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  • Question 1 - What is the meaning of a drug's half-life? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of a drug's half-life?

      Your Answer: Drugs with short half-lives often require a loading dose

      Correct Answer: Drugs which follow first order kinetics have a fixed half life

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the options below is inconsistent with a diagnosis of delusional disorder?...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below is inconsistent with a diagnosis of delusional disorder?

      Your Answer: Delusions of control

      Explanation:

      Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism (RRASOR)

      The Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism (RRASOR) is a well-known actuarial tool that is used to predict the likelihood of sex offence recidivism. It comprises of four items that have been proven to have predictive accuracy for sex offence recidivism. These items include the number of past sex offence convictions of charges, the age of the offender being less than 25, the offender being unrelated to the victim, and the gender of the victim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the procedure that entails administering the hepatitis virus to individuals with...

    Correct

    • What is the procedure that entails administering the hepatitis virus to individuals with learning disabilities who are in good health?

      Your Answer: Willowbrook study

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old patient with a history of depression visits her doctor with concerns...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient with a history of depression visits her doctor with concerns of decreased energy, difficulty sleeping, and feelings of hopelessness.
      Which self-report questionnaire would be the most suitable for the patient to fill out?

      Your Answer: BDI (Beck depression inventory)

      Explanation:

      The list includes various psychiatric rating scales, with the Beck depression inventory (BDI) being the only self-report tool. It consists of 21 items that evaluate symptoms such as fatigue, irritability, and interest in others, and is designed to measure the severity of depression. On the other hand, the BAS is a clinician-administered scale that assesses medication-induced akathisia, while the BPRS evaluates depression, anxiety, and psychotic symptoms. The HAM-A is a clinician-administered questionnaire that measures the severity of anxiety, and the PANSS is a clinician-administered tool that assesses both positive (hallucinations and delusions) and negative symptoms (social and emotional withdrawal, disordered thinking) in patients with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the options below produces a metabolite that remains active in the...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below produces a metabolite that remains active in the body?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants with Active Metabolites

      Many antidepressants have active metabolites that can affect the body’s response to the medication. For example, amitriptyline has nortriptyline as an active metabolite, while clomipramine has desmethyl-clomipramine. Other antidepressants with active metabolites include dosulepin, doxepin, imipramine, lofepramine, fluoxetine, mirtazapine, trazodone, and venlafaxine.

      These active metabolites can have different effects on the body compared to the original medication. For example, nortriptyline is a more potent inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake than amitriptyline. Similarly, desipramine, the active metabolite of imipramine and lofepramine, has a longer half-life and is less sedating than the original medication.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the active metabolites of antidepressants when prescribing medication and monitoring patients for side effects and efficacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old patient complains of headaches which are worse in the morning and...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient complains of headaches which are worse in the morning and have been present for 2 months. They have been told by their GP it is probably 'tension headache'. Which of the following symptoms is suggestive of a more sinister pathology?

      Your Answer: Pain worse on bending down

      Explanation:

      Indicators of a potentially serious headache are:

      – Developing a headache for the first time after the age of 50
      – Sudden and severe headache (often described as a thunderclap headache)
      – Accompanying symptoms such as redness in the eye and seeing halos around lights
      – Headache that gets worse with physical activity of straining (such as during a Valsalva maneuver)

      Cerebral Tumours

      The most common brain tumours in adults, listed in order of frequency, are metastatic tumours, glioblastoma multiforme, anaplastic astrocytoma, and meningioma. On the other hand, the most common brain tumours in children, listed in order of frequency, are astrocytoma, medulloblastoma, and ependymoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is a true statement about 'working memory'? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about 'working memory'?

      Your Answer: Its capacity increases with age during childhood

      Explanation:

      Throughout childhood, there is an increase in working memory capacity. Additionally, research has demonstrated that working memory performance can be enhanced, particularly in individuals with ADHD.

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Research has suggested that dysfunction of oligodendrocytes and the myelin sheath may play...

    Correct

    • Research has suggested that dysfunction of oligodendrocytes and the myelin sheath may play a role in the development of schizophrenia. Can you provide information on the function of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?

      Your Answer: Increases the transmission of electrochemical impulses

      Explanation:

      Myelin sheaths are composed of cells containing fat that act as insulation for the axons of neurons. These cells run along the axons with gaps between them called nodes of Ranvier. The fat in the myelin sheath makes it a poor conductor, causing impulses to jump from one gap to the next, which increases the speed of transmission of action potentials.

      The white matter of the brain gets its whitish appearance from the myelin sheath, which is made up of glial cells. Oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system and Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system are responsible for forming the myelin sheath. The electrical impulse jumps from one node to the next at a rapid rate of up to 120 meters per second, which is known as saltatory conduction.

      Glycoproteins play a crucial role in the formation, maintenance, and degradation of myelin sheaths. Recent studies suggest that dysfunction in oligodendrocytes and myelin can lead to changes in synaptic formation and function, resulting in cognitive dysfunction, a core symptom of schizophrenia. Additionally, there is evidence linking oligodendrocyte and myelin dysfunction with abnormalities in dopamine and glutamate, both of which are found in schizophrenia. Addressing these abnormalities could offer therapeutic opportunities for individuals with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A client with schizophrenia tells you that a neuropsychologist informed him he was...

    Incorrect

    • A client with schizophrenia tells you that a neuropsychologist informed him he was deficient on the Hayling Test. He inquires about the meaning of this. What cognitive function would you propose is affected?

      Your Answer: Tendency to black and white thinking

      Correct Answer: Response inhibition

      Explanation:

      Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests

      The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.

      The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the estimated number of alcohol units consumed by a 40-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated number of alcohol units consumed by a 40-year-old man who drinks a 10-glass (70 cl) bottle of 37.5% ABV vodka every day, on a weekly basis?

      Your Answer: 50

      Correct Answer: 190

      Explanation:

      To calculate the units of alcohol in a drink, multiply the volume in litres by the percentage alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a 70 cl (0.7 L) bottle of vodka with a 37.5% ABV contains 26 units. Consuming a bottle of this vodka every day for a week would result in approximately 190 units of alcohol (26 units x 7 days).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A concerned individual informs you that their 40-year-old friend has been housebound for...

    Correct

    • A concerned individual informs you that their 40-year-old friend has been housebound for the past year due to anxiety. The friend last went shopping a year ago and expressed feeling too nervous to leave the house again. The individual reports no knowledge of any panic attacks. The friend is now experiencing low mood and has begun to lose contact with friends. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Agoraphobia

      Explanation:

      Agoraphobia is the most probable diagnosis, even though not all individuals with agoraphobia experience panic attacks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      200.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old individual presents with a sudden onset of horizontal diplopia. Upon examination,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old individual presents with a sudden onset of horizontal diplopia. Upon examination, you note that they have an inability to move their left eye laterally. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: VI

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the theory that suggests emotions are a result of physical sensations...

    Correct

    • What is the theory that suggests emotions are a result of physical sensations in the body?

      Your Answer: James-Lange theory

      Explanation:

      Theories of Emotion

      In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.

      According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

      The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

      The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.

      Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.

      In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A client who needs to begin taking an antipsychotic expresses worry about the...

    Correct

    • A client who needs to begin taking an antipsychotic expresses worry about the potential for weight gain. They inquire about which antipsychotic is linked to the highest amount of weight gain. What would you say in response?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What are the roles of purposes of the amygdala? ...

    Correct

    • What are the roles of purposes of the amygdala?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      The Amygdala: A Key Player in Emotional Processing

      The amygdala is a small, almond-shaped structure located in the anterior temporal lobe of the brain. As a core component of the limbic system, it plays a crucial role in emotional processing and regulation.

      To better understand its function, we can use the metaphor of a car being driven on the road. The frontal lobe of the brain acts as the driver, making decisions and navigating the environment. The amygdala, on the other hand, serves as the dashboard, providing the driver with important information about the car’s status, such as temperature and fuel levels. In this way, the amygdala gives emotional meaning to sensory input, allowing us to respond appropriately to potential threats of opportunities.

      One of the amygdala’s primary functions is to activate the fight or flight response in response to perceived danger. It does this by sending signals to the hypothalamus, which in turn triggers the release of stress hormones like adrenaline and cortisol. This prepares the body to either confront the threat of flee from it.

      In addition to its role in the fight or flight response, the amygdala also plays a role in regulating appetite and eating behavior. Studies have shown that damage to the amygdala can lead to overeating and obesity, suggesting that it may be involved in the hypothalamic control of feeding behavior.

      Overall, the amygdala is a key player in emotional processing and regulation, helping us to respond appropriately to the world around us.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      14.8
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  • Question 16 - During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your...

    Correct

    • During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your elderly client. They do eventually provide an answer, but only after an extended conversation about the intricacies of the topic, including precise and detailed information about each aspect. What is this occurrence referred to as?

      Your Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Different types of thought disorders are associated with specific personality traits of mental illnesses. Circumstantiality involves taking a long and detailed route to get to the initial point. Loosening of association makes it difficult to follow how one idea connects to the previous one, resulting in derailment. Overinclusive thinking blurs the boundaries between words and concepts, causing unrelated ideas to be associated with each other. Tangentiality involves answers that are related to the question but do not directly answer it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      76.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the cause of the formation of the 'Barr body'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cause of the formation of the 'Barr body'?

      Your Answer: Aneuploidy

      Correct Answer: Lyonization

      Explanation:

      Lyonization: The Process of X-Inactivation

      The X chromosome is crucial for proper development and cell viability, containing over 1,000 essential genes. However, females carry two copies of the X chromosome, which can result in a potentially toxic double dose of X-linked genes. To address this imbalance, females undergo a process called Lyonization, of X-inactivation, where one of their two X chromosomes is transcriptionally silenced. The silenced X chromosome then condenses into a compact structure known as a Barr body, which remains in a silent state.

      X-inactivation occurs randomly, with no preference for the paternal or maternal X chromosome. It takes place early in embryogenesis, soon after fertilization when the dividing conceptus is about 16-32 cells big. This process occurs in all somatic cells of women, but not in germ cells involved in forming gametes. X-inactivation affects most, but not all, genes on the X chromosome. If a cell has more than two X chromosomes, the extra Xs are also inactivated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is a true statement about ADHD? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about ADHD?

      Your Answer: Longitudinal studies show that one fifth of ADHD youth will continue to have impairing symptoms of ADHD in adulthood.

      Correct Answer: The heritability is similar in males and females.

      Explanation:

      ADHD and Genetics

      Decades of research have shown that genetics play a crucial role in the development of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and its comorbidity with other disorders. However, twin estimates of heritability being less than 100% suggest that environmental factors also play a role. Parents and siblings of a child with ADHD are more likely to have ADHD themselves, but the way ADHD is inherited is complex and not related to a single genetic fault. The heritability of ADHD is around 74%, and longitudinal studies show that two-thirds of ADHD youth will continue to have impairing symptoms of ADHD in adulthood. Adoption studies suggest that the familial factors of ADHD are attributable to genetic factors rather than shared environmental factors. The heritability is similar in males and females, and studies suggest that the diagnosis of ADHD is the extreme of a continuous distribution of ADHD symptoms in the population. Several candidate genes, including DAT1, DRD4, DRD5, 5 HTT, HTR1B, and SNAP25, have been identified as significantly associated with ADHD.

      Source: Faraone (2019) Genetics of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Molecular Psychiatry volume 24, pages 562–575 (2019).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward for an alcohol detox....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward for an alcohol detox. She has a history of memory lapses. Upon examination, there are no significant cognitive impairments. What nutritional supplement should be considered to decrease her chances of experiencing neuropsychiatric complications?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      For individuals undergoing treatment for alcohol dependence, it is recommended to administer prophylactic Vitamin B1 (thiamine) to prevent the development of neuropsychiatric complications such as Wernicke’s of Korsakoff’s syndrome. The administration of intravenous of intramuscular thiamine (Pabrinex) is effective in reducing the risk of such complications. However, a lower dosage is used for prophylactic purposes compared to the dosage used for individuals with established cognitive deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
      16.7
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with an abnormality in the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with an abnormality in the tau protein?

      Your Answer: Hepatolenticular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is identified by the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain.

      Tau and Tauopathies

      Tau proteins are essential for maintaining the stability of microtubules in neurons. Microtubules provide structural support to the cell and facilitate the transport of molecules within the cell. Tau proteins are predominantly found in the axons of neurons and are absent in dendrites. The gene that codes for tau protein is located on chromosome 17.

      When tau proteins become hyperphosphorylated, they clump together, forming neurofibrillary tangles. This process leads to the disintegration of cells, which is a hallmark of several neurodegenerative disorders collectively known as tauopathies.

      The major tauopathies include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia), progressive supranuclear palsy, and corticobasal degeneration. These disorders are characterized by the accumulation of tau protein in the brain, leading to the degeneration of neurons and cognitive decline. Understanding the role of tau proteins in these disorders is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with damage to the Broca's area after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with damage to the Broca's area after experiencing expressive aphasia following a car accident. Where is the Broca's area located in the brain?

      Your Answer: Inferior frontal gyrus

      Explanation:

      Broca’s area, located in the inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere, is a crucial region for language production. It controls the motor functions necessary for speech production, and damage to this area can result in difficulties forming words and speaking. While language comprehension remains intact, the individual may experience expressive dysphasia, struggling to produce speech.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You see a 72-year-old woman with a history of mild cognitive impairment in...

    Correct

    • You see a 72-year-old woman with a history of mild cognitive impairment in order to assess her tactile perception.
      With her eyes closed, you place a key in her hand and ask her to identify the object.
      What cognitive function are you evaluating with this task?

      Your Answer: Astereognosia

      Explanation:

      Apraxia is the inability to perform voluntary actions despite having intact neurological function. Agnosia is the inability to comprehend the meaning of sensory input despite having intact neurological function. Astereognosia is the inability to recognize three-dimensional shapes, while agraphoagnosia is the inability to recognize numbers traced on the palm. Atopognosia is the inability to identify the location of an object on the skin, and constructional apraxia is the inability to draw simple figures. Ideomotor apraxia is the inability to perform a skilled action in response to verbal commands of imitation, although the ability to perform actions spontaneously with tools may remain intact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is a true statement about agomelatine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about agomelatine?

      Your Answer: It is not associated with sexual side effects

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine is a medication used to treat depression. It works by activating melatonin receptors (MT1 and MT2) and blocking serotonin 5-HT2C receptors.

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is a common characteristic observed in a patient diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome?...

    Correct

    • What is a common characteristic observed in a patient diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome?

      Your Answer: Cleft palate

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the given symptoms is DiGeorge syndrome, which is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. The syndrome presents with various signs and symptoms, including cardiac abnormalities (tetralogy of Fallot), abnormal facies (almond-shaped eyes, low-set ears), thymic aplasia (leading to recurrent infections), cleft palate, and hypocalcemia/hypoparathyroidism (causing short stature and seizures). Additionally, individuals with DiGeorge syndrome often have a degree of learning disability and are at an increased risk for psychiatric conditions such as depression, ADHD, and schizophrenia. It is important to note that flapping hand movements, hyperphagia, overlapping of fingers over thumb, and pronounced self-injurious behavior are associated with other genetic disorders such as Angelman syndrome, Fragile X, Prader-Willi syndrome, Patau syndrome, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and Smith-Magenis syndrome.

      Genetic Conditions and Their Features

      Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:

      – Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
      – Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
      – Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
      – Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
      – Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
      – Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
      – Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
      – Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
      – Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
      – Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
      – Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
      – Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
      – Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
      – Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
      – Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
      – Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
      – Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
      – Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.

      It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      10.4
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  • Question 25 - Which of the options below does not diminish the effectiveness of the oral...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below does not diminish the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill when used together?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      It is safe to use sodium valproate together with the oral contraceptive pill. However, as valproate is known to cause birth defects, all women who use it and are of childbearing age must also use contraception.

      Interactions with Oral Contraceptives

      Psychiatric drugs such as St John’s Wort, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Topiramate, and Barbiturates can interact with oral contraceptives and lead to a reduced contraceptive effect. It is important to be aware of these potential interactions to ensure the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - What is a frequently observed side effect of carbamazepine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a frequently observed side effect of carbamazepine?

      Your Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      The use of carbamazepine often results in numerous side effects, with ataxia being a common occurrence.

      Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, Contraindications, Warnings, and Side-Effects

      Carbamazepine, also known as Tegretol, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used for neuropathic pain, bipolar disorder, and other conditions. The drug works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, carbamazepine has notable contraindications, including a history of bone marrow depression and combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). It also carries warnings for serious dermatological reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson syndrome.

      Common side-effects of carbamazepine include leucopenia, ataxia, dizziness, somnolence, vomiting, nausea, urticaria, and fatigue. Other side-effects include thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia, oedema, fluid retention, weight increase, hyponatraemia, and blood osmolarity decreased due to an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading in rare cases to water intoxication accompanied by lethargy, vomiting, headache, confusional state, neurological disorders, diplopia, accommodation disorders (e.g. blurred vision), and dry mouth.

      In summary, carbamazepine is a medication with multiple uses, but it also carries significant contraindications, warnings, and side-effects that should be carefully considered before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which base pairs are found within DNA? ...

    Correct

    • Which base pairs are found within DNA?

      Your Answer: Adenine and thymine

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - With what condition of disease are Hirano bodies commonly linked? ...

    Correct

    • With what condition of disease are Hirano bodies commonly linked?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's

      Explanation:

      Hirano bodies are considered to be a general indication of neuronal degeneration and are primarily observed in cases of Alzheimer’s disease.

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 29 - What is the most prevalent type of Down's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most prevalent type of Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Down Syndrome: Causes and Risk Factors

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of extra genetic material from chromosome 21. There are three different types of Down syndrome, each with its own cause and inheritance pattern. The most common form, full trisomy 21, is not inherited and accounts for 95% of cases. It occurs when there is a failure of chromosome 21 to separate properly during cell division, resulting in an extra copy of the chromosome. This can happen randomly, with the extra chromosome coming from the mother 88% of the time and from the father 12% of the time.

      The second type, translocation Down syndrome, is inherited and accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 breaks off and attaches to another chromosome, resulting in extra genetic material. This type of Down syndrome is caused by a balanced translocation, which means that the parent carrying the translocation has no signs of symptoms of the disorder.

      The third type, mosaic Down syndrome, is not inherited and also accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs as a random event during cell division early in fetal development, resulting in some cells having an extra copy of chromosome 21 while others do not.

      The risk of having a child with Down syndrome increases as a mother gets older. At age 35, the risk is 1 in 385; at age 40, the risk is 1 in 106; and at age 45, the risk is 1 in 30. It is important for women to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss them with their healthcare provider if they are planning to have a child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 30 - From which substance is melatonin produced? ...

    Correct

    • From which substance is melatonin produced?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Melatonin: The Hormone of Darkness

      Melatonin is a hormone that is produced in the pineal gland from serotonin. This hormone is known to be released in higher amounts during the night, especially in dark environments. Melatonin plays a crucial role in regulating the sleep-wake cycle and is often referred to as the hormone of darkness.

      The production of melatonin is influenced by the amount of light that enters the eyes. When it is dark, the pineal gland releases more melatonin, which helps to promote sleep. On the other hand, when it is light, the production of melatonin is suppressed, which helps to keep us awake and alert.

      Melatonin is also known to have antioxidant properties and may help to protect the body against oxidative stress. It has been suggested that melatonin may have a role in the prevention of certain diseases, such as cancer and neurodegenerative disorders.

      Overall, melatonin is an important hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating our sleep-wake cycle and may have other health benefits as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (5/6) 83%
Classification And Assessment (1/2) 50%
Social Psychology (3/3) 100%
Assessment (2/2) 100%
Neurosciences (7/7) 100%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
Diagnosis (1/1) 100%
History And Mental State (1/1) 100%
Genetics (3/5) 60%
Prevention Of Psychological Disorder (1/1) 100%
Psychological Development (1/1) 100%
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