it is not appropriate for immediate management since it is initially pro-thrombotic. Thrombolysis is indicated in patients who are haemodynamically unstable, but it is generally avoided postoperatively due to an increased risk of bleeding.
In summary, the management of pulmonary embolism postoperatively involves prompt diagnosis, anticoagulant therapy, and supportive measures such as iv fluids and oxygen. The choice of anticoagulant and duration of therapy will depend on the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man from Ghana presents to the neurology outpatient department with a one-month history of progressive weakness following a recent diarrheal illness. Upon examination, there is 4/5 power at hip flexion and knee extension, which improves to 5/5 after a brief period of exercise. Knee reflexes are absent, but facial muscles and cranial nerves are normal. Creatinine kinase levels are elevated at 420 U/L (40-320), and EMG testing shows an increment in muscle action potentials after exercise. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Explanation:Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a possible diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms. It is a rare disorder that can affect both the upper and lower motor neurons, causing proximal muscle weakness. It can occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome in a small percentage of cases, but it can also be an idiopathic autoimmune disorder in younger patients. Unlike Guillain-Barré syndrome, the weakness in LES does not improve with exercise, and the EMG shows an increment in muscle action potentials after exercise. Inclusion body myositis is unlikely as it typically affects the finger flexors rather than the hip flexors and the weakness is distal rather than proximal. Myasthenia gravis is also a differential diagnosis, but the weakness in this disorder worsens with exercise, whereas in LES, it does not.
Understanding Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that is often associated with small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. However, it can also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. This condition is caused by an antibody that attacks the presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.
The symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome include limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms such as dry mouth, impotence, and difficulty micturating. Unlike myasthenia gravis, ophthalmoplegia and ptosis are not commonly observed in this condition. Although repeated muscle contractions can lead to increased muscle strength, this is only seen in 50% of patients and muscle strength will eventually decrease following prolonged muscle use.
To diagnose Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an incremental response to repetitive electrical stimulation is observed during an electromyography (EMG) test. Treatment options include addressing the underlying cancer, immunosuppression with prednisolone and/or azathioprine, and the use of 3,4-diaminopyridine, which blocks potassium channel efflux in the nerve terminal to increase the action potential duration. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy and plasma exchange may also be beneficial.
In summary, Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that can be associated with cancer or occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. It is characterized by limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms. Treatment options include addressing the underlying cancer, immunosuppression, and the use of 3,4-diaminopyridine, intravenous immunoglobulin therapy, and plasma exchange.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his father due to a loud, harsh cough that has persisted for the past 2 weeks. The child has also been more lethargic than usual. Although he appears to be in good health, you observe 2 coughing fits during the consultation, which cause the child distress and difficulty breathing, resulting in a loud, harsh inspiratory noise between coughing fits. The patient has no known allergies or medical history, but his vaccination record is unclear since he moved to the UK from another country 3 years ago. The patient's temperature is 37.5ºC.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: No treatment needed but report to Public Health England
Correct Answer: Prescribe azithromycin and report to Public Health England
Explanation:Whooping cough must be reported to Public Health England as it is a notifiable disease. According to NICE guidelines, oral azithromycin can be used to treat the disease within the first 21 days of symptoms. If the patient presents later than this, antibiotic therapy is not necessary. Salbutamol nebulisers are not a suitable treatment option as antibiotics are required.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward after undergoing a total hip replacement. She sustained a neck of femur fracture after falling from a standing position while vacuuming her living room. She was brought to the hospital by ambulance with a shortened, externally rotated left leg. The hip x-ray confirmed the fracture, and she underwent surgery promptly. The patient has a medical history of mild knee osteoarthritis and type II diabetes mellitus. She has been in the hospital for three days, is weight-bearing, and is ready for discharge. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation have been initiated.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Commence raloxifene
Correct Answer: Commence alendronate
Explanation:After a fragility fracture in women aged 75 or older, a DEXA scan is not required to diagnose osteoporosis and start bisphosphonate treatment, with alendronate being the first-line option. The patient in the scenario has already experienced a fragility fracture and is over 75, so a DEXA scan is unnecessary as it will not alter her management. A skeletal survey is also not needed as there are no indications of bone pathology. Raloxifene is a second-line treatment for osteoporosis and not appropriate for the patient who has had a neck of femur fracture, making alendronate the initial choice.
The NICE guidelines for managing osteoporosis in postmenopausal women include offering vitamin D and calcium supplementation, with alendronate being the first-line treatment. If a patient cannot tolerate alendronate, risedronate or etidronate may be given as second-line drugs, with strontium ranelate or raloxifene as options if those cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, with alendronate and risedronate being superior to etidronate in preventing hip fractures. Other treatments include selective estrogen receptor modulators, strontium ranelate, denosumab, teriparatide, and hormone replacement therapy. Hip protectors and falls risk assessment may also be considered in management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 21-year-old university student complains of a 2-month history of tiredness and weight loss. On further questioning the patient reveals that they have been excessively thirsty and have also been passing urine many times during the day and night. The patient is investigated further and is diagnosed with having type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following is deficient in this condition?Your Answer: Beta-islet cells
Explanation:The Different Types of Islet Cells in the Pancreas
The pancreas contains clusters of endocrine tissue called islets of Langerhans. These islets are composed of different types of cells that secrete various hormones. The most abundant type of islet cell is the beta-islet cell, which produces insulin. Insulin is essential for regulating blood sugar levels, and its deficiency is the hallmark of type 1 diabetes.
Gamma-islet cells, also known as pancreatic polypeptide-producing cells, make up a small percentage of islet cells and are not involved in insulin production. Alpha-islet cells, on the other hand, are located at the periphery of the islets and secrete glucagon, which raises blood sugar levels. Delta-islet cells produce somatostatin, a hormone that inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon.
Lastly, epsilon-islet cells produce ghrelin, a hormone that stimulates appetite. However, these cells make up less than 1% of the islet cells and are not as well understood as the other types.
In summary, the different types of islet cells in the pancreas play crucial roles in regulating blood sugar levels and other metabolic processes. Understanding their functions and interactions is essential for developing effective treatments for diabetes and other metabolic disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his father. He has been experiencing blurred vision for the past few months, along with headaches and eye fatigue. The blurred vision is more noticeable when looking at distant objects but can also be a problem when looking at closer objects.
What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?Your Answer: Retinoscopy
Explanation:Investigating Astigmatism: Different Techniques and Their Uses
When a young girl with Down syndrome presents with symptoms of blurred vision and eye strain, the first investigation that should be done is retinoscopy. This simple procedure can determine refractive errors such as astigmatism, which is a risk factor in this case. Any irregularities in the width of the retinal reflex can indicate astigmatism.
Other techniques that can be used to investigate astigmatism include anterior segment optical coherence tomography, corneal topography, keratometry, and wavefront analysis technology. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography produces images of the cornea using optical light reflection and is useful for astigmatism caused by eye surgery. Corneal topography uses software to gather data about the dimensions of the cornea to develop colored maps that can display the axes of the cornea. Keratometry may be used to assess astigmatism, but it is less useful in cases of irregular astigmatism or when the corneal powers are too small or too big. Wavefront analysis technology is an emerging technology that can graphically present astigmatism on a map, but it is not widely used at present.
In conclusion, the choice of investigation for astigmatism depends on the individual case and the specific needs of the patient. Retinoscopy is usually the first-line investigation, but other techniques may be used depending on the circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man presents to his GP after being discharged from the emergency department following multiple falls. He reports feeling dizzy upon standing up. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured in both lying and standing positions:
Lying 143/94 mmHg
Standing 110/78 mmHg
The patient's medical history includes benign prostatic hyperplasia, type 2 diabetes, and depression. Which medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxazosin
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s multiple falls is likely postural hypotension, which can be a side effect of doxazosin. This medication is an alpha-blocker used to treat hypertension and benign prostatic hypertension by reducing activation of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Atorvastatin, linagliptin, and metformin are not associated with postural hypotension, but may cause other side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, muscle pain, weight gain, and hypoglycemic episodes.
Understanding Alpha Blockers and Their Side-Effects
Alpha blockers are medications that are commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension. These drugs work by blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors in the body, which can help to relax the muscles in the prostate gland and blood vessels, leading to improved urine flow and lower blood pressure. Some examples of alpha blockers include doxazosin and tamsulosin.
While alpha blockers can be effective in treating these conditions, they can also cause some side-effects. One common side-effect is postural hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position. This can cause dizziness or fainting and may be more common in older adults. Other side-effects of alpha blockers may include drowsiness, dyspnoea, and cough.
It is important to exercise caution when taking alpha blockers. This is because there is a risk of developing intra-operative floppy iris syndrome, which can make the surgery more difficult and increase the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
What percentage of infants born with any level of hearing impairment are identified through neonatal screening as being at a high risk of having congenital hearing loss?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Importance of Universal Newborn Hearing Screening
A variety of factors can increase the risk of neonatal hearing loss, including prematurity, low birth weight, neonatal jaundice, and bacterial meningitis. Traditional screening methods only target high-risk infants with these risk factors, but this approach only detects half of all cases of hearing impairment. The other half of cases have no obvious risk factors, making it difficult for parents and professionals to identify the problem.
To address this issue, universal newborn hearing screening has been introduced to ensure that all infants have their hearing tested from birth. This approach is crucial for detecting hearing loss early and providing appropriate interventions to support language and communication development. By identifying hearing loss in all infants, regardless of risk factors, we can ensure that no child goes undetected and untreated. Universal newborn hearing screening is an important step towards improving outcomes for children with hearing loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl with short stature visits her GP due to delayed onset of menstruation. During the physical examination, the GP observes a broad neck and detects a systolic murmur in the chest. What condition is most likely causing these symptoms, and with which of the following options is it associated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Aortic coarctation, a congenital cardiac abnormality characterized by the narrowing of a section of the aorta, is commonly associated with Turner’s syndrome. This condition results in an increase in afterload, which can be detected as a systolic murmur. The patient’s amenorrhea further supports a diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome over other possibilities. Mitral regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mitral valve prolapse are unlikely to be associated with Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of increasing soreness, redness, and discharge from her left eye. She describes a gritty sensation in the affected eye but denies any foreign body exposure. The patient is otherwise healthy and admits to wearing contact lenses for up to 16 hours daily but has stopped since the onset of symptoms and is using glasses instead. Upon examination, the left eye appears inflamed with excessive tearing, while the right eye is normal. There are no abnormalities in the periorbital tissues, and visual acuity is normal with glasses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:If a patient who wears contact lenses complains of a painful, red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out microbial keratitis. While conjunctivitis is the most common cause of a red eye, it can usually be treated with antibiotic eye drops in primary care. However, contact lens wearers are at a higher risk of developing microbial keratitis, which can lead to serious complications such as vision loss. Distinguishing between the two conditions requires a slit-lamp examination, which is why same-day referral to ophthalmology is necessary. Contact lenses should not be used, and medical treatment is required. It is important to note that steroid eye drops should not be prescribed for acute red eye from primary care, and artificial tears are not appropriate for this type of infection.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old patient with prostate cancer is initiated on goserelin therapy. After a week of starting the treatment, he visits a nearby emergency department with complaints of aggravated lower urinary tract symptoms and newly developed back pain. What could have been done to prevent this deterioration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pretreatment with flutamide
Explanation:In the initial phase of treatment, goserelin may lead to a temporary aggravation of prostatic cancer symptoms, known as the ‘flare effect’. This is due to an initial surge in luteinizing hormone production before receptor down-regulation occurs. To counteract this, flutamide, a synthetic antiandrogen, can be administered beforehand to mitigate the tumour flare by blocking androgen receptors. The sudden onset of back pain in this patient is a cause for concern and requires further examination to determine if spinal metastasis is present.
Management of Prostate Cancer
Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.
For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A patient arrives at the hospital reporting he took a significant overdose of paracetamol over 12 hours ago.
On exam, he appears unwell and has significant right upper quadrant tenderness and so acetylcysteine treatment was commenced.
An arterial blood gas with other specific tests taken 48 hours post first ingestion shows:
pH 7.20 7.35–7.45
pC02 5.0 kPa 4.4–5.9
pO2 11.0 kPa 10.0–14.0
HCO3 10 mmol/L 22–28
Lac 6 mmol/L <2
Creatinine 700 μmol/L 53–106
Bilirubin 400 μmol/L 2–17
Prothrombin time (PT) 20 sec 11-15
What result indicates that this case meets the King's College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pH
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath over the past six months. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with aortic stenosis. What physical sign is the most reliable indicator of the severity of the valvular disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Length of the murmur
Explanation:Characteristics of Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve becomes narrowed, causing the heart to work harder to pump blood out to the body. Despite this increased workload, the apex beat in aortic stenosis is not displaced but has a heaving character. Additionally, the pulse is typically of small volume and slow rising. The second heart sound may be inaudible or paradoxically split.
It is important to note that the intensity of the murmur is not a reliable indicator of the severity of the disease. As the cardiac output is reduced with more severe disease, the murmur may become less intense. However, the murmur tends to become longer as the disease progresses, due to the longer ejection time needed. These characteristics can help healthcare professionals diagnose and monitor aortic stenosis in patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-hour history of right-sided loin to groin pain. He has never experienced pain like this before and regular analgesia has not relieved his symptoms. His past medical history includes hypertension for which he takes amlodipine and indapamide.
His observations are as follows:
Temperature 35.8ºC
Heart rate 105 bpm
Blood pressure 100/60 mmHg
Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
Saturations 96% on air
On examination, he is clammy to touch. His chest is clear and heart sounds are normal. There is generalised abdominal tenderness and central guarding. Bowel sounds are present.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent vascular review
Explanation:Immediate vascular review for emergency surgical repair is necessary for patients suspected of having a ruptured AAA. This is particularly important for men aged above 50 years who may present with symptoms similar to renal colic, such as loin to groin pain. In this case, the patient is displaying signs of shock, including tachycardia and hypotension, which further support the diagnosis of a ruptured AAA. Blood cultures are not necessary at this stage as the patient’s symptoms are more likely due to haemorrhagic shock than sepsis. Similarly, urinalysis is not useful in managing a ruptured AAA. Although a CT KUB is commonly used to detect ureteric calculi and renal pathology in patients with loin to groin pain, the presence of shock in an older man with a history of hypertension suggests a ruptured AAA as the more likely diagnosis.
Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: Symptoms and Management
A ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) can present in two ways: as a sudden collapse or as persistent severe central abdominal pain with developing shock. The mortality rate for a ruptured AAA is almost 80%, making it a medical emergency. Symptoms of a ruptured AAA include severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back and a pulsatile, expansile mass in the abdomen. Patients may also experience shock, which is characterized by hypotension and tachycardia, or they may have collapsed.
Immediate vascular review is necessary for patients with a suspected ruptured AAA, with emergency surgical repair being the primary management option. In haemodynamically unstable patients, the diagnosis is clinical, and they are not stable enough for a CT scan to confirm the diagnosis. These patients should be taken straight to theatre. For frail patients with multiple comorbidities, a ruptured AAA may represent a terminal event, and consideration should be given to a palliative approach.
Patients who are haemodynamically stable may undergo a CT angiogram to confirm the diagnosis and assess the suitability of endovascular repair. In summary, a ruptured AAA is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention and management to improve the patient’s chances of survival.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have mild hypercalcaemia. He is anxious because the problem failed to resolve in his father, despite neck surgery. 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are low.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH)
Explanation:Differentiating Hypercalcaemia Causes: A Comparison
Hypercalcaemia can be caused by various conditions, including familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH), primary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcaemia of malignancy. To differentiate these causes, 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are measured.
In FHH, urinary calcium excretion levels are low, while in primary hyperparathyroidism, they are elevated. Sarcoidosis can also cause hypercalcaemia, but with elevated urinary calcium excretion levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcaemia. Lastly, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is characterized by elevated urinary calcium excretion levels.
Therefore, measuring 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels is crucial in determining the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
An 80-year old male arrives at the emergency department following a head-on collision. He reports experiencing intense pain in his left knee. During a lower limb examination, you observe that the tibia moves backward when a force is applied. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) rupture
Explanation:Common Knee Injuries and Their Characteristics
Knee injuries can occur due to various reasons, including sports injuries and accidents. Some of the most common knee injuries include ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament, rupture of medial collateral ligament, meniscal tear, chondromalacia patellae, dislocation of the patella, fractured patella, and tibial plateau fracture.
Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament usually occurs due to a high twisting force applied to a bent knee, resulting in a loud crack, pain, and rapid joint swelling. The management of this injury involves intense physiotherapy or surgery. On the other hand, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament occurs due to hyperextension injuries, where the tibia lies back on the femur, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position.
Rupture of medial collateral ligament occurs when the leg is forced into valgus via force outside the leg, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position. Meniscal tear usually occurs due to rotational sporting injuries, and the patient may develop skills to ‘unlock’ the knee. Recurrent episodes of pain and effusions are common, often following minor trauma.
Chondromalacia patellae is common in teenage girls, following an injury to the knee, and presents with a typical history of pain on going downstairs or at rest, tenderness, and quadriceps wasting. Dislocation of the patella most commonly occurs as a traumatic primary event, either through direct trauma or through severe contraction of quadriceps with knee stretched in valgus and external rotation.
Fractured patella can occur due to a direct blow to the patella causing undisplaced fragments or an avulsion fracture. Tibial plateau fracture occurs in the elderly or following significant trauma in young, where the knee is forced into valgus or varus, but the knee fractures before the ligaments rupture. The Schatzker classification system is used to classify tibial plateau fractures based on their anatomical description and features.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man is brought to the Intensive Care Unit after accidental drowning in a lake. He was a swimmer who got into trouble and was underwater for approximately 10 minutes before being rescued. He was found unresponsive and not breathing, and bystanders immediately started performing CPR while waiting for emergency services. Upon arrival at the ICU, he is intubated and ventilated, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, pulse 130 bpm, oxygen saturations 85%, and temperature 33.2 °C.
Under what circumstances is extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) considered as a treatment option for drowning patients?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Persistent hypothermia from cold water drowning
Explanation:When to Consider Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) for Drowning Patients
Drowning can lead to respiratory compromise and persistent hypothermia, which may require advanced medical intervention. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) is a treatment option that can be considered for selected patients who have drowned. However, it is important to understand the indications for ECMO and when it may not be appropriate.
ECMO may be considered in cases where conventional mechanical ventilation or high-frequency ventilation have failed to improve respiratory function. Additionally, there should be a reasonable probability of the patient recovering neurological function. Persistent hypothermia from cold water drowning is another indication for ECMO.
On the other hand, altered level of consciousness alone is not an indication for ECMO. Patients who respond well to conventional mechanical ventilation or high-frequency ventilation may not require ECMO. Similarly, haemodynamic instability can be managed with inotropes and fluids, and ECMO should only be considered for patients who are resistant to conventional organ support.
It is important to note that ECMO has a high complication rate, with a 15% risk of bleeding. Therefore, it should only be used in selected cases where the potential benefits outweigh the risks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset knee pain. He reports no other symptoms. The following observations and investigations were recorded:
- Respiratory rate: 18/min
- Oxygen saturations: 99% on air
- Heart rate: 72/min
- Blood pressure: 140/71 mmHg
- Temperature: 36.6ºC
- Hb: 144 g/L (135-180)
- Platelets: 390 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC: 16.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- CRP: 42 mg/L (< 5)
- X-ray right knee: Normal joint space. Prominent calcification of the menisci and articular cartilage
- Synovial fluid microscopy and culture: White blood cells - 1700/mm³. No growth at 48 hours
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:The presence of chondrocalcinosis, or calcification of the articular cartilage, is a key clue that suggests pseudogout as the diagnosis. This is often seen as calcification of the menisci in the knee. Gout is a possible diagnosis, but the x-ray findings in this case are more indicative of pseudogout. Osteoarthritis is unlikely as it typically presents with chronic joint pain and different x-ray features. Reactive arthritis is also unlikely as it usually affects younger patients and is associated with other symptoms not present in this case.
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness. Upon conducting investigations, the following results were obtained:
Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
ALP 270 U/l
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as well as low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.
Understanding Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old female presents with intense pruritus during pregnancy, particularly in her hands and feet, which worsens at night. She has no visible rash and has a history of a stillbirth at 36 weeks. What is the most efficient management for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from obstetric cholestasis, which can increase the risk of premature birth and stillbirth. The main symptom is severe itching, and elevated serum bile acids are typically present. Liver function tests, including bilirubin levels, may not be reliable. The most effective treatment is ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA), which is now mostly synthetic. While antihistamines and topical menthol creams can provide some relief, UDCA is more likely to improve outcomes.
Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left knee. An x-ray reveals osteoarthritis. He has no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for managing his pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral paracetamol
Explanation:For the treatment of osteoarthritis, the first-line medications are paracetamol and topical NSAIDs (if the affected area is the knee or hand). Oral NSAIDs should only be used as a second-line option due to their potential adverse effects.
The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2014 on the management of OA, which includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological treatments. Glucosamine, a normal constituent of glycosaminoglycans in cartilage and synovial fluid, has been studied for its potential benefits in OA management.
Several double-blind randomized controlled trials (RCTs) have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee OA, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a 2008 Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness.
Despite the conflicting evidence, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for OA management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of headaches, nausea, and anxiety that have been ongoing for the past year. He has sought medical attention from various healthcare providers and was prescribed codeine pain relief, which he has now finished. Upon examination, there are no notable findings, and private investigations including a CT and MRI of the head have come back normal. Despite being reassured multiple times, he remains convinced that he has a brain tumour and requests further testing and pain relief. His paternal grandfather died from a brain tumour. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this patient is hypochondriasis, also known as illness anxiety disorder. This is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of a serious underlying disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results and reassurance from healthcare providers. It is helpful to remember that hypochondriasis is worrying about cancer, as both words contain the letter C and cancer is an example of a serious underlying disease.
Conversion disorder, factitious disorder, and malingering are all incorrect diagnoses for this patient. Conversion disorder involves functional neurological symptoms without clear cause, often traced back to a psychological trigger. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves intentionally producing physical or psychological problems to assume a sick role or deceive healthcare providers. Malingering involves fraudulently simulating or exaggerating symptoms for financial or other gains. None of these diagnoses fit the patient’s symptoms and concerns, as they are not consciously feigning symptoms, seeking material gain, or assuming a sick role. The patient is genuinely worried about a serious underlying condition being missed.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
What category of hypersensitivity is characterized by immune system dysregulation in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an inflammatory disorder affecting multiple systems?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 3 hypersensitivity
Explanation:SLE is classified as a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, which is characterized by the formation of antigen-antibody complexes. The development of SLE involves the transfer of cellular remnants containing nuclear material to lymphatic tissues, where they are presented to T cells. This, in turn, stimulates B cells to produce autoantibodies. These IgG autoantibodies are specifically targeted to attack DNA and other nuclear material, leading to the formation of antigen-antibody complexes that cause damage in various parts of the body.
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: Epidemiology and Pathophysiology
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that is much more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. It is also more prevalent in Afro-Caribbeans and Asian communities. The onset of SLE usually occurs between the ages of 20-40 years, and the incidence has risen substantially during the past 50 years. The pathophysiology of SLE involves a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, which is associated with HLA B8, DR2, DR3. The disease is thought to be caused by immune system dysregulation leading to immune complex formation. These immune complexes can affect any organ, including the skin, joints, kidneys, and brain.
It is interesting to note that the incidence of SLE in black Africans is much lower than in black Americans, although the reasons for this are unclear. The rise in incidence of SLE over the past 50 years may be due to changes in environmental factors or lifestyle habits. The dysregulation of the immune system in SLE leads to the formation of immune complexes, which can deposit in various organs and cause damage. This can result in a wide range of symptoms, including joint pain, skin rashes, and kidney problems. Understanding the epidemiology and pathophysiology of SLE is crucial for developing effective treatments and improving patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued after walking to the park and back. The birth was via a caesarean section and she needed one unit of blood transfusion. She visits her family doctor and denies experiencing any chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness of breath, or further bleeding.
During the examination, there are no indications of ongoing bleeding, and the caesarean section incision is healing properly. The blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 95 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Ferritin 6 µg/L (15 - 300)
What is the minimum haemoglobin level for this patient to be prescribed iron supplements?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The appropriate cut-off for determining if iron supplementation is necessary in the postpartum period is <100 g/L. It is important to continue oral iron for three months after normalizing ferritin levels to ensure adequate stores for efficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Cut-offs of <105 g/L, <110 g/L, and <120 g/L are incorrect for iron supplementation in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, first trimester of pregnancy, and postpartum period, respectively. However, the decision to administer iron for anaemia should be based on the doctor's discretion and the patient's symptoms. During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum. If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a one-month history of bilateral shoulder and hip girdle pain. Polymyalgia rheumatica is diagnosed and the patient is prescribed a daily dose of 15 mg oral prednisolone. Considering the patient's likelihood of taking prednisolone for more than 3 months, what is the best course of action to address her heightened risk of developing osteoporosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate co-prescription of alendronate
Explanation:According to the Royal College of Physicians of London’s guidance on glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis, patients who are going to take long-term steroids should receive bone protection immediately. This involves prescribing a prophylactic bisphosphonate, such as alendronate, to any patient who will likely continue taking corticosteroids for at least 3 months. Therefore, the correct next step in management would be to immediately co-prescribe alendronate, rather than giving smoking cessation advice or ordering a DEXA scan. While denosumab is an option, bisphosphonates are typically the first line of defense for osteoporosis prophylaxis and management. Delaying the prescription of alendronate would be incorrect, as bone protection is necessary right away. It’s important to note that a t score of -1.5 is the standard cutoff for starting bone protection treatment, not -1 as stated in the question.
Managing the Risk of Osteoporosis in Patients Taking Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly when a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is important to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, with further management dependent on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department with a painful knee that started 3 days ago. Upon examination, the patient is stable but has a fever of 38.5ºC. The left knee is red and has limited range of motion. The patient also reports having a severe sore throat 3 weeks ago, which was treated with antibiotics. There are no other symptoms reported. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synovial fluid sampling
Explanation:When a patient presents with an acutely painful, red joint and is systemically unwell, septic arthritis must be considered until proven otherwise. The most important investigation in such cases is synovial fluid sampling, according to NICE guidelines. This is the only reliable method of evaluating a potentially infected joint and should be done before starting antibiotics. Referral to the GUM clinic is not appropriate in the urgent management of this patient, and imaging the joint is useful but not mandatory. While blood cultures are important, synovial fluid sampling is the most appropriate investigation due to its specificity. Ultrasound can also be helpful in identifying abnormalities not visible on plain X-ray.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man was undergoing a routine appendectomy and was given general anaesthesia with succinylcholine and halothane. The patient was sedated and intubated during the procedure. After one hour, the anaesthetist observed that the patient had a temperature of 41 °C, blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. An arterial blood gas (ABG) test revealed a pH of 7.2 (normal value 7.35–7.45) and a PaCO2 of 6.6 kPa (normal value <4.5 kPa). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia
Explanation:Common Adverse Reactions to Medications: Symptoms and Treatments
Malignant Hyperthermia, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome, Serotonin Syndrome, Acute Dystonia, and Meningitis are all potential adverse reactions to medications.
Malignant Hyperthermia is a rare condition that can occur after exposure to general anaesthetics or muscle relaxants. Symptoms include a sudden increase in temperature, acidosis, hypercapnia, and widespread skeletal muscle rigidity. Treatment involves dantrolene and supportive care such as cooling and correction of acidosis.
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare idiosyncratic reaction that can occur as a response to taking high-potency anti-psychotic medication. Symptoms include hyperthermia, fluctuating consciousness, rigidity, tachycardia, labile blood pressure, and autonomic dysfunction. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication and supportive management such as fluids and cooling. Dantrolene or bromocriptine may also be used.
Serotonin Syndrome occurs when a patient takes multiple doses, an overdose, or a combination of certain medications. Symptoms include confusion, agitation, hyperreflexia, shivering, sweating, tremor, fever, and ataxia. Treatment involves stopping the drugs and providing supportive care.
Acute Dystonia presents with spasm of various muscle groups and is a side-effect of anti-psychotic medication. It can occur in the first few hours of administration of anti-psychotic medication. It is also seen with the antiemetic metoclopramide where it can cause an oculogyric crisis. It is not usually associated with anaesthesia.
Meningitis is not a complication of anaesthesia or muscle relaxants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old sheep farmer who recently arrived in the UK from Iran presents with increasing right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain of two week's duration. She also complains of tiredness and of being generally unwell for several months. She has not experienced a change in her bowel habit, weight loss, or night sweats.
Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8ºC, heart rate 80/min, blood pressure 135/90 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min. She is mildly jaundiced with RUQ pain and the liver edge is palpable 3 cm below the costal margin.
Blood tests revealed raised eosinophils and her LFTs were as follows:
- Bilirubin 30 µmol/l
- ALP 190 u/l
- ALT 36 u/l
An ultrasound scan of her liver demonstrated a 7 cm cystic lesion. The scan was technically challenging but there appeared to be daughter cysts present.
What is the recommended next investigation to carry out?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT abdomen
Explanation:CT is the most appropriate investigation for hydatid cysts, while percutaneous aspiration is not recommended.
When dealing with cystic liver lesions, there are several possibilities to consider, such as simple cysts, cancers, abscesses, and microabscesses. Depending on the situation, any of the available options could be a valid diagnostic tool. However, in this case, the symptoms and findings suggest a hydatid cyst as the most likely cause. The patient’s location and occupation increase the likelihood of a parasitic infection, and the presence of eosinophilia and daughter cysts on ultrasound further support this diagnosis. To differentiate between hydatid cysts and amoebic abscesses, CT is the preferred imaging modality.
It is crucial to note that percutaneous aspiration of hydatid cysts is not recommended due to the risk of triggering anaphylaxis and spreading daughter cysts throughout the abdomen.
Hydatid Cysts: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hydatid cysts are caused by the tapeworm parasite Echinococcus granulosus and are endemic in Mediterranean and Middle Eastern countries. These cysts are enclosed in an outer fibrous capsule containing multiple small daughter cysts that act as allergens, triggering a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. The majority of cysts, up to 90%, occur in the liver and lungs and can be asymptomatic or symptomatic if the cysts are larger than 5 cm in diameter. The bursting of cysts, infection, and organ dysfunction, such as biliary, bronchial, renal, and cerebrospinal fluid outflow obstruction, can cause morbidity. In biliary rupture, the classical triad of biliary colic, jaundice, and urticaria may be present.
Imaging, such as ultrasound, is often used as a first-line investigation, while CT is the best investigation to differentiate hydatid cysts from amoebic and pyogenic cysts. Serology is also useful for primary diagnosis and for follow-up after treatment, with a wide variety of different antibody/antigen tests available. Surgery is the mainstay of treatment, but it is crucial that the cyst walls are not ruptured during removal, and the contents are sterilized first.
Overall, hydatid cysts can cause significant morbidity if left untreated, and early diagnosis and treatment are essential for a successful outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
An elderly woman, aged 72, is admitted to the hospital with chest pain and diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (CKD2). Her current medications include metformin 1 g twice daily, ramipril 2.5 mg daily, and aspirin 75 mg daily. What therapeutic intervention is necessary to prepare for the upcoming contrast angiogram?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe adequate hydration to euvolaemia with 0.9% NaCl
Explanation:Intravenous contrast media can lead to contrast induced nephropathy (CIN) in susceptible individuals, particularly those with chronic kidney disease. The best prophylactic intervention is optimal hydration with 0.9% NaCl or 1.26% sodium bicarbonate. N-acetylcysteine is no longer recommended as a potential intervention. Metformin and ramipril can be continued during a contrast-associated intervention as long as renal function is monitored closely. Discontinuation of metformin is not necessary as studies have not proven a significant causal link between impaired renal function and potential lactic acidosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)