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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to your office by her brother. He is concerned about her lack of close friends and her eccentric behavior, speech, and beliefs. The patient believes she has psychic abilities and is fascinated with the paranormal. Her brother reports that she has displayed these behaviors since childhood, but he is only seeking help now as he is moving to another state and worries about how she will manage alone with their parents. What personality disorder might this patient have?

      Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 47-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with worsening anxiety. He describes one...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with worsening anxiety. He describes one of his symptoms as feeling severely nauseous and even vomiting every time he smells a particular perfume. What theory of learning explains this?

      Your Answer: Classical conditioning

      Explanation:

      Types of Learning and Conditioning in Psychology

      Classical conditioning, latent inhibition, habituation, operant conditioning, and tolerance are all types of learning and conditioning in psychology.

      Classical conditioning involves learning through association, where an unfamiliar stimulus becomes associated with a conditioned response through repetitive exposure.

      Latent inhibition refers to the slower acquisition of meaning or response to a familiar stimulus compared to a new stimulus.

      Habituation is the decrease in responsiveness to a stimulus with repeated exposure.

      Operant conditioning involves learning through positive or negative reinforcement, where a voluntary response is followed by a reinforcing stimulus.

      Tolerance is the reduced response to a drug over time, requiring a higher concentration to achieve the desired effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents due to concerns raised by his nursery. Although he is meeting his developmental milestones, he seems to struggle with social interaction and play with other children.

      The parents report that he was born via normal vaginal delivery at term and has met all of his speech and motor milestones. However, they have noticed that he is different from his older siblings as he has never made any friends or engaged in any imaginative play. He prefers to play alone and becomes upset if anyone touches his toys. He insists on following the same routine every day, including eating the same meals and taking the same route to nursery. He struggles during weekends and holidays when his routine is disrupted.

      Which of the following diagnoses would be most consistent with the signs and symptoms observed in this child?

      Your Answer: Autism spectrum disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Developmental Disorders: A Comparison

      When observing a child’s behavior, it is important to consider various developmental disorders that may be present. In this case, the girl in question is displaying signs of autism spectrum disorder, which is characterized by persistent difficulties with social communication and interaction, as well as restrictive and repetitive patterns of behavior. This disorder must have been present since early childhood and cause significant impairment in important areas of functioning.

      It is important to differentiate autism spectrum disorder from other disorders, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), which is characterized by the presence of obsessions and compulsions, and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), which is characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development.

      Additionally, a learning disability may be considered if the child has a significantly reduced ability to understand new or complex information and learn new skills, with a reduced ability to cope independently. However, this is unlikely if the child is performing well academically.

      Finally, Rett syndrome is a progressive neurological condition that is usually only seen in girls and has features similar to autism spectrum disorder, such as the inability to show feelings. However, it also has other features such as microcephaly, abnormal gait, seizures, and hypotonia, and usually presents at a much younger age.

      Overall, understanding the differences between these developmental disorders is crucial in accurately identifying and addressing a child’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 84-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after falling outside her home....

    Correct

    • A 84-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after falling outside her home. Her carers, who visit three times a day, report that the patient becomes aggressive when prevented from going outside and she also refuses to be accompanied. The patient has no next-of-kin, and she was formally diagnosed with dementia last year. She has a past medical history of hypertension. She is now medically fit for discharge from hospital, but she lacks capacity to make a decision regarding her treatment and her place of residence. It is proposed that an application is made under the Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards (DoLS), in her best interests, to prevent the patient from wandering outside. The ward manager says that this cannot be done, as the patient does not meet all the criteria.

      Which of the following is preventing a DoLS from being authorised for this patient?

      Your Answer: The patient resides in his own home

      Explanation:

      Conditions for Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards (DoLS) Authorisation

      DoLS authorisation is a legal process that allows a person to be deprived of their liberty in a care home or hospital for their own safety. However, certain conditions must be met before authorisation can be granted. Firstly, the patient must reside in a care home or hospital, and an application to the Court of Protection must be made if they reside in their own home. Secondly, the patient must lack capacity for decisions regarding treatment. Thirdly, the patient’s lack of an advance decision about their treatment does not prevent DoLS authorisation. Fourthly, the patient must be above 18 years of age. Finally, the patient must have a mental disorder, such as dementia, but it is important to consider if they meet the criteria for detention under the Mental Health Act 1983.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man has been admitted to a psychiatric ward for a fourth...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has been admitted to a psychiatric ward for a fourth time. He is withdrawn, irritable, restless and afraid. He says that he has been depressed for about 8 weeks. He has insomnia, loss of appetite and weight loss. He also has suicidal ideation with a plan to overdose on medicine, which he has done in the past under the influence of commanding auditory hallucinations. He hears voices often even when he is not depressed, but they only talk of suicide when he is depressed. He was divorced 5 years ago and has trouble holding jobs due to his paranoia and odd behaviour.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizoaffective disorder, depressed

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Depression and Psychotic Disorders

      Depression and psychotic disorders can be complex and difficult to diagnose. One condition that can be particularly challenging to identify is schizoaffective disorder, which involves both mood and psychotic symptoms. In some cases, people with schizophrenia may also experience depressive symptoms, but sub-threshold levels of depression are considered a part of the primary disorder.

      A major depressive episode is characterized by mood symptoms that last for at least two weeks, along with changes in sleep, appetite, energy, and other neurovegetative functions. Depression can also involve feelings of guilt, worthlessness, and thoughts of suicide.

      Dysthymic disorder is a less severe form of depression that does not involve hallucinations. However, if a person experiences hallucinations only during depressive episodes, they may be diagnosed with a major depressive episode with mood-congruent psychotic features.

      If a person experiences hallucinations that are not related to their mood, they may be diagnosed with a major depressive episode with mood-incongruent psychotic features. While the presence of psychotic symptoms does not necessarily mean a person has two separate disorders, it can negatively impact their overall outcome. Understanding the different types of depression and psychotic disorders can help clinicians provide more accurate diagnoses and effective treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of depression comes in 2 months postpartum...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of depression comes in 2 months postpartum with symptoms of low mood, lack of energy, and loss of pleasure for the past 3 weeks. She is currently breastfeeding. She has previously taken fluoxetine and found it effective but stopped during pregnancy. After a conversation, she has decided to resume her medication.
      Which antidepressant would be the best choice to initiate treatment?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and lightheadedness. Upon conducting an ECG, torsades de pointes is observed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the cardiac anomaly?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Citalopram, an SSRI used to treat major depressive disorder, has been identified as the most likely to cause QT prolongation and torsades de pointes. In 2011, the MHRA issued a warning against its use in patients with long-QT syndrome. While fluoxetine and sertraline can also cause prolonged QT, citalopram is more frequently associated with this side effect. Gentamicin, a bactericidal antibiotic, does not appear to cause QT prolongation or torsades de pointes. Although sertraline is another SSRI that can cause prolonged QT, citalopram remains the most concerning in this regard.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by security after attempting...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by security after attempting to enter a music studio. He claims to have a close relationship with a famous musician and just wanted to see him. Despite never having met the musician, he has sent numerous letters and messages. He reports feeling great. He denies any hallucinations. He appears normal and speaks clearly.
      What is the probable diagnosis based on his behavior?

      Your Answer: Delusional disorder

      Explanation:

      Erotomania, also known as De Clerambault’s syndrome, is a type of delusional disorder where the individual believes that a famous person is in love with them. This belief is not accompanied by any other symptoms of psychosis or mood disturbances. Other types of delusions include grandiose and persecutory delusions. Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by odd beliefs and behaviors, but not to the extent of delusional conviction. Narcissistic personality disorder involves a long-standing pattern of inflated self-importance, a need for excessive admiration, and a lack of empathy. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior. Bipolar disorder involves periods of both mania and depression.

      De Clerambault’s Syndrome: A Delusional Belief in Famous Love

      De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a type of paranoid delusion that has a romantic aspect. Typically, the patient is a single woman who firmly believes that a well-known person is in love with her. This condition is characterized by a persistent and irrational belief that the famous person is sending secret messages or signals of love, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. The patient may engage in behaviors such as stalking, sending letters or gifts, or attempting to contact the object of their affection. Despite repeated rejections or lack of response, the patient remains convinced of the love affair. This syndrome can be distressing for both the patient and the object of their delusion, and it often requires psychiatric treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old woman presents with dry, eczematous hands. She reports being a very...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with dry, eczematous hands. She reports being a very hygienic person, but since the onset of the COVID-19 pandemic, she has been washing her hands excessively - up to 60 times a day. She is aware that this is causing her skin to become dry and irritated, but her anxiety about contracting the virus is too great to stop. She works in a hospital and is worried about her colleagues noticing her frequent hand washing. You suspect she may have obsessive-compulsive disorder and decide to refer her to the community mental health team. What treatment options are likely to be offered to her?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after attempting to end...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after attempting to end her life by jumping from a height. On examination, she is conscious and has significant bruising over the occiput region. She reports that her parents are recently divorced and it has caused significant strain on her current relationship and as a result, is failing to do well at work. She has no significant medical history, apart from an incident when she was 17 where she was admitted to the hospital after intentionally taking too many paracetamol.
      Which of the following from the patient’s history is most associated with an increased risk of repeated attempts of self-harm/suicide?

      Your Answer: Previous attempted suicide

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Repeated Self-Harm and Suicide Attempts

      Previous suicide attempts or episodes of self-harm are the biggest predictor of future attempts, with 15% of people attempting again within a year and 1% succeeding in committing suicide. Strained relationships with partners or dissatisfaction with work alone have not been linked to repeated attempts. However, significant life events such as parental divorce, bereavement, abuse, or family breakdown may increase the risk. Age alone, particularly for adults in their twenties, has not been associated with repeated self-harm or suicide attempts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit by the police after being found on the street shouting at people. They have no known past medical history.

      On examination, they are poorly dressed. When asked about their mood, they begin by asking what colour the sky is, then begin to talk about their strong dislike for cheese, followed by wanting to break the table lamp they own at home. Throughout the consultation, they speak slowly.

      What term best describes this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Word salad

      Correct Answer: Knight's move

      Explanation:

      Knight’s move thinking involves illogical leaps from one idea to another without any discernible link between them, while flight of ideas involves moving from one idea to another with discernible links between them. In this scenario, the patient is exhibiting Knight’s move thinking, which is a thought disorder associated with schizophrenia. This is different from circumstantiality, which involves giving excessive, unnecessary detail without returning to the original point, and clang associations, which involves linking ideas based on their sound or rhyme. Flight of ideas, on the other hand, involves rapid and pressured speech with discernible links between ideas.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - Samantha is a 38-year-old female who has come to the crisis team with...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 38-year-old female who has come to the crisis team with suicidal thoughts. Upon further inquiry, Samantha also reveals experiencing low mood, lack of energy, early morning awakenings, and difficulty concentrating. She reports that these symptoms are persistent, but she has both good and bad days. Samantha has no prior psychiatric history. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate treatment for Samantha?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient with depression, it is important to consider several factors according to NICE guidelines. These include managing suicide risk, safeguarding concerns for vulnerable individuals, and any comorbid conditions such as substance abuse. If the patient exhibits psychotic symptoms or eating disorders, seeking expert advice is recommended. For those with mild depression or subthreshold symptoms, active monitoring and follow-up appointments are suggested. Psychological interventions through IAPT are recommended for persistent subthreshold or mild-to-moderate depression, while antidepressants and high-intensity psychological interventions are recommended for moderate or severe depression. When prescribing antidepressants, it is important to consider the patient’s history and any chronic physical health problems, with sertraline being preferred in such cases due to its lower risk of drug interactions. Practical solutions to stressors contributing to depression should also be discussed.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man has been hospitalized following an overdose. What is the most...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has been hospitalized following an overdose. What is the most significant indicator of an increased likelihood of future suicide?

      Your Answer: Making plans before the overdose to avoid discovery

      Explanation:

      Factors indicating high risk of suicide

      The concealment of an overdose indicates a serious intent to complete suicide, more so than other options. However, a previous history of overdoses does not necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a higher risk of suicide include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.

      According to the Assessment of Suicide Risk clinical guide, protective factors against suicide include religious beliefs, social support, and being responsible for children. While being responsible for children is an important point to note in the management plan for a suicidal patient, it is not a factor that indicates a high risk of suicide.

      It is crucial to identify the factors that suggest a high risk of suicide in order to provide appropriate care and management for the patient. However, it is also important to consider the patient’s wider circumstances and any protective factors that may be present. By taking a comprehensive approach, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients at risk of suicide.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old woman who is currently an informal inpatient at a mental health...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who is currently an informal inpatient at a mental health hospital is being evaluated for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), a treatment she has never undergone before. What is an appropriate indication for ECT?

      Your Answer: Treatment resistant seizures

      Correct Answer: Catatonia

      Explanation:

      Electroconvulsive therapy is indicated for patients with treatment-resistant depression, as well as those experiencing manic episodes, moderate depression that has previously responded to ECT, and life-threatening catatonia. The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is used by general practitioners to assess the severity of depression, with scores ranging from no depression to severe depression. However, the decision to pursue ECT is based on more than just the PHQ-9 score and requires a diagnosis of severe treatment-resistant depression.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.
      Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and displays obvious signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.
      What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.

      Capgras syndrome is a delusional disorder where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.

      Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that affects patients with significant vision loss. These patients experience vivid visual hallucinations, which can be simple or complex. However, they are aware that these hallucinations are not real and do not experience any other forms of hallucinations or delusions.

      De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may also perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.

      The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old-male presents to his GP with a chief complaint of forgetfulness over...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old-male presents to his GP with a chief complaint of forgetfulness over the past 3 months. He reports difficulty recalling minor details such as where he parked his car and the names of acquaintances. He is a retired accountant and reports feeling bored and unstimulated. He also reports difficulty falling asleep at night. His MMSE score is 27 out of 30. When asked to spell WORLD backwards, he hesitates before correctly spelling the word. His medical history includes hyperlipidemia and osteoarthritis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest pseudodementia caused by depression rather than dementia. Managing the depression should reverse the cognitive impairment.

      Differentiating between Depression and Dementia

      Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.

      One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.

      Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.

      The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.

      In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old man is receiving electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for his treatment-resistant depression. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is receiving electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for his treatment-resistant depression. What is the most probable side effect he may encounter?

      Your Answer: Galactorrhea

      Correct Answer: Retrograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      ECT has the potential to cause memory impairment, which is its most significant side effect. The NICE guidelines recommend that memory should be evaluated before and after each treatment course. Retrograde amnesia, which is the inability to recall events before the treatment, is more common than anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories after the treatment.

      Immediate side effects of ECT include drowsiness, confusion, headache, nausea, aching muscles, and loss of appetite. On the other hand, long-term side effects may include apathy, anhedonia, difficulty concentrating, loss of emotional responses, and difficulty learning new information.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 7-year-old boy and his mother die in a car crash. Following these...

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    • A 7-year-old boy and his mother die in a car crash. Following these deaths, the boy’s 16-year-old brother starts playing with the dead boy’s toys.
      This would most likely be an example of which of the following defence mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Identification

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms: Coping Strategies for Unconscious Thoughts and Emotions

      Defense mechanisms are unconscious coping strategies that individuals use to protect themselves from anxiety, guilt, and other negative emotions. These mechanisms can be helpful in reducing the impact of stressful situations, but they can also lead to maladaptive behaviors if used excessively. Here are some common defense mechanisms:

      Identification: This mechanism involves adopting the characteristics or activities of another person to reduce the pain of separation or loss. For example, a child may imitate a favorite teacher to cope with the absence of a parent.

      Rationalization: This mechanism involves offering a false but acceptable explanation for behavior to avoid feelings of guilt or shame. For example, a student who fails an exam may blame the teacher for not providing enough study materials.

      Denial: This mechanism involves behaving as if one does not know something that they should reasonably be expected to know. For example, a person with a drinking problem may deny that they have a problem despite evidence to the contrary.

      Reaction Formation: This mechanism involves adopting behavior that is opposite to one’s true feelings. For example, a person who is attracted to someone they consider inappropriate may express disgust or hostility towards that person.

      Sublimation: This mechanism involves directing unacceptable impulses into acceptable outlets. For example, a person with aggressive tendencies may channel their energy into sports or other physical activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a similar complaint of anxiety...

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    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a similar complaint of anxiety that has been affecting her sleep and social interactions for several months. She reports feeling restless and agitated but denies any panic attacks. Her medical history is unremarkable. What would be the best initial approach to address her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      The preferred initial pharmacological treatment for generalised anxiety disorder is an SSRI, with sertraline being the recommended choice according to NICE guidance. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are considered second- or third-line options, while SNRIs like duloxetine may be used if sertraline is ineffective. Beta-blockers like propranolol are typically used as needed for acute anxiety or panic attacks and are not recommended as monotherapy for chronic anxiety.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A patient is brought to see you by his daughter. She is very...

    Correct

    • A patient is brought to see you by his daughter. She is very concerned about him, saying that over the last few weeks, he has been hiding himself in their bedroom, heard to be talking to himself and accusing her of stealing his secret work and selling it to the government.
      You conduct a mental state examination and elicit the following symptoms.
      Which of these symptoms is a negative symptom?

      Your Answer: Blunted affect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. It is characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive and negative symptoms. Positive symptoms are those that reflect an increase or excess of the sufferer’s normal function, while negative symptoms are those that reflect a decrease or loss of normal function.

      Blunted affect, social withdrawal, apathy, and anhedonia are examples of negative symptoms. These symptoms can be very prominent and are often associated with a less favorable prognosis. On the other hand, auditory hallucinations, delusions of grandeur, and thought echo are examples of positive symptoms.

      Delusions of passivity, which imply that a person feels their actions, feelings, or impulses are being controlled by an external force, are not negative symptoms. It is important to understand the different symptoms of schizophrenia to properly diagnose and treat the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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