-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance following a high-speed head-on collision while driving. Despite wearing his seatbelt, he has developed confusion, pulsatile swelling, and bruising on the right side of his neck, and eventually becomes unresponsive. Additionally, he has sustained a fractured nose and multiple lacerations on his face, including his lips. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Carotid artery laceration
Explanation:When passengers wear seatbelts incorrectly during high-speed road traffic accidents, they may suffer from poly-trauma. The injuries sustained depend on the type and speed of the vehicle involved. One potential injury is damage to the carotid artery in the neck, which can cause a pulsatile mass and swelling. While a cervical spine fracture could also occur, it would not explain the expanding mass in the neck. A clavicle fracture is also unlikely to cause the same symptoms. Although it is technically possible for an embolism to rupture due to trauma, this is not a likely explanation for the observed symptoms.
Trauma management follows the principles of ATLS and involves an ABCDE approach. Thoracic injuries include simple pneumothorax, mediastinal traversing wounds, tracheobronchial tree injury, haemothorax, blunt cardiac injury, diaphragmatic injury, and traumatic aortic disruption. Abdominal trauma may involve deceleration injuries and injuries to the spleen, liver, or small bowel. Diagnostic tools include diagnostic peritoneal lavage, abdominal CT scan, and ultrasound. Urethrography may be necessary for suspected urethral injury.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and prostate cancer is undergoing a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. His temperature during the operation is recorded at 34.8 ºC and his blood pressure is 98/57 mmHg. The surgeon observes that the patient is experiencing more bleeding than anticipated. What could be causing the excessive bleeding?
Your Answer: Cessation of warfarin prior to surgery
Correct Answer: Intra-operative hypothermia
Explanation:During the perioperative period, thermoregulation is hindered due to various factors such as the use of unwarmed intravenous fluids, exposure to a cold theatre environment, cool skin preparation fluids, and muscle relaxants that prevent shivering. Additionally, spinal or epidural anesthesia can lead to increased heat loss at the peripheries by reducing sympathetic tone and preventing peripheral vasoconstriction. The consequences of hypothermia can be significant, as it can affect the function of proteins and enzymes in the body, leading to slower metabolism of anesthetic drugs and reduced effectiveness of platelets, coagulation factors, and the immune system. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic medication used in trauma and major hemorrhage, can prevent the breakdown of fibrin. Intraoperative hypertension may cause excess bleeding, while active malignancy can lead to a hypercoagulable state. However, tumors may also have friable vessels due to neovascularization, which can result in excessive bleeding if cut erroneously. To prevent excessive bleeding, warfarin is typically stopped prior to surgery.
Managing Patient Temperature in the Perioperative Period
Thermoregulation in the perioperative period involves managing a patient’s temperature from one hour before surgery until 24 hours after the surgery. The focus is on preventing hypothermia, which is more common than hyperthermia. Hypothermia is defined as a temperature of less than 36.0ºC. NICE has produced a clinical guideline for suggested management of patient temperature. Patients are more likely to become hypothermic while under anesthesia due to the effects of anesthesia drugs and the fact that they are often wearing little clothing with large body areas exposed.
There are several risk factors for perioperative hypothermia, including ASA grade of 2 or above, major surgery, low body weight, large volumes of unwarmed IV infusions, and unwarmed blood transfusions. The pre-operative phase starts one hour before induction of anesthesia. The patient’s temperature should be measured, and if it is lower than 36.0ºC, active warming should be commenced immediately. During the intra-operative phase, forced air warming devices should be used for any patient with an anesthetic duration of more than 30 minutes or for patients at high risk of perioperative hypothermia regardless of anesthetic duration.
In the post-operative phase, the patient’s temperature should be documented initially and then repeated every 15 minutes until transfer to the ward. Patients should not be transferred to the ward if their temperature is less than 36.0ºC. Complications of perioperative hypothermia include coagulopathy, prolonged recovery from anesthesia, reduced wound healing, infection, and shivering. Managing patient temperature in the perioperative period is essential to ensure good outcomes, as even slight reductions in temperature can have significant effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 4 hours ago. She describes the pain as intermittent and has experienced similar pain before, but not as severe as this time. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which is well-controlled with inhalers, and has been a smoker for 25 pack years.
Her vital signs are heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 130/84 mmHg, temperature 38.6ºC, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Upon examination, the patient appears very ill and sweaty, with some yellowing of the eyes. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant.
What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Cholecystitis
Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Cholangitis can occur even in the absence of stones, although they are commonly associated with the condition. ERCP can be used to drain the biliary tree, but surgical exploration of the common bile duct may be necessary in certain cases.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting. Her temperature is 38.2ºC and she was described as having rigors in the ambulance. She scores 14 on the Glasgow coma scale (GCS) as she is confused when asked questions.
What is the likely diagnosis based on her symptoms, which include yellowing of the sclera, tenderness in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen with a positive Murphy's sign, and vital signs of a respiratory rate of 15/min, heart rate of 92/min, and blood pressure of 86/62 mmHg?Your Answer: Charcot's pentad
Correct Answer: Reynold's pentad
Explanation:The patient is suspected to have ascending cholangitis and exhibits Charcot’s triad of RUQ pain, fever, and jaundice. In severe cases, Reynold’s pentad may be present, which includes Charcot’s triad along with confusion and hypotension, indicating a higher risk of mortality. Beck’s triad, consisting of hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds, is observed in patients with cardiac tamponade. Cushing’s triad, characterized by irregular and decreased respiratory rate, bradycardia, and hypertension, is seen in patients with elevated intracranial pressure.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old man has been waiting for surgery to repair a right inguinal hernia. He is now admitted with abdominal distension and colicky pain, along with vomiting bile and no bowel movements for two days. He is typically healthy and not on any medication. On examination, he appears dehydrated with a red, tender swelling in the right groin. X-rays confirm a small bowel obstruction, and a nasogastric tube is inserted. What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Reduction of the hernia under anaesthetic and elective hernia repair at a later date
Correct Answer: Surgery with decompression of the bowel and hernia repair
Explanation:Management of Small Bowel Obstruction
Small bowel obstruction is a condition that requires a certain diagnosis before surgery. However, in cases where the cause of the obstruction is an obstructed groin hernia, a contrast study or ultrasound scan of the groin is unnecessary. The patient should be well resuscitated and undergo surgery to reduce and inspect the bowel for viability. Repair of the hernia should proceed, and inspection of incarcerated bowel is important.
In cases of adhesional obstruction, expectant drip and suck management may be appropriate, as the obstruction may settle with adequate decompression of the bowel. A contrast study may also be helpful in incomplete obstruction, as gastrografin has a therapeutic laxative effect. However, indications for surgery in bowel obstruction are an obstructed hernia and signs of peritonism, which indicate ischaemic bowel.
In summary, the management of small bowel obstruction depends on the cause of the obstruction. In cases of an obstructed groin hernia, surgery is necessary, while expectant management may be appropriate in adhesional obstruction. A contrast study may also be helpful in incomplete obstruction. It is important to consider the indications for surgery, such as signs of peritonism, to prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A young laborer presents to the Emergency department with complaints of pain in their middle finger. Upon examination, the finger appears swollen and is held in a partially flexed position. Passive extension elicits pain and there is tenderness over the flexor sheath. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dupuytren's contracture
Correct Answer: Suppurative flexor tenosynovitis
Explanation:The Four Cardinal Signs of Suppurative Flexor Tenosynovitis
Suppurative flexor tenosynovitis is a serious infection that affects the tendons and synovial sheaths of the fingers. Kanavel, a renowned physician, identified four cardinal signs of this condition. The first sign is a flexed posture, which is caused by pain and swelling in the affected area. The second sign is fusiform swelling, which refers to a sausage-like swelling of the finger. The third sign is pain on passive extension, which means that the finger hurts when it is straightened. The fourth sign is flexor sheath tenderness, which is tenderness along the tendon sheath.
Deep potential space infections, such as mid palmar and thenar space infections, are made worse by flexion. This is because flexion causes the infected area to become more compressed, which can lead to further swelling and pain. It is important to recognize these cardinal signs of suppurative flexor tenosynovitis and seek medical attention immediately if they are present. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications, such as loss of function or even amputation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 21-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a complaint of vomiting fresh blood after a 72-hour drinking binge. He denies regular alcohol abuse.
During the examination, his pulse is found to be 92 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 146/90 mmHg.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear
Explanation:Causes of Gastrointestinal Bleeding
Gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various factors, including Mallory-Weiss tears, aortoduodenal fistula, Meckel’s diverticulum, oesophageal varices, and peptic ulcers. Mallory-Weiss tears occur in the gastro-oesophageal junction due to forceful or prolonged coughing or vomiting, often after excessive alcohol intake or epileptic convulsions. This can result in vomiting bright red blood or passing blood per rectum. Aortoduodenal fistula is caused by erosion of the duodenum into the aorta due to tumour or previous repair of the aorta with a synthetic graft. Meckel’s diverticulum, which occasionally occurs in the ileum, may contain ectopic gastric mucosa, leading to rectal bleeding. Oesophageal varices are dilated venous collaterals that result from portal hypertension in patients with liver cirrhosis. Finally, peptic ulcers are the most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeds, with mucosal erosions developing due to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, steroids, or prolonged alcohol abuse. Despite the potential severity of these conditions, bleeding usually stops spontaneously.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A thirty-five-year-old man with ulcerative colitis is recovering on the ward 6 days following a proctocolectomy. During the morning ward round, he complains to the team looking after him that he has developed pain in his abdomen. The pain started in the left iliac fossa but is now diffuse. It came on suddenly, overnight, and has gradually been getting worse since. He ranks it 9/10. He has not opened his bowels or passed flatus since the procedure. He has had no analgesia for this.
On examination:
Blood pressure: 105/68 mmHg;
Heart rate: 118/minute, regular;
Respiratory rate: 12/minute;
Temperature: 38.2 ºC;
Oxygen saturations: 98%.
Abdominal exam: abdomen is distended and diffusely tender upon palpation and widespread guarding, indicating peritonism. No organomegaly or palpable abdominal aortic aneurysm. Kidneys are non-ballotable. No shifting dullness. Bowel sounds are absent.
There is 250 mL of feculent matter in the abdominal wound drain.
The registrar requests an abdominal CT which demonstrates an anastomotic leak. What is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?Your Answer: Call the consultant to come in and take the patient to theatre immediately
Explanation:In the case of a confirmed anastomotic leak, immediate surgical intervention is necessary and the patient must be taken back to the operating room without delay. Administering only paracetamol or intravenous antibiotics would not be sufficient as these measures do not address the underlying problem.
Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a burning sensation in his right leg while walking. The pain occurs only during physical activity and subsides with rest. He has a medical history of hypertension and has suffered two heart attacks in the past. He is currently taking ramipril, amlodipine, aspirin, and atorvastatin. He is a former smoker with a 20-pack-year history. An ECG reveals a normal sinus rhythm, and the ankle-brachial pressure index in his right leg is 0.67. What is the most appropriate initial recommendation for this patient, given the most likely diagnosis, after advising him to quit smoking and optimizing his hypertension management?
Your Answer: Commencement of naftidrofuryl oxalate
Correct Answer: Exercise training
Explanation:Peripheral arterial disease can be improved with exercise training, which has been shown to be beneficial. In addition to lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, smoking cessation, and diet, patients should be referred to smoking cessation services and have their comorbidities managed. Aspirin is already being taken by this patient due to a previous myocardial infarction. Naftidrofuryl oxalate is a vasodilator drug used in the treatment of peripheral arterial disease, but exercise training should be recommended first. Angioplasty is a treatment for severe peripheral arterial disease or critical limb ischaemia, which is not applicable to this patient with an ABPI of 0.67 suggesting intermittent claudication. Amputation is a last resort for irreversible limb ischaemia. Bypass surgery is another potential treatment for critical limb ischaemia, but surgical options would only be considered if conservative management, such as exercise training, failed.
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions.
For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.
There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and nausea. She has a medical history of gallstones and alcohol dependence. Upon examination, she has a tender right epigastrium and a temperature of 38.3ºC. Despite this, she is hemodynamically stable. Her blood results show a raised white cell count and C-reactive protein, but her liver profile and serum amylase/lipase results are normal. The sepsis protocol is initiated, and she is started on intravenous antibiotics. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Conservative management
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 1 week of diagnosis
Explanation:The recommended treatment for acute cholecystitis is intravenous antibiotics followed by laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 1 week of diagnosis. Conservative management is not recommended as it may lead to chronic disease and recurrence of infection. Delaying treatment and opting for open cholecystectomy once inflammation has subsided is also not recommended as it has been associated with increased rates of sepsis, jaundice, and cancer. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is preferred over open cholecystectomy as it is associated with lower postoperative morbidity, mortality, and reduced length of stay in the hospital.
Acute cholecystitis is a condition where the gallbladder becomes inflamed. This is usually caused by gallstones, which are present in 90% of cases. The remaining 10% of cases are known as acalculous cholecystitis and are typically seen in severely ill patients who are hospitalized. The pathophysiology of acute cholecystitis is multifactorial and can be caused by gallbladder stasis, hypoperfusion, and infection. In immunosuppressed patients, it may develop due to Cryptosporidium or cytomegalovirus. This condition is associated with high morbidity and mortality rates.
The main symptom of acute cholecystitis is right upper quadrant pain, which may radiate to the right shoulder. Patients may also experience fever and signs of systemic upset. Murphy’s sign, which is inspiratory arrest upon palpation of the right upper quadrant, may be present. Liver function tests are typically normal, but deranged LFTs may indicate Mirizzi syndrome, which is caused by a gallstone impacted in the distal cystic duct, causing extrinsic compression of the common bile duct.
Ultrasound is the first-line investigation for acute cholecystitis. If the diagnosis remains unclear, cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan) may be used. In this test, technetium-labelled HIDA is injected IV and taken up selectively by hepatocytes and excreted into bile. In acute cholecystitis, there is cystic duct obstruction, and the gallbladder will not be visualized.
The treatment for acute cholecystitis involves intravenous antibiotics and cholecystectomy. NICE now recommends early laparoscopic cholecystectomy, within 1 week of diagnosis. Previously, surgery was delayed for several weeks until the inflammation had subsided. Pregnant women should also proceed to early laparoscopic cholecystectomy to reduce the chances of maternal-fetal complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old man is assaulted outside a nightclub and struck with a baseball bat on the left side of his head. He is taken to the emergency department and placed under observation. As his Glasgow coma score (GCS) declines, he falls into a coma. What is the most probable haemodynamic parameter that he will exhibit?
Your Answer: Hypotension and tachycardia
Correct Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia
Explanation:Before coning, hypertension and bradycardia are observed. The brain regulates its own blood supply by managing the overall blood pressure.
Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 30-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with burns to her face, neck, right arm, and upper chest after a vaping device exploded. She has burns covering 15% of her body and weighs 55kg. Using the Parkland formula provided, calculate the amount of fluid replacement she will receive after 12 hours.
Your Answer: 2000ml
Explanation:Fluid Resuscitation for Burns
Fluid resuscitation is necessary for patients with burns that cover more than 15% of their total body area (10% for children). The primary goal of resuscitation is to prevent the burn from deepening. Most fluid is lost within the first 24 hours after injury, and during the first 8-12 hours, fluid shifts from the intravascular to the interstitial fluid compartments, which can compromise circulatory volume. However, fluid resuscitation causes more fluid to enter the interstitial compartment, especially colloid, which should be avoided in the first 8-24 hours. Protein loss also occurs.
The Parkland formula is used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, which is given as 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)). Fifty percent of the total fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours, and the remaining 50% is given in the next 16 hours. The resuscitation endpoint is a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults, and the rate of fluid is increased to achieve this.
It is important to note that the starting point of resuscitation is the time of injury, and fluids already given should be deducted. After 24 hours, colloid infusion is begun at a rate of 0.5 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)), and maintenance crystalloid (usually dextrose-saline) is continued at a rate of 1.5 ml x (burn area) x (body weight). Colloids used include albumin and FFP, and antioxidants such as vitamin C can be used to minimize oxidant-mediated contributions to the inflammatory cascade in burns. High tension electrical injuries and inhalation injuries require more fluid, and monitoring of packed cell volume, plasma sodium, base excess, and lactate is essential.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man complains of lower back pain, painful urination, and low-grade fevers for the past 3 days. During the examination, the physician noted a tender, boggy prostate and diffuse pain in the lower abdomen. A urine dip test revealed 2+ blood in the urine. What is the recommended treatment for the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: A 7 day course of co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: A 14 day course of ciprofloxacin
Explanation:If a patient is diagnosed with prostatitis, a urine sample should be taken for culture. If the patient is stable enough to be treated outside of a hospital setting, they should be prescribed a 14-day course of a quinolone such as ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin. However, if the patient is experiencing severe symptoms, is septic, unable to take oral antibiotics, or is in urinary retention, they should be referred to secondary care urgently.
Acute bacterial prostatitis is a condition that occurs when gram-negative bacteria enter the prostate gland through the urethra. The most common pathogen responsible for this condition is Escherichia coli. Risk factors for acute bacterial prostatitis include recent urinary tract infection, urogenital instrumentation, intermittent bladder catheterisation, and recent prostate biopsy. Symptoms of this condition include pain in various areas such as the perineum, penis, rectum, or back, obstructive voiding symptoms, fever, and rigors. A tender and boggy prostate gland can be detected during a digital rectal examination.
The recommended treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis is a 14-day course of a quinolone. It is also advisable to consider screening for sexually transmitted infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man is admitted for a routine cholecystectomy. He has a history of type two diabetes mellitus and takes metformin once daily in the morning. His most recent HbA1c was taken last month and returned as below. He has no other significant medical history.
HbA1c 48 mmol/mol Personal target 48 mmol/mol
The surgery is scheduled for early the next morning, and the patient will be fasting from midnight. What is the appropriate management of his diabetic medication before the surgery?Your Answer: A variable rate insulin infusion should be started and gliclazide continued as normal
Correct Answer: Her morning dose of gliclazide should be withheld only
Explanation:For patients with well-controlled type two diabetes mellitus managed with oral antidiabetic drugs, manipulating medication on the day of surgery is usually sufficient. This applies to the patient in question, who takes a single sulfonylurea agent and has an HbA1c level under 69 mmol/L. To avoid the risk of hypoglycaemia, her morning dose of gliclazide should be withheld while she is fasting for surgery. There is no need to switch her to an insulin infusion, as she normally manages her diabetes with oral agents only.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man was brought to the emergency department with sudden abdominal pain and vomiting. The general surgeons diagnosed him with pancreatitis and he was given IV fluids and pain relief by the registrar. The FY1 was then asked to complete a Modified Glasgow Score to determine the severity of the pancreatitis. What information will the FY1 need to gather to complete this task?
Your Answer: ALT level
Correct Answer: Urea level
Explanation:The Modified Glasgow Score is utilized for predicting the severity of pancreatitis. If three or more of the following factors are identified within 48 hours of onset, it indicates severe pancreatitis: Pa02 <8 kPa, age >55 years, neutrophilia WBC >15×10^9, calcium <2mmol/L, renal function urea >16 mmol/L, enzymes LDH >600 ; AST >200, albumin <32g/L, and blood glucose >10 mmol/L. To remember these factors easily, one can use the acronym PANCREAS. This information can be found in the Oxford Handbook of Clinical Medicine, 9th edition, on pages 638-639.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 65 kg 30-year-old woman who is normally fit and well is scheduled for appendectomy today. She has been made nil by mouth, and surgeons expect her to continue nil by mouth for approximately 24 h. The woman has a past medical history of childhood asthma. She has been taking paracetamol for pain, but takes no other regular medication. On examination, the woman’s blood pressure (BP) is 110/80 mmHg, heart rate 65 beats per minute (bpm). Her lungs are clear. Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is not raised and she has no peripheral oedema. Skin turgor is normal.
What is the appropriate fluid prescription for this woman for the 24 h while she is nil by mouth?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 litre 0.9% sodium chloride with 40 mmol potassium over 8 h, 1 litre 5% dextrose with 20 mmol potassium over 8 h; 100 ml 5% dextrose over 8 h
Explanation:Assessing and Prescribing IV Fluids for a Euvolemic Patient
When prescribing IV fluids for a euvolemic patient, it is important to consider their maintenance fluid requirements. This typically involves 25-30 ml/kg/day of water, 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium, and chloride, and 50-100 g/day of glucose to prevent starvation ketosis.
One common rule of thumb is to prescribe 2x sweet (5% dextrose) and 1x salt (0.9% sodium chloride) fluids, or alternatively, the same volume of Hartmann’s solution. It is also important to monitor electrolyte levels through daily blood tests.
When assessing different IV fluid options, it is important to consider the volume of fluid prescribed, the potassium replacement, and the type of fluid being used. For example, colloid fluids like human albumin should only be prescribed in cases of severe hypovolemia due to blood loss.
Overall, careful consideration and monitoring is necessary when prescribing IV fluids for a euvolemic patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with his partner following a fall. A collateral history is obtained, revealing that he tripped over a loose rug and fell, hitting his head on the ground and losing consciousness for 2 minutes. Upon examination, there is bruising on his upper limbs, but no neurological deficits are observed, and his Glasgow coma score (GCS) is 15. The patient himself can recall events leading up to and after the fall, and has not experienced vomiting or seizures since the incident. Additionally, there are no indications of a skull fracture. The patient has a medical history of hypertension that is managed with amlodipine. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perform CT head within 8 hours
Explanation:For patients over 65 years old who have experienced some form of loss of consciousness or amnesia after a head injury, a CT scan should be performed within 8 hours. This is important to assess the risk of complications from the injury. While this patient does not have any immediate indications for a CT scan, as they did not have a GCS score below 13 on initial assessment, suspected skull fractures, seizures, focal neurological deficits, or vomiting, they did lose consciousness during the fall. NICE guidelines recommend that any patient over 65 years old who experiences a loss of consciousness or amnesia following a fall should be offered a CT head 8 hours post-injury to identify potential complications such as intracranial bleeds. A CT scan within 1 hour is not necessary in this case.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
You review a 62-year-old man who presents with a gradual history of worsening fatigue and denies any other symptoms. He has no medical history and takes no medication. Routine observations are within normal limits and there are no abnormalities on thorough examination.
You perform a set of blood tests which come back as below:
Hb 118 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 395* 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 10.9* 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.9 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Ferritin 17 ng/mL (20 - 230)
Vitamin B12 450 ng/L (200 - 900)
Folate 5 nmol/L (> 3.0)
What would be your next steps in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral iron supplements and refer the patient urgently under the suspected colorectal cancer pathway
Explanation:If a patient over 60 years old presents with new iron-deficiency anaemia, urgent referral under the colorectal cancer pathway is necessary. The blood test results indicate low haemoglobin and ferritin levels, confirming anaemia due to iron deficiency. Even if the patient does not exhibit other symptoms of malignancy, this is a red flag symptom for colorectal cancer. Therefore, an urgent colonoscopy is required to assess for malignancy, and oral iron replacement should be started immediately, as per NICE guidelines. Referring the patient to gastroenterology routinely would be inappropriate, as they meet the criteria for a 2-week wait referral. While prescribing oral iron supplements and monitoring their efficacy is important, it should not be done without investigating the cause of anaemia. Intravenous iron replacement is not necessary for this patient, as their ferritin level is not critically low. Poor diet is not a likely cause of this deficiency, and it would be inappropriate to not treat the anaemia or investigate its cause.
Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.
The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. He is restless and describes the pain as 10/10, originating from the right side of his back and radiating to his right testicle. He has vomited once but has no other symptoms. His vital signs are stable except for a heart rate of 100 bpm. A urine dip reveals ++ blood. He is administered PR diclofenac and oramorph for pain relief. The following day, his pain is under control, and the tachycardia has subsided. A CTKUB is performed, which reveals no stones in the ureters but shows stranding of the peri-ureteric fat. There is no indication of any bowel or other abdominal organ pathology. What is the accurate diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spontaneously passed ureteric calculus
Explanation:If a ureteric calculus is not present, the presence of periureteric fat stranding may indicate recent stone passage. Most stones that are less than 5mm in the ureteric axis will pass on their own. Fat stranding can be seen beside the ureter, indicating recent stone passage, or beside the kidney, which may be a sign of pyelonephritis. Urothelial carcinoma typically presents with a chronically obstructed and hydronephrotic kidney, which may have been detected on a contrast CT scan. The patient’s symptoms and radiological findings do not suggest pyelonephritis or malingering. Ureteric rupture is rare and is usually caused by medical intervention, and a urinoma in the retroperitoneal space would be visible on a CTKUB.
Types of Renal Stones and their Appearance on X-ray
Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses that form in the kidneys due to the accumulation of certain substances. There are different types of renal stones, each with a unique appearance on x-ray. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 40% of cases, and appear opaque on x-ray. Mixed calcium oxalate/phosphate stones and calcium phosphate stones also appear opaque and make up 25% and 10% of cases, respectively. Triple phosphate stones, which develop in alkaline urine and are composed of struvite, account for 10% of cases and appear opaque as well. Urate stones, which are radiolucent, make up 5-10% of cases. Cystine stones, which have a semi-opaque, ‘ground-glass’ appearance, are rare and only account for 1% of cases. Xanthine stones are the least common, accounting for less than 1% of cases, and are also radiolucent. Staghorn calculi, which involve the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces, are composed of triple phosphate and are more likely to develop in alkaline urine. Infections with Ureaplasma urealyticum and Proteus can increase the risk of their formation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old woman arrives at the surgical assessment unit with fever, right upper quadrant pain, and yellowing of the sclera. Imaging confirms ascending cholangitis. She has a history of multiple hospitalizations for biliary colic. What is the primary cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Ascending cholangitis is commonly caused by E. coli, while Mycobacterium avium complex is unlikely to cause chronic diarrhea in immunodeficient patients. Clostridium difficile is also unlikely to cause this condition, as it typically follows an antibiotic course. Staphylococcus aureus would not be a likely cause of this condition, as it requires a breach in the skin to enter the body.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)